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Aviation Revision > Tech Bell212 > Flashcards

Tech Bell212 Flashcards

1
Q

Main rotor diameter?

A

48’

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2
Q

Tip of rotor to tip of tail?

A

57’ 3.25”

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3
Q

What is the size of the baggage compartment?

A

28-cubic feet

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4
Q

How are the elevators positioned

A

Inverted

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5
Q

How many electrical power systems does the a/c have?

A

2, AC and DC

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6
Q

How is the primary electrical power supplied?

A

Two 30-Volt 200 Ampere starter generators (derated to 150) and a 24v, 34amp hour nickel-cadmium battery.

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7
Q

VDC of the starter generator?

A

28 VDC

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8
Q

How is the secondary power supplied?

A

Two 115/26 VAC Solid state inverters with a 3rd as back up.

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9
Q

How many red captions on the CPW?

A

7

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10
Q

What are the A/C engines?

A

Pratt and Whitney PT6T-3B “TwinPac” rated at 1,800 shaft horsepower.

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11
Q

When does the particle separator come on at?

A

53 +/- 2%

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12
Q

What else may cause the particle separator to go off

A

Fire Pull Handle

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13
Q

Which electrical buses distribute DC power to the aircraft?

A

No 1 and 2 Main DC Buses

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14
Q

Which of the following methods is used to assist the pilot in identifying and separating electrical circuit breakers on the overhead console?

A

Separating No1 and 2 buses and system breakers.

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15
Q

What functions do the Battery Bus switches provide?

A

To activate the battery bus relays

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16
Q

What is displayed on the DC voltmeter?

A

No1 and 2 essential DC bus voltage.

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17
Q

What is displayed on the AC voltmeter?

A

Voltage on the no 1 and 2 115 vac buses

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18
Q

What does the duel ammeter indicate?

A

Ammperage load on each generator

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19
Q

What is the maximum allowable difference in amps, between ammeter indications during normal operations?

A

20

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20
Q

What does the illumination of the battery caution panel annunciator indicate?

A

Both battery bus relays are in the same position

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21
Q

What does illumination of the Battery Temp caution panel annunciator indicate?

A

High battery temperature

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22
Q

When will the nonessential buses be automatically powered?

A

Only when both generators are operating online.

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23
Q

When starting both engines using external power, which Battery bus switch must be on?

A

Both the no1 and no2?

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24
Q

What does illumination of the External power caution annunciator indicate?

A

The external power door is open.

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25
Q

What is the minimum recommended N1 Rpm to be attained before turning a generator on?

A

71%

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26
Q

What type electrical power are used for a generator-assisted start of the second engine?

A

Generator and battery power

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27
Q

When the second generator is switched ON, which switch or switches should automatically change position?

A

Battery BUS switch 1.

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28
Q

What does the illumination of a DC Generator caution panel annunciator indicator?

A

The generator relay is open and the generator is not online.

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29
Q

What does the illumination of a GEN OVHT caution panel annunciator indicate?

A

The generator cooling air is hot.

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30
Q

What cockpit gauge will provide a positive indication of DC essential bus failure?

A

The retrospective DV voltmenter drops to 0 volts.

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31
Q

What is the source of AC electrical power on the Bell212?

A

Two or three solid-state inverters powered by airframe DC power.

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32
Q

What does illumination of an INVERTER caution panel indicate?

A

Loss of 115-volt inverter output.

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33
Q

Which AC electrical buses are lost if one inverter fails?

A

The respective AC emergency buses.

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34
Q

Where are the majority of lighting system controls located?

A

Overhead console

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35
Q

What controls the passenger compartment dome lights?

A

Knob and a toggle switch

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36
Q

What is the shape and colour of the light beam that the pilots and copilots cockpit lights project?

A

Wide white light, wide red light, narrow white or red,

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37
Q

When do the baggage compartment lights illuminate?

A

When the baggage compartment door is opened and the non-essential buses are powered.

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38
Q

Where are the controls of the landing light and search light located?

A

Pilots collective control head

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39
Q

What does moving the PILOT INSTR LT knob out of the OFF position do?

A

Allows dimming of the caution panel annnunciators

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40
Q

The symbolized no smoking/fasten seat belts light?

A

Illuminates anytime DC power is on in the aircraft.

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41
Q

All the caution/warning panel can be illuminated by;

A

Selecting the Test position of the Test/Reset switch on the caution panel.

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42
Q

An electrical power failure to the cation panel is indicated by?

A

Illumination of both MASTER caution and of the CAUTION PANEL annunciation on the caution panel

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43
Q

If the BRIGHT-DIM switch on the caution panel is moved to the DIM position then?

