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TEAS > TEAS anatomy > Flashcards

TEAS anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

coronal plane

A

frontal plate
posterior and anterior

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2
Q

sagittal plane

A

left and right halves

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3
Q

ventral

A

anterior

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4
Q

dorsal

A

posterior

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5
Q

trunk aka

A

torso

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6
Q

trunk includes

A

pelvis, abdomen, chest

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7
Q

what controls the temperature and humidity of air into body

A

respiratory sytem. important function.

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8
Q

what is more superior, thyroid cartilage or cricoid cartilage?

A

cricoid is inferior to thyroid cartilage

think how feelings swallow is kind of further up

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9
Q

respiratory biggest to smallest

A

nasal vestibule–> nasal cavity–>pharynx
or
oral cavity –> pharynx

pharynx–>larynx (epiglottis)–>larynx (vocal folds) –> trachea –> trachea carina –> bronchi –> lobar bronchus –>lingular division bronchi

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10
Q

Lobar bronchus left versus right

A

right: superior, inferior, middle
left: superior, inferior

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11
Q

left lung

A
  • cardiac notch
  • apex at the top
  • oblique fissure
  • lingula of the lung is the notch created by the cardiac notch
  • just a superior and inferior lobe
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12
Q

right lung

A
  • superior lobe
  • middle lobe
  • inferior lobe
  • horizontal AND oblique fissue
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13
Q

structures of alveoli

A

an alveolar duct that is surrounded by mucosal gland and mucusal lining. pulmonary A&V wrapped around the outside of the duct that then form webs around the alveolar sacs. the atrium is the empty space that the balloons hang out while the alveolar sacs are the balloons.

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14
Q

nasal conchae

A

the hard structures inside of the nasal cavity (superior, middle, inferior)

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15
Q

Upper respiratory tract

A

nose, sinus, pharynx, larynx

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16
Q

Lower respiratory tract

A

trachea, bronchi, lungs

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17
Q

Respiration

A

respiration is more than just breathing. It’s the process of using oxygen to break down food for energy

Internal and External respiration

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18
Q

Internal respiration

A

Internal respiration involves the transport of oxygen to all the tissues and cells in the body through the blood

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19
Q

External respiration

A

external respiration, or getting oxygen from the external environment into the body. Once the oxygen enters the lungs, oxygen diffuses into the blood.

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20
Q

Cellular respiration

A

occurs inside where oxygen is used to break glucose molecules down for energy. The blood then transports the waste product, carbon dioxide, back to the lungs where it is exhaled.

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21
Q

Accessory muscles for respiration

A

he intercostal muscles and accessory muscles can also be used to enable greater expansion.

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22
Q

Ventilation

A

The rate at which gas enters or leaves the lungs is called ventilation

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23
Q

How is the resp system controlled by the nervous system

A

rate of ventillation is controlled by the autonomic nervous system, specifically by the medulla oblongata and pons.

If the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases, this is detected by receptors in the:
aorta, carotid artery, and medulla. A signal is then sent to increase the rate of breathing to remove excess CO2
.

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24
Q

CF cause

A

genetic

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25
Q

allergies causes

A

both genes and environment

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26
Q

asthma causes

A

genetic and environmental

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27
Q

conditions caused by exposure to pollutants

A

COPD, emphysema, mesothelioma, lung cancer

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28
Q

hepatic circulation

A

hepatic vein carries blue blood to the vena cava

hepatic artery carries red blood to the liver

hepatic portal vein carries deoxy blood from stomach and intestines to the liver, which is then carried back to the hepatic vein and then the vena cava

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29
Q

how long do red blood cells live

A

4 months

platelets are 1 week

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30
Q

what is the pulmonary trunk

A

the archway for the pulmonary arteries before they split off into 4.
carries deoxy blood. its sent to the lungs for oxygenation.

vena cava also carries deoxy blood but its to the heart.

