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A380 > Tech Quiz Closed Book > Flashcards

Tech Quiz Closed Book Flashcards

1
Q

Who ensures all documents onboard are valid? (OMA 1.5.3)

A

a) Captain

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2
Q

Who is responsible for keeping a vaild medical license? (OMA 6.4)

A

a) Licensing department
b) GCAA
c) Documents keeper
d) Individual Crew Member 👈

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3
Q

Which documents are NOT retained in ground in Dubai? (OMA 2.1.3.1)

A

a) SIGWX chart is NOT to be retained

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4
Q

Is the Commander responsible for Safety Cards?

A

a) Yes. The Commander delegates to the cabin crew and the Purser ensures it’s done

(or the Commander delegates to the Purser and ensures it’s done)

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5
Q

The Tech Log must be filled out in accirdance with wich manual? (OMA 8.1.11)

A

a) MEL/CDL

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6
Q

A Captain shall not commence a flight if he is not satisfied…

A

a) Aircraft is airworthy
b) The load is correctly distributed
c) The airplane configuration is in accordance with the CDL
d) All of the above 👈

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7
Q

What are the Flight Crew duties during fuelling? (OMA 8.2.1.3)

A

a) Establish and maintain comms with ground
b) Inform Cabin Crew when refuelling is finished by switching the seat belts sign ON
c) Be ready to action PAX evacuation
d) All of the above 👈

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8
Q

Is defuelling with passengers embarking/onboard/disembarking allowed? (OMA 8.2.1.3)

A

a) Not with Wide-cut fuel
b) Yes if Jet A/A1 used and the flight crew must be notified before commencing
c) Follow local regulations
d) A and B 👈

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9
Q

When can you start to use contingency fuel? (OMA 8.1.7.2 / OMA 8.3.7.1)

A

a) After the release of the fuel bowser

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10
Q

At the planning stage contingency fuel compensates for deviations in… ( OMA 8.1.7.1.3)

A

a) WX forecasts 👈
b) ZFW
c) TOW
d) Expected Taxi Fuel

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11
Q

Standard fuel planning requirements are only applicable until? (OMA 8.1.7.2)

A

a) Completion of refuelling and release of the fuel bowser

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12
Q

When is it NOT recommended to do tankering? (OMA 8.1.7.6)

A

a) If TO/LDG runway is contaminated or expected to be so

(Also if flight is >2hrs and temp @ dest is <20)

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13
Q

What are the tolerance limits for the Outer Tank Imbalance? (FCOM/LIM - 28)

A

a) Left/Right Outer Tank imbalance is 1200kg

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14
Q

How is the FPF calculated? (FCTM/PRO/ABN/FUEL/Fuel penalty)

A

Add the FPF to the TRIP, ALT and Final Reserve

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a correct statement regarding fuel remaining on touchdown? (OMA 8.3.7.3)

A

a) For Commitment to Destination = Final Reserve Fuel
b) For Destination = Alternate + Final Reserve Fuel
c) For Alternate = Final Reserve Fuel
d) For Destination = Alternate Fuel 👈

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16
Q

What is Final Reserve Fuel? (OMA 8.1.7.1.5)

A

a) Fuel required to fly for 30min at holding speed at 1500ft above destination alternate aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with estimated weight on arrival at the alternate or destination when no alternate is required

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17
Q

If during an in-flight fuel check the expected fuel on arrival at the destination is less than Alternate fuel + Final Reserve fuel, could you continue to destination without knowing the EAT? (OMA 8.3.7.2)

A

b) Flight may continue towards the destination aerodrome if it is possible to reach at least two aerodromes at which a landing is assured with at least Final Reserve Fuel remaining at touchdown. Two separate and independent runways at a single aerodrome within two hours of flying time may be considered to be equivalent to two aerodromes, provided that account is taken of fuel burn due to any likely ATC delays

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18
Q

Is any frost allowed under the wings? (OMA 8.2.4)

A

a) Yes. Upcto 3mm of frost is allowed on the underside of the wing due to cold soaking

(Regulations also allow a light coating on top of the fuselage)

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19
Q

With regards to Frost? (OMA 8.2.4)

A

a) Regulations allow a small layer of frost on top of the fuselage 👈
b) Regulations allow a small layer on top of the wing
c) Any ice/frost less than 3mm does not need to be taken into account
d) ?