A

If the pilots instrument light know is on then all illuminated caution/warning annuniciators on the caution panel reduce to one-half brightness.

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44
Q

Illumination of a caution/warning annunciator on the caution panel indicates

A

The system malfunction has occurred

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45
Q

How to test the Caution Panel annunciator?

A

Move the MASTER Caution switch to test

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46
Q

Can Jet A and B be used in the Bell 212?

A

Yes

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47
Q

How man fuel cells are in the standard airframe fuel system?

A

5

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48
Q

What is the usable fuel capacity of a Bell212 without aux tanks?

A

217 US Gallons =

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49
Q

How does fuel consumption effect CogG?

A

The CofG moves forward then aft.

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50
Q

Where would you find the fuel boost pump, fuel injector pump and fuel flow switch?

A

Lower fuel cells

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51
Q

Which device actuates the illumination of the FUEL BOOST caution panel light if a fuel boost pump fails?

A

The fuel flow switch

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52
Q

What is the purpose of the ejector pumps?

A

To transfer fuel from the upper cells to the lower cells.

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53
Q

What malfunctions causes the illumination of a FUEL BOOST caution panel light?

A

Failure of the boost pump, blockage of a flow switch and ejector pumps.

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54
Q

What conditions activates the fuel float switches and illuminates the FUEL LOW caution panel light?

A

70 pounds remaining in the respective lower fuel cell.

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55
Q

What is the recommended pilot action if FUEL LOW caution panel is illuminated in flight?

A

Position the fuel intercon switch to open.

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56
Q

To electronically operate the fuel sump drain valves, which electrical and fuel switches must be used?

A

A battery bus switch on and the appropriate fuel switch off.

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57
Q

What is the purpose of the fuel interconnect valves?

A

To equalize lower cell fuel if one cells fuel becomes low, To access lower cell fuel if a boost pump fails and to separate the two independent fuel systems

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58
Q

After the pilot has moved the fuel switch to ON, the FUEL VALVE caution panel light illuminates momentarily and then extinguishes. What does this indicate?

A

The fuel valve and the fuel switch are in agreement, the fuel valve has moved to the full open position.

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59
Q

What other airframe system also control over each engine’s fuel valve?

A

The respective FIRE PULL handle.

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60
Q

Where is the fuel pressure sensed?

A

After the fuel valve

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61
Q

Which causes the cross-feed valve to open?

A

A boost pump failure sensed by the associated flow switch.

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62
Q

What is the purpose of the FUEL XFEED TEST switch?

A

To test fuel crossfeed valve operation on both essential buses.

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63
Q

What does a fuel pressure guage reading 4-6 psi below normal pressure indicate during the fuel crossfeed valve check?

A

A malfunctioning check valve in the boost pump output line.

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64
Q

What is the result of a complete loss of AC electrical power to the fuel quantity system?

A

The fuel quantity gauge sticks at its last position and the fuel quantity selector switch is inop

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65
Q

What is the cockpit indication of a boost pump failure if all fuel system switches are in the normal in-flight positions?

A

Illumination of the respective FUEL BOOST caution panel light, A fuel boost caution light and no indicated fuel pressure and engine if above 5000’ pressure altitude.

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66
Q

How may an indicated boost pump failure be verified after the helicopter is safely on the ground?

A

Close the fuel valve, and check fuel pressure.

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67
Q

What two identical units does the Pratt and Whitney of Canada PT6T-3B twinpac consist of?

A

Free turbine turboshaft engines driving a combining gearbox

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68
Q

Which unit is the primary drive responsibility of the gas producer (N1) section?

A

The n1 accessory section

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69
Q

The starter-generator, fuel control unit, and the N1 tachometer generator are mounted on the?

A

N1 accessory section.

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70
Q

The overall combining gearbox does?

A

Reduces the N2 RPM, Combines both engines power output and, mounts and drives various N2 and Cbox accessories.

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71
Q

The combining gearbox is actually divided into?

A

Divided into three sections, two for gear reduction and one for .

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72
Q

N1 tachometer generator signals are used to indicate the percent of each engines n1 RPM on the N1 gauge and to ?

A

Actuate each engines ENGINE OUT warning annuniciator and particle separator system.

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73
Q

Inter turbine temperature (ITT) indications are?

A

self generating but require correction by the ITT trim compensator unit

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74
Q

N2 tachometer generator signals provide?

A

Cockpit N2 indications on the triple tachometer indicators.

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75
Q

Engine torque indication is a function of ___ which operates a sensor unit in the _____.