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31
Q

Mitral valve

A

on the left side of the heart
also bicuspid
has to deal with increased back pressure from the aorta

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31
Q

tricuspid valve

A

on the right side of the heart

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31
Q

Semilunar valves

A

are present in BOTH the aortic valve and the pulmonary valve (the two big pumps moving blood away)

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32
Q

right atrium

A

recieves blood from the body

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33
Q

left atrium

A

recieves blood from the lungs

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34
Q

Two circuits of blood flow

A

pulmonary and systemic

pulmonary is low O2 to high O2, middle is lungs
systemic is high O2 to low O2, middle is body

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35
Q

normal systolic and diastolic

A

under both 120 and 80

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36
Q

Digestive system includes

A

salivary glands, parotid glands, sublingual glands, submandibular glands, mouth, tongue

pharynx, esophagus, liver, gallbladder, stomach, spleen, pancreas

SI
LI
anus

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37
Q

structure of the SI

A

1 duodenum
2 jejunum
3 ileum

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38
Q

structure of the LI

A
  1. appendix
  2. ascending colon
  3. transverse colon
  4. descending colon
  5. sidmoid colon
  6. rectum
  7. anal canal
  8. anus
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39
Q

Alimentary canal

A

In the digestive system, the one-way pathway through which food travels is called the alimentary canal.

Mouth, esophagus, stomach, duogenum, large intestine, anus.

mouth and stomach digest mechanically

It does not include accessory organs.

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40
Q

accessory organs of the digestive system

A

does not include alimentary canal

liver, salivary glands, gallbladder, pancreas

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41
Q

digestive system overall function

A

break down and absorb

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42
Q

pepsin

A

proteins break down

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43
Q

amylase

secreted by the pancreas

A

carbs break down

secreted by pancreas

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44
Q

chemical digestion

A

saliva, stomach acid, liver enzymes, pancreas enzymes

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45
Q

lipase

A

secreted by pancreas

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46
Q

nuclease & proteolytic enzymes

proteolitic enzymes break down protein and nuclease breaks down nucleotides

A

secreted by the pancreas

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47
Q

Bile

A

secreted by the liver and stored in the gallbladder for digestion

breaks down fats

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48
Q

Functions of the liver

A

remove toxins
metabolism
digestion

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49
Q

Neuromuscular system

A

CNS and PNS combined

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50
Q

how many neurons does the brain have

A

100 million

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51
Q

where does spinal cord begin and end

A

base of skull, through vertebral column, ending between 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae

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52
Q

PNS is divided into

and what does it include?

A

somatic and autonomic nervous systems

includes the cranial and spinal nerves (not the spinal CORD)

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53
Q

afferent, efferent, interneurons

A

afferent sensory signals arrives at the brain
efferent signals exit the brain and go to the muscles
interneurons go between

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54
Q

muscle cells contain what

A

muscle fibers

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55
Q

Smooth muscle

A

found in blood vessels
the eyes
bladder, intestine, digestive, urinary, uterus
uses peristalsis

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56
Q

FSH and LH do what in the testes

A

During puberty, the testes respond to the release of FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) to begin the production of active sperm.
testes also create testosterone for males

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57
Q

Flow of sperm & seminal fluid

A

semen:
testes–>epididymis –> ductus (vas) deferens –> ampulla –> ejaculatory duct

seminal fluid:
seminal vesicle–>ejaculatory duct
prostate also leads to ejaculatory duct

urethra:
ejaculatory duct–>prosthatic urethra–>membranous urethra–>spongy urethra–>external urethral opening

lubricate and prepare for urethral ejaculation by making things acidic to cancel out basic:
bulbourethral gland–> spongy urethra

Bulbosaur casts acid

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58
Q

what happens during female puberty

A

During puberty, the ovaries respond to FSH and LH to begin releasing egg cells on a monthly basis.
ovaries create eggs similar to how testes create sperm.

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59
Q

broad ligament

A

ties down the uterus to the pelvic muscle

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60
Q

ovarian ligament

A

ovary to uterus

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61
Q

The main female sex hormones

A

estrogen, progesterone, luteinizing hormone (LH), and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

regulate the menstural cycle

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62
Q

female hormone that stimulates changes during puberty

A

estrogen

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63
Q

pituitary gland

A

found in the brain and controls the release of FSH, LH, and oxytocin

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64
Q

ovaries

A

produce estrogen and progesterone

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65
Q

epidermis layers

A

top to bottom:
stratum corneum, lucideum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

Come, Lets Get Sun Burned

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66
Q

hypodermis

A

body fat

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67
Q

dermis

A

muscular tissue, follicles and hair roots, nerve endings, vessels, glands, and connective tissue

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68
Q

integumentary system

A
  • acts as a barrier and protects the body from damage.
  • It also excretes waste substances, such as sweat
  • regulate body temperature
  • vitamin D synthesis
  • Sensory receptors for the detection of pain, pressure, and temperature
  • maintain homeostasis: narrow blood vessels in dermis to prevent heat loss and excrete sweat through glands to cool the body
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69
Q