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20
Q

For Holdover times, how should Snow Grains and Snow Pellets he treated? (OMC 10.2.3.8.9)

A

a) As rain on a cold soaked wing
b) As snow 👈
c) As Ice pellets
d) As Freezing fog

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21
Q

When does the Holdover Time (Fluid Protection) expire? (OMC 9.6.3)

A

a) At the commencement of the takeoff roll (due to the aerodynamic shedding of fluid)
b) When frozen deposits start to form or accumulate on treated aircraft surfaces, thereby indicating the loss of effectiveness of the fluid (fluid failure)
c) Both A&B 👈

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22
Q

When is a PCI mandatory? (OMC 10.2.3.6)

A

a) When precipitation has started since the application of the final layer and the shortest time of the HOT is exceeded
b) When there is Heavy Snow and takeoff is contemplated. Or Heavy Snow conditions exist or have been encountered since the start of Anti-icing fluid application
c) When severe icing conditions are encountered and takeoff is contemplated
d) All of the above 👈

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23
Q

When will you turn on ENG ANTI ICE? (FCOM/PRO/SUPP/ICE&RAIN/OPS IN ICING)

A

a) Engine anti-ice must be ON during all ground and flight operations, when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the SAT is below -40 degrees
b) Engine anti-ice must be ON before and during a descent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below -40 degrees
c) Both A&B 👈

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24
Q

When will you turn WING ANTI ICE ON? (FCOM/PRO/SUPP/ICE&RAIN/OPS IN ICING)

A

a) When severe icing conditions are encountered
b) The flight crew MAY turn on the Wing A-Ice to prevent the ice accretion on the wing leading edge
c) The flight crew MUST turn on the Wing A-Ice if there is evidence of ice accretion, such as ice on the visual indicators or on the wipers, or if the alert A-ICE/SEVERE ICE DETECTED is displayed. This is to remove any ice accumulation from the wing leading edge
d) All of the above 👈

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25
Q

What is a representative surface? (OMC 10.2.3.6)

A

a) The inner portion of the wing from the root outward to the innermost pylon. It includes the entire chord lenght

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26
Q

What is the definition of a Contaminated Runway? (OMA 8.1.2.6.1.4)

A

a) 25% covered

(Definition is 25% of the surface to be used covered either with Compacted Snow, Ice or water contaminants more than 3mm)

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27
Q

When flying to an airport on QNH and the OAT is less than -30 degrees, which altitudes need to be corrected for low temperature? (OMC 10.2.4.1.1)

A

a) MEA/MOCA/MGA
b) Missed approach altitude and engine acceleration altitude
c) Approach minima, IAF, IF and FAF/FAP
d) All of the above 👈

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28
Q

What do you apply temperature corrections to if the airfield (or ISA) temperature is -30 degrees? (OMC 10.2.4.1.1)

A

a) MEA/MH/MGA/MOCA

(In the exam the answer is All of the above, but there is an ATC cleared alt in one of the answers)

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29
Q

How long do the crew need to be on board prior to departure? (OMC 1.1.5)

A

a) STD-55

(Correct is STD-60 but not an option)

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30
Q

When does the FDP start and end? (OMA7.6.1)

A

a) Dubai 1h25m until chocks on / Outstations 1h until chocks on

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31
Q

When (How) can a FDP be legally extended? (OMA 7.7.1/7.7.2/7.15)

A

a) Inflight relief
b) Split duty
c) Commander’s discretion
d) All of the above 👈

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32
Q

What FDP should be recorded in your personal logbook? (OMA 7.7.1.3)

A

a) Nominated Captain and FO - 100%
b) ?
c) Augmenting crew - actual operating times as per the VR
d) Both A&C 👈

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33
Q

When is a crew member said to be acclimatized for work? (OMA 7.5)

A

a) When they have 3 local nights on ground within a 2 hour time band (Local night is 8hrs in the period 2200-0800 LOCAL time)

(There is an answer that a local night is 8hrs in the period 2200-0800 UTC so read carefully)

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34
Q

Who is responsible for making sure the FTL scheme is monitored? (OMA 7.2/7.3)

A

a) Crew member
b) Emirates Airline
c) GCAA
d) Both A&B 👈

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35
Q

What are the initial actions of the PM during an Emergency descent?