A

Engine oil pressure, combining section of the gearbox.

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76
Q

Transmission torque is displayed on the dual torque meter by?

A

Combining engine torque signals within the duel torque meter.

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77
Q

Optimum compressor efficiency and anti-stall operation during engine starting and N1 acceleration are provided by?

A

A compressor air bleed valve.

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78
Q

The engine oil-to-fuel heat exchanger regulates fuel heating by means of thermostatic valve which is controlled by engine…..?

A

Oil temperature exiting the heat exchanger.

79
Q

The engine fuel filter system includes?

A

A fuel filter caution annunciator and a bypass.

80
Q

The engine-driven fuel pump puts out high pressure to operator the?

A

Fuel control unit, flow divider and dump valve.

81
Q

The fuel control unit on each PT6T-3B engine is?

A

Hydro pneumatic with automatic or manual operation.

82
Q

The flow divider and dump valve do what?

A

Separate fuel flow between the primary and secondary fuel manifolds and nozzles and drains fuel from them after engine shutdown,

83
Q

Engine ignition occurs;

A

Only if the fuel switch is in ON and the starter is activated.

84
Q

Power plant lubrication systems all function similarly since they all follow the same procedure of ___ the oil.

A

Pressurizing, cooling, filtering and using.

85
Q

There are ____ engine oil pumps,_____.

A

Three, one for pressure and two for scavenge.

86
Q

The primary indication of the low engine oil pressure is the engine’s?

A

Oil Pressure gauge.

87
Q

The loss of engine oil pressure results in ?

A

A loss of engine torque indication.

88
Q

Excessive engine oil temperature should be treated in the same manner as?

A

A loss of engine oil pressure.

89
Q

The engine chip detector system includes?

A

Two chip detectors and an engine CHIP caution annunciators.

90
Q

Overfilling the C-box oil system results in?

A

Excessive oil being vented from the filler cap.

91
Q

A remote indicator for the C-box oil system indicates?

A

The c-box oil filter is bypassed.

92
Q

Loss of C-box oil pressure results in?

A

Erroneous hour meter readings.

93
Q

The C-box oil system include?

A

A CHIP C BOX caution and C BOX OIL PRESS and C BOX OIL TEMP warnings.

94
Q

Excessive C-Box oil temperature;

A

Requires landing as soon as possible

95
Q

The type of FCU malfunction should be determined from the ?

A

Triple tachometer

96
Q

The high side FCU malfunctions may?

A

A) May be controlled by reducing throttle from full open or B) May require entering manual FCU mode of operation.

97
Q

At what N1 engine rpm do the bypass doors of the PSS automatically close?

A

53 +/-2% decreasing

98
Q

When a PART SEP switch is placed in the OVERD ON position, what happens to the PSS bypass door?

A

It opens regardless of engine N1 RPM

99
Q

When a FIRE PULL handle is actuated, what is the effect on the bypass door?

A

It closes regardless of PART SEP switch position.

100
Q

When does the PART SEP OFF caution light illuminate?

A

When the bypass door opens.

101
Q

What does the effect of a loss of DC electrical power to the PSS have on the PART SEP OFF caution light?

A

It illuminates regardless of door position, engine N1, RPM, or FIRE PULL handle position.

102
Q

Particle separation is achieved by what?

A

An inertial bypass.

103
Q

If the PART SEP OFF caution light remain illuminated after engine start, what action should the pilot take?

A

Move the respective PART SEP switch to the OVRD ON position.

104
Q

How is anti-icing for the pitot tubes and static ports accomplished?

A

28-VDC electrical power

105
Q

What verifies proper operation of the pilot tubes and static ports anti-icing system?

A

Each ammeter load increases as the system is turned on.

106
Q

When should pitot-static anti-icing be turned on?

A

With an OAT of 4degC or below and visible moisture of the possibility of icing exists.

107
Q

How are the pilots and copilots wind shield system wipers operated?

A

Electrically and controlled with a single switch.

108
Q

What heat source does the windshield defrosting system use?

A

Either heated air or cockpit ventilating air.

109
Q

How is the winshield defrosting system activated?

A

By activating the cockpit heating system and moving the DEFROST lever to ON.

110
Q

What heat source does the windshield defogging system use?

A

Either heated air or cockpit ventilating air, depending on OAT.

111
Q

When should the windshield defrosting system not be activated?

A

At an OAT above 21degC.

112
Q

How are the engine fire extinguisher bottles checked during the walk-around engine inspection?