Endocrine system of the brain

A

Hypothalamus, pineal gland, pituitary

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70
Q

endocrine system of the throat

A

thymus, thyroid, parathyroid

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71
Q

endocrine in the abdomen and pelvis

A

adrenal, pancreas, ovaries, testes

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72
Q

what is produced in the adrenal medulla

A

catecholamines (dopamine, norepinepine, epineprine)

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73
Q

excretory system includes

A

skin, lungs, rectum

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74
Q

lymphatic system

A

adenoids, tonsil, thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, BM

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75
Q

first line defense

of immune system

A

occur before a pathogen can enter the bloodstream and include the skin, saliva, mucous membranes, hair, and stomach acid.

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76
Q

second line defense

A

innate immune cells in the bloodstream

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77
Q

third line defense

A

adaptive immune cells that target specific pathogens

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78
Q

axial skeleton

A

skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

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79
Q

appendicular skeleton

A

pelvis, shoulders, limbs

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80
Q

flat bones

A

thin bones that protect organs and join other bones together, such as the skull and shoulder blades.

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81
Q

short bones

A

same width and length and offer limited mobility. The wrist and ankle bones are short bones.

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82
Q

sesamoid bones

A

small and round, and they are located in tendons to help strengthen joints that are often compressed, like the patella in the knee joint

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83
Q

Irregular bones

A

unique shape, like the vertebrae, for example

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84
Q

Pivot joints vs hinge

A

Pivot joints, like the neck bones, allow back-and-forth rotation.

Hinge will bend and straighten in one direction like the elbow.

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85
Q

Ellipsoidal joints

A

in the wrists, allow back-and-forth and up-and-down motion.

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86
Q

Compact bone

A

The outer layer of bone and it has networks of arteries and veins running through it.

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87
Q

spongy bone

A

inner layer
The holes and spaces in the spongy bone allow the bone to be strong without being as heavy as solid bone would be. It also allows room for the bone marrow, which produces red and white blood cells and platelets.

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88
Q

Bones function

A

framework for the body itself, protect organs, produce red and white blood cells in the marrow, and store calcium, iron, and fat.

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89
Q

Right hypochondriac

A

right kidney, liver, gallbladder, and small intestine

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90
Q

Epigastric

A

stomach, liver, adrenal glands, pancreas, spleen, small
intestine

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91
Q

Left hypochondriac

A

left kidney, spleen, pancreas, and colon

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92
Q

right lumbar

A

ascending colon, liver, gallbladder

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93
Q

umbilical

A

small intestine, duodenum, umbilicus

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94
Q

left lumbar

A

descending colon, left kidney

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95
Q

right iliac

A

cecum, appendix

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96
Q

hypogastric

A

bladder, female internal reproductive organs, sigmoid colon

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97
Q

left iliac

A

descending and sigmoid colon

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98
Q

abdominal cavity

A

liver, stomach, pancreas, spleen, gallbladder, intestine and kidney

ventral body cavity

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99
Q

pelvic cavity

A

bladder, sex organ, large intestine’s sigmoid colon and rectum

ventral body cavity

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100
Q

peritoneal cavity

A

ventral body cavity

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101
Q

thoracic cavity

A

bove the diaphragm and contains the lungs and the mediastinum, which separates the cavity into a right and left compartment. The heart, trachea, esophagus, and thymus gland lie within the mediastinum.

ventral cavity

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102
Q

dorsal cavity

A

contains the brain and spinal cord, located on the dorsal side.

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103
Q

cranial cavity

A

brain, the 12 cranial nerves, and the pituitary gland.The meninges (comprised of the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater) line the cavity and surround the brain and the spinal cord and contain CSF between the arachnoid mater and pia mater

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104
Q

layers of brain

A
  1. pia mater is vascularized on the surface of brain and spinal cord
  2. middle layer is arachnoid - not vascularized or nerves. just CT
  3. vascularized dura mater most superficial and separates brain into compartments. (endosteal lines cranial bones, meningeal layer lines vertebral cavity)
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105
Q

vertebral cavity

A

vertebrae and spinal cord

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106
Q

conductive vs respiratory zone

A

respiratory is where actual gas exchange occurs

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107
Q

external vs internal respiration

A

External respiration is the exchange of gas between the lungs and the blood. Internal respiration is the exchange of gas between the blood and tissues.