A

a) PA announce, call ATC
b) Set sqwauk 7700
c) Crew Oxy Masks On … / Signs : ON / FMA MONITOR
d) CREW OXY MASK …….. ON/SIGNS …ON/ FMA MONITOR

(Answers c) and d) are identical, correct should be c) - check for the 3 dots

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36
Q

When must the flight crew press the MASK MAN ON pb?

A

a) 14000ft

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37
Q

When can a pilot request an orbit? (OMA 8.3.20.2.26)

A

a) In day VMC, whilst maintaining constant visual contact with terrain andbabove 1500ft AGL

(No more reference to when a pilot can REQEUEST an orbit just the required conditions)

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38
Q

When would you assume pilot incapacitation? (OMA 8.3.14)

A

a) Two verbal communications when above 1000ft AGL
b) One verbal communication when below 1000ft AGL
c) Any verbal communication associated with significant deviation from the intended flight path
d) All of the above 👈

39
Q

What are the initial actions when you receive a RED BOMB ALERT in flight? (OMA 10.5.4.3.3)

A

a) Contact SMNC
b) Follow the procedure contained in the FCOM/QRH 👈
c) Make a PA: “This is the Captain, Purser to the Flight Deck”
d) Make a PA to the passengers and give the Purser a NITS briefing

40
Q

When landing with manual brakes if the ROP activates will it apply any braking?

A

a) NO: The aural warning “MAX BRAKING” will trigger until maximum manual braking is applied

41
Q

The EBCU (Emergency Braking Control Unit) receives electrical signal commands from the Flight Crew via?

A

a) Brake pedals and Parking brake handle 👈
b) Brake pedals only
c) Parking brake handle only

42
Q

When does the Autobrake activate?

A

a) The basic Autobrake activates when all the arming conditions are satisfied, the ground spoilers extend and the NLG is on ground, or 5 seconds after the ground spoilers extend, whichever occurs first. The ground spoilers do not extend automatically below 72kts. As a result, in the case of a RTO initiated below 72kts, the basic Autobrake does not activate

(The important numbers are 5sec and 72kts for RTO. Other answers mention different numbers)

43
Q

On which landing gear does the system apply pressure when the Parking brake lever is set to ON?

A

a) BLG

44
Q

What powers the brakes in Alternate, Emergency and Ultimate braking modes?

A

a) Just the LEHGS
b) Just the Accumulators
c) The LEHGS and/or the accumulators 👈

45
Q

The EBCU (Emergency Braking Control Unit) controls the Ultimare braking on the…

A

a) WLG brakes 👈
b) BLG using the Parking brake handle

46
Q

When can you extend the Landing Gear during an emergency descent? (FCOM/LIM/12)

A

a) Maximum altitude for LG extension is 21000ft
b) Maximum speed for LG extension is 250kts/M0.55
c) Nevertheless in the case of emergency, respecting the 0.55 speed limit, the flight crew can extend the LG above 21000ft
d) All of the above👈

(Ambiguous answer due to the question wording)

47
Q

When should you apply the Unreliable Airspeed procedure (even if the safe conduct of the flight is not impacted)?

A

a) If the Flight Crew has any doubt regarding the current airspeed indications

48
Q

What are the Pitch and Thrust settings for Unreliable Airspeed at the different altitudes?

A

a) Below 10000ft - 12.5/TOGA (after THR RED - MCT)
b) between 10000-25000ft - 10/CLB
c) above 25000ft - 5/CLB
d) All of the above 👈

49
Q

When are 2 destination alternates required? (OMA 8.1.3.1.6 & 8.1.6.1)

A

a) No meteo information available
b) ETA weather below minima
c) When TEMPO TSRA forecast within +/- 1hr of ETA
d) Both A&B 👈

50
Q

What is the applicable planning minima for Takeoff Alternates (OMA 8.1.3.1.1)

A

a) A Takeoff Alternate is required if the weather minimums at the departure aerodrome are not equal or better than the ones required to return. The weather has to be above the applicable landing minima +/- 1hr from ETA. (Using reports, forecasts or combination of the two)
b) Within two hours of flight time (equal to 950nm for A380) at a one engine inoperative speed in still air conditions based on the actual takeoff weight
c) All of the above 👈

51
Q

What is the applicable landing minima for a Takeoff Alternate? (OMA 8.1.3.1.1)

A

a) Applicable Landing Minima

52
Q

What weather must you use within 2hrs of your destination? (OMA 8.3.7.2)

A

a) Actual weather and trend information MAY be used

53
Q

What is the required visibility (and minima) for a Circling Approach? (OMA 8.3.2.20.2.22.4)

A

a) Visibility is the HIGHER of 5000m or the published minima. Ceiling is the HIGHER of 1200ft or the charted Cat D minima rounded up by 200ft

(Old question. Now using enhanced coding procedures)

54
Q

What are the PAX (Cabin) door wind limitations when NOT into wind?