A

By visually ensuring the pressure gauge needle is in the green arc and the red blowout indicators are intact

113
Q

Which of the following compartment have fire warning lights?

A

The engine and baggage compartments.

114
Q

What causes illumination of a FIRE PULL handle warning light?

A

Excessive heat.

115
Q

What are the action necessary to extinguish an engine compartment fire?

A

Pull the illuminated fire handle, and select main or reserve fire extinguisher bottles.

116
Q

Which of the following is true for the engine fire-extinguisher system?

A

Neither bottle is automatically selected by pulling a FIRE PULL handle.

117
Q

What causes the BAGGAGE FIRE warning light to illuminate?

A

Heat, Smoke and Flickering light patterns

118
Q

What actions are necessary to extinguish a baggage compartment fire?

A

Reduce collective to min required, radios/transponder, passengers/crew, land immediately..

119
Q

Which provide in-flight fire protection?

A

The crew and passenger compartments and the engine compartments

120
Q

What is indicated by illumination of a fire detection warning light?

A

That immediate actions are required

121
Q

How many heat sensing elements for fire detection are in each engine compartment?

A

two

122
Q

What is the purpose of the FIRE EXT PRESS TO TEST button?

A

It provides a means to test the fire detection system circuitry.

123
Q

Which switch allows activation of the fire extinguisher agent into an engine compartment?

A

MAIN-OFF-RESERVE

124
Q

What is the purpose of the curvic-splined couplings on the main drive shaft?

A

T compensate for misalignment between transmission mounting

125
Q

How are the curvic-splined couplings on the main driveshaft lubricated?

A

Pack with grease and should be inspected daily.

126
Q

What is the reason for the templates on the main drive shaft and couplings?

A

To indicate overheating of the couplings

127
Q

What is the primary attachment between the main transmission and the airframe?

A

Lift link

128
Q

How is lubrication for the main transmission provided?

A

By a self contained pressure lubrication system driven by the main transmission

129
Q

What does the lubrication system for the main transmission include?

A

Both internal and external coolers and filters and a sump chip detector

130
Q

IF the CHIP XMSN caution annunciator illuminates, what should the pilot do?

A

Land as soon as possible with single indication

131
Q

What type of main rotor system is used on the Bell212?

A

Semi-rigid, flapping type.

132
Q

What component of the rotor system provides for blade flapping?

A

Trunnion

133
Q

What is the best way to describe the main rotor blades?

A

Symetrical airfoils of metal construction

134
Q

What are the main rotor rpm limits for powered flight?

A

97-100%

135
Q

What systems provide a warning of low rotor rpm?

A

RPM lights and audio tone

136
Q

What systems provide a warning of high rotor rpm?

A

RPM caution lights only

137
Q

What component of the rotor system provides for blade-pitch change?

A

Blade grips

138
Q

What type of tail rotor is used on the bell 212?

A

A semi rigid tractor with a delta hinge

139
Q

What actions are allowed by the tail rotor yoke flex-beams?

A

Collective blade pitch change

140
Q

What is the purpose of the tail rotor blade grip plates and doublers?

A

To mount the spherical self lubricating pitch change bearings

141
Q

How does tail rotor blade pitch change occur?

A

About the spherical pitch change bearings in the yoke

142
Q

How are the tail rotor and blades balanced?

A

Chordwise, spanwise and electronically tracked

143
Q

What materials are used in the construction of the tail rotor blades?

A

Bonded aluminum alloy with a stain-less-steel leading edge spar.

144
Q

What is the purpose of the tail rotor cross head assembly and pitch links?

A

To convert flight control movement to blade pitch change

145
Q

Whats is the purpose of the counterweight assemblies?

A

To reduce strain on the crosshead bearing assembly and to prevent wandering in the event of loss of tail control.

146
Q

How many independent hydraulic systems are used on a Bell212?

A

Three

147
Q

How many servos are used for main rotor system control?

A

Three

148
Q

How are the No1 and No2 hydraulic pumps driven?

A

Mechanically by the main transmission

149
Q

Does the pressure hydraulic filter have a bypass?

A

Yes

150
Q

At what pressure does the pressure relief valve open?

A

1,100 psi

151
Q

How is each electrical solenoid valve controlled?

A

By the associated hydr sys switch on the center pedestal

152
Q

How does a loss of electrical power effect the hydraulic system that is switched off?

A

The system comes back on

153
Q

What device illuminates the Hydraulic caution panel annunciator?

A

The pressure switch at 650 PSI.

154
Q

What is the purpose of the return fluid shutoff valve?

A

To trap return fluid within the servo loops

155
Q

How may the pilot check if any of the hydraulic filters are clogged?