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108
Q

secondary functions of respiratory system

A

pH regulation of the blood, thermoregulation, odor detection, and the production of speech.

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109
Q

What ig is in mucosal lining in respiratory tract

A

IgA

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110
Q

lung from big to small

A

Each primary bronchus splits repeatedly into secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, and bronchioles to form the bronchial tree.

The terminal bronchioles further divide into respiratory bronchioles, which are characterized by the presence of some alveoli.

The respiratory bronchioles lead into alveolar ducts, which terminate in alveolar sacs.

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111
Q

what type of cells are in alveoli

A

type 1 squamous cells single layer lines the alevoli wall and they make up the majority. type 1 participates in gas exchange. type 2 cells are cuboidal that secrete surfactant to prevent alvoeli from collapsing. the alveolar walls are perforated in case of blocked ducts.
there’s also macrophages (lysosomes and cilia are located in upper respiratory tract)

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112
Q

how do capillary walls interact with alveoli

A

the basement membrane fuses together to form the respiratory membrane

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113
Q

expiration vs inspiration which is passive

A

expiration is passive. inspiration is using negative pressure breathing by contracting the diaphragm

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114
Q

cellular respiration formula

A

glucose + 6O2 –> 6CO2 + 6H20

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115
Q

how does O2 and CO2 travel

A

most O2 binds to hemoglobin in RBCs. some dissolves in the blood.
Most CO2 is in the form of bicarb. some dissolves in the blood but some can also bind to hemoglobin.

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116
Q

True or false, lipids can travel in blood by themselves

A

false. must use a carrier protein

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117
Q

how is thermoregulation controlled by the brain

A

hypothalamus is the thermometer

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118
Q

Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium

A

epicardium, which protects the heart and secretes lubricating serous fluid.

The middle layer is the muscular myocardium, which contracts to pump blood.

The innermost layer is the endocardium, which lines the chambers and valves.

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119
Q

Endothelium - composition

found in blood BV and heart

A
  • single layer of squamous endothelial cells that are connected by tight junctions and adherens junctions. This allows the endothelium to act as a selectively permeable barrier
  • The smoothness of the endothelium reduces friction between the blood and the vessel wall.
  • Endothelial cells also play a role in vasoconstriction by releasing peptides called endothelins that cause the smooth muscle within the vessel walls to contract. They also
  • secrete chemicals that inhibit the coagulation of blood, but if the endothelium is damaged, they release different chemicals required for clot formation.
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120
Q

electrical circuit in heart

A

SA generates (P, atrium contr), AV node (PR), bundle of His and bundle branches, Purkinje fibers (QRS and ventricles contr)

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121
Q

How to calculate HR on an EKG

A

count the number of squares between cardiac cycles (P1 to P2) in sex seconds and multiply by 10

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122
Q

the walls of all blood vessels contain which three layers, excluding capillaries

A

tunica intima (endothelial cells, elastic fibers)
tunica media (smooth muscle, elastic))
tunica adventitia (outermost)

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123
Q

which arteries are elastic

A

aorta, its major branches
tunica media has most of the elastin

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124
Q

which arteries are muscular

A

arteries that branch off elastic arteries. tunica media contains the most smooth muscle cells and least elastic fibers

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125
Q

arterioles composition

A

right before capillaries
tunic amedia is very thin but contains ONLY smooth muscle

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126
Q

venules composition

A

Tiny vessels that exit the capillary beds. Thin, porous walls; few muscle cells and elastic fibers

right after capillaries

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127
Q

veins composition

A

Thin tunica media and tunica intima, wide lumen, valves prevent backflow of blood

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128
Q

blood pressure drops the most at

A

the arterioles

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129
Q

blood pressure is lowest at

A

the vena cava

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130
Q

turbulence versus laminar flow

A

turbulence occurs when high velocity encounters an obstruction or when the vessels take a sharp turn or narrow suddenly.

laminar flow is the steady, streamlined flow of blood that occurs throughout most of the circulatory system.

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131
Q

capillaries composition

A

epithelial cells and basement membrane

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132
Q

how does transport work across a continuous capillary

A

Gases and lipid-soluble substances can cross the
endothelial cell membranes by simple diffusion, but ions and large particles often require the help of transport proteins or vesicular transport. Sometimes materials move through intercellular clefts: channels between adjacent endothelial cells.