A

a) 40kts

(50 when init wind, 60 to close)

55
Q

In case of a Goaround with an engine failure what flashes on the FMA if you select Soft Goaround

A

a) LVR TOGA 👈
b) LVR CLB
c) MAN SOFT G/A
d) SOFT G/A as soft goaround is still available with one engine out

(No Soft Goaround with an engine failure)

56
Q

If during a Goaround you don’t see MAN GA SOFT or MAN TOGA on the FMA what is your immediate action?

A

a) Change the Autopilot selection and recycle the A/THR
b) Manually put the thrust levers in the TOGA detent 👈
c) Prepare to control thrust manually
d) recycle the A/THR button

57
Q

What is the target VS when Soft Goaround thrust is applied?

A

a) 3000ft/min
b) 2000ft/min 👈
c) 1500ft/min
d) 2000ft/min or 4 degrees if in TRK/FPA mode (wrong)

58
Q

If company regulations violate national or international rules or regulations which should you follow? (OMA 1.1.1)

A

a) Company policies
b) International laws
c) National laws
d) Both B&C 👈

59
Q

Which law applies onboard an EK aircraft outside UAE airspace? (OMA 1.1.1)

A

a) Then you must comply with the law of the state being overflown 👈
b) National Rule
c) International Rule
d) UAE CAR Rule

60
Q

What pitch will most likely result in a tail strike when the landing gear is compressed?

A

a) 12.1 degrees
b) 13.5 degrees (wrong - it’s for an extended LG)
c) 9.5 degrees
d) 11.5 degrees 👈

61
Q

What bank angle will cause a wingtip or an engine to scrape the ground on takeoff or landing?

A

a) 7 degrees

62
Q

Where will you find the Airport Categories? (OMC 12.1)

A

a) OMC

(Definitions are in OMA 8.1.2.1)

63
Q

What is a suitable aerodrome (ETOPS)?

A

a) Enroute wxr planning minima for ceiling+vis are met
b) Forecast crosswind including gusts within limits
c) Runway conditions suitable for a safe landing
d) All of the above 👈

64
Q

Which cargo has the highest priority (gets offloaded last)? (GOM 27.1)

A

a) Animals
b) International mail 👈
c) Food or perishables
d) SkyCargo cargo

(GOM is updated and says Company mail now)

65
Q

Where can you find the provisions for carriage of DG carried by passengers and Crew?

A

a) IATA Dangerous Goods Regulations Section 2 - Limitations

66
Q

Which aircraft holds can be used for transportation of DG?

A

a) Only the Aft Hold
b) Any hold, except the Bulk 👈
c) Only the Forward Hold
d) Any Hold

(Currently should be any, Bulk can have
1. Dry Ice
2. Biological substances Cat
3. Radioactive material in excepted packages
4. DG in excepted quantities with the exception of 4&5 DG)

67
Q

When is a CRS (Certificate of Release to Service) NOT required? (OMA 8.1.11.2)

A

a) A CRS is NOT required in case of NIL DEFECTS in the TECH LOG

68
Q

When is a CRS (Certificate of Release to Service) required? (OMA 8.1.11.2)

A

a) When a defect is entered into the Tech Log a CRS is required to revalidate the Certificate of Airwotrhiness. If a defect is entered in the Tech Log and has been actioned a CRS must be issued

69
Q

Which of the following is NOT a stabilization criteria? (OMA 8.3.20.2.27)

A

a) Speed between Vref +20/-5

70
Q

When the electric hydraulic pumps operate automatically?

A

a) Both Cargo Door and BWS operation

71
Q

The BWS activates when?

A

a) Automatically when the NWS andle is more than 20 degrees and ground speed less than 30kts

(other answers mention different angle and speed)

72
Q

What is the function of the ECB (Electronic Control Box)?