A

Check the remote indicator in the pilots chin window.

156
Q

What is the approximate hydraulic fluid operating temperature difference between the number 1 and 2 systems?

A

The No2 system operates 15deg hotter

157
Q

What is the purpose of the temperature switch?

A

To illuminate the Hydraulic caution light 88deg.

158
Q

Which flight control hydraulic servo is operated by the No1 hydraulic system?

A

Anti-torque

159
Q

When should the rotor break be used?

A

Only at or below 40% nr after engine shutdown.

160
Q

How should the rotor brake be applied?

A

Fully on until the rotor has almost stopped.

161
Q

What condition illuminates the rotor brake caution lights?

A

Movement of the brake pads out of retracted position.

162
Q

What main rotor blade movement results from collective flight control movement?

A

Simultaneous pitch change in both blades

163
Q

Which collective flight control component moves up when the collective is pulled up?

A

The collective sleeve assembly

164
Q

What is included in the collective flight control system?

A

Adjustable friction, a down lock and a servo actuator.

165
Q

What action results from cyclic flight control movement?

A

Tilting the rotor disc in the desired direction of flight

166
Q

To what units are cycle flight control movements directed prior to going to the cyclic servo actuators?

A

The cyclic mixing unit

167
Q

In which direction do the cyclic servo actuators move if the cyclic stick is moved laterally to the right or left?

A

Both actuators move equally in the opposite direction

168
Q

What is part of the cyclic control system?

A

Force trim , adjustable friction and two servo actuators

169
Q

Which type of tail rotor blade pitch change occurs when the antitorque pedals are moved?

A

Collective

170
Q

Which of the following is not included in the collective flight control system?

A

Force trim

171
Q

What is the purpose of the helicopters force trim system?

A

To provide cyclic stick and anti torque pedal positioning and provide artificial feel for cyclic and pedals.

172
Q

Name components of the force trim system

A

Electrically actuated magnetic brakes, Mechanical force gradient assemblies and cyclic mounted force trim release switches

173
Q

What is the purpose of the synchronized elevator?

A

To increase pitch stability and CG range

174
Q

What controls the movement of the synchronized elevator?

A

Force and aft cyclic flight control linkage

175
Q

What is the requirement for AFCS on bell212 helicopters?

A

AFCS is required on all IFR equipped helicopters

176
Q

Which AFCS mode is used during hands off flying

A

ATTD

177
Q

What is the primary way in which the AFCS moves the flight control linkage?

A

Electro hydraulic series actuators

178
Q

In order to transmit and receive on a VHF comms radio , what action must the pilot take?

A

Select the appropriate comm position and have the radio on

179
Q

What may the OFF flag on the right side of the HSI indicate?

A

The information from the directional gyro in the three axis gyro is invalid

180
Q

What does the HSI course deviation bar respond to?

A

Only no1 navigation radio course information

181
Q

When are the MAG-DG switches in the DG position on the compass control panels generally used?

A

In area of high magnetic disturbance

182
Q

How is DME station frequency selection accomplished?

A

By positioning the switch on the instrument face to either n1 or n2

183
Q

What purpose does the red push-button switch on the marker beacon indicator serve?

A

It test the three lights in the instrument

184
Q

Where is bearing information for the ADF radio displayed?

A

It may be switched between the no1 and 2 bearing pointers

185
Q

What does activating the TEST button on the radio altimeter accomplish?

A

The altitude pointer is driven to 100 +/-20 ft

186
Q

What is the air source for cockpit and cabin heating?

A

ventilating air, engine bleed air and ram air

187
Q

What is the air source for chin bubble defogging?

A

Engine bleed air

188
Q

How does the pilot activate the helicopter heating system?

A

By positioning the system selector switch to heater and by setting the temperature rheostat to the desired temperature

189
Q

An overheat switch mounted in the outlet of the mixing valve activates and closes the bleed-air valves at what temperature?

A

220deg

190
Q

How is the cockpit ventilating air activated?

A

By pulling either push pull knob out

191
Q

How is the cabin ventilation system activated?

A

By opening the desired overhead nozzles as desired

192
Q

What benefits does the winterization heater add to the normal heating system?

A

Increases the existing bleed air capacity, add extra outlets and ducting and uses a larger mixing valve and noise suppressors.

193
Q

What is the basis for the helicopter performance charts?

A

The engine manufacturers specification engine power

194
Q

What if any limitations apply if the helicopters is flown with the passenger compartment door open?

A

In flight airspeed is restricted to 60 kts

Aviation Revision (6 decks)

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