A

a) It monitors and controls the operation of the APU and displays the applicable information on the ECAM
b) Monitors the N1, N2 and EGT of the APU as well as the other parameters
c) Sequences and monitors the APU start (and different shutdowns)
d) All of the above 👈

73
Q

OANS runway lenght vs. Chart runway lenght. When can you use the BTV?

A

a) If the difference between the OANS and the Chart runway lenght is more than 35m (115ft) DO NOT use the BTV

74
Q

What are the conditions for an Aft CG Transfer in flight?

A

a) There is NO AFT Transfer in flight

75
Q

When will you see the Flaps Indicator on the PFD showing FULL?

A

a) When the Flaps are actually in the FULL position
b) Indicates the selected configuration 👈
c) Indicates the current configuration

76
Q

At 3000ft and below Vls but above Alpha Prot what warning will you get?

A

a) None, as LOW ENERGY warning is available below 2500ft

(in conf 2,3,full and in cruise with all engines. activates below Vls-10 and above Alpha Prot)

77
Q

What are the RVSM applicable levels?

A

a) FL290-FL410 INclusive

(there is an answer same levels but EXclusive - read carefully)

78
Q

In RVSM conditions ATC must be informed (if) when?

A

a) Loss of GPS
b) Loss of one or more altimetey systems 👈
c) Loss of one Autopilot
d) Moderate turbulence resulting in a height loss of 200ft

79
Q

If the “Runway width plus shoulders less than 58m wide” procedure is applied for the TOPA application (displayed) is the performance penalty taken into account for the computation?

A

a) Yes

80
Q

When can you operate the Windshield Wipers?

A

a) Taxi, Takeoff, Holding and Approach to landing with max speed for use 250kt

81
Q

What is the Commander NOT responsible for?

A

a) Loading according to the Trim Sheet

(Accepts it and has to be satisfied but handling agent/Load master is responsible)

82
Q

If Runway lenght is reduced what do you have to check and from where?

A

a) Check Performance Software (TOPA) distance against the one published in the NOTAM or AIP Supplement

83
Q

How long must you wait before you can fly after giving blood?

A

a) 48hrs

84
Q

What are the alcohol consumation limits prior to a duty? (ERM1.10.4)

A

a) 12hrs prior to commencing a duty

(0.02 is the limit in UAE)

85
Q

Under which circumstances must a Commander consider a diversion to a safe and acceptable aerodrome? (Which one is a LAND ANSA)

A

a) Fire on board and firefighting it effectively
b) ENG FAIL on a 2 eng aircraft 👈
c) Autopilot failure
d) Communication failure

86
Q

Who can the Captain call if there is a medical issue with a passenger during check-in/boarding? (still on ground)

A

a) Ground Medical Support (GMS)
b) Aerodrome medical clinic
c) An Emirates Doctor, contactable through Network Operations
d) All of the above 👈

87
Q

What is the restriction on two inexperienced crew members flying together? (OMA 4.1.4)

A

a) 3 Months

(Not sure about the reference)

88
Q

When can a Captain allow the FO to taxi the aircraft? (OMA 8.3.20.1.7)

A

a) Anytime except where the parking guidance system is aligned with the view from the left-hand seat or a 180 degree turn on the runway is required

(Doesn’t mention LVO, Cont RWY, failures affecting taxi)

89
Q

Should both Autopilots be engaged for a GLS Autoland?

A

a) Yes

(There is an answer one can be engaged but the policy is to engage both)

90
Q

What do you check after there is a LMC? (OMA 8.1.8.6.1)

A

a) ZFW, TOW, LW limits are not exceeded (Structural and Performance) 👈
b) Check MAC within 2.4%
c) Inform load control
d) Both A&B

(Also check if TOPA is valid and loading limits not exceeded)

91
Q

Deep diving without decompression stops require you to wait 12hrs before flying. If decompression stops were required how much time would you need to wait before flying? (OMA 6.1.14)

A

a) 24hrs

92
Q

Following an Overweight Landing what has to be reported in the TechLog? (OMA 8.3.20.3.12)

A

a) The actual landing weight (LW)

93
Q

Who is responsible to ensure the aircraft is loaded correctly? (OMA 1.6.4.3.3)

A

a) The Handling Agent / Loadmaster

94
Q

If enaged in which mode will the A/THR engage if FD’s are disengaged?

A

a) SPD/MACH

A380 (3 decks)

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