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133
Q

describe fenestrated capillaries

A

Fenestrated capillaries have pores that increase their
permeability and are found in the kidneys and small intestine.

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134
Q

describe sinusoid capillaries

A

Sinusoidal capillaries have a discontinuous endothelium that permits the passage of large particles and even blood cells. They
are the most permeable of the capillaries.

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135
Q

Plasma and elements are what %

and the contents

A

55% plasma (albumin, antibodies, proteins, carbs, lipids, salts, waste, gases, hormones)

45% elements (RBC, WBC, platelets)

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136
Q

Hematocrit? and percentage for M and F

A

hematocrit is the percent of RBCs by volume
42 F
46 M

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137
Q

how much of the formed elements are WBC and platelets

A

1%

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138
Q

Ratio of platelets to WBC

A

40 to 1 (platelets 40)

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138
Q

where is erythropoietin made

A

liver and kidneys

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139
Q

cell line of erythroblasts

A

myeloid stem cells, erythroblasts, reticulocytes, erythrocytes

left is immature, right is mature

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140
Q

how is RBC reproduction initiated

A

erythropoietin swims through to the red bone marrow

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141
Q

What is the composition of reticulocytes

A

some ER
no nuclei
lose the ER after 1-2 days to form mature erythrocytes

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142
Q

How long before phagocytes eat old RBCs

A

120 d or 4 months, located in the spleen, liver, BM

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143
Q

composition of hemoglobin

A

four globin polypeptide chains and heme groups
iron in the heme group

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144
Q

what is old iron and heme from phagocytized RBCs stored as

A

ferritin (iron)
bilirubin (heme) –> bile excreted

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145
Q

Color of basophils

A

black by basic stains

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146
Q

Eosinophils

A

red by acid stain

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147
Q

neutrophils

A

pale lilac by neutral stains

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148
Q

Granulocytes maturation series

A

myeloid progenator
Myeloblast
Promyelocyte
Myelocyte
Metamyelocyte - kidney shaped
Band - drum stand shaped
Segmented cells (2-5 joined lobes)

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149
Q

Mast cells

A

red/purple
toludine blue

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149
Q

Monocyte maturation series

A

Myeloid progenitor
Monoblast (12-20 mm) with large oval nucleus and lymphoid dendritic cells
Promonocyte (from monoblast)
Monocyte
Macrophage and myeloid dendritic cell

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149
Q

how much of the white blood cells are granulocytes

A

75%

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150
Q

Lymphocyte

A

Common lymphoid progenitor
Lymphoblast (10-20 mm) with large round nucleus
Prolymphocyte
Small lymphocyte and natural killer cell
B and T lymphocytes (from small lymphocyte)

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151
Q

Extrinsic clotting mechanism

A

faster.
damaged tissue releases thromboplastin, which triggers a cascade of reactions that results in the production of an enzyme called prothrombin activator

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152
Q

Intrinsic pathway clotting mechniasm

A

When blood encounters a foreign substance or tissue, the Hageman factor (also called coagulation factor XII) is activated, leading to the production of prothrombin activator. From here, the clotting pathways are the same.

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153
Q

From prothrombin, both intrinisic and extrinsic cause

A

Prothrombin activator converts prothrombin to thrombin using calcium as a cofactor. Thrombin splits fibrinogen to form fibrin but also stimulates its own production (a positive feedback loop). Fibrin is a fibrous protein that forms a mesh-like network that traps more platelets and red blood cells. This forms a clot that seals the injured region of the blood vessel.

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153
Q

What is heme

A

heme group consists of a single iron atom surrounded by a complex organic ring called protoporphyrin
gives blood its red color

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154
Q

hemoglobin structure

A

four polypeptide chains known as globin (two alpha chains and two beta chains)
each chain has a heme group
becomes oxyhemoglobin when oxygenated
4 iron atoms for 4 oxygen atoms
CO2 can bind but not to iron (carbaminohemoglobin)

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154
Q

How is heart rate slowed

A

The parasympathetic division has the opposite effect. The vagus nerves that innervate the heart release acetylcholine (ACh), which slows the heart rate.

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155
Q

What do central and peripheral chemoreceptors monitor in HR

A

pH, CO2, and O2

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155
Q

deglutition

A

swallowing

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155
Q

How is CO2 transported and in what amounts

A

70% in bicarb
23% in hemoglobin
rest is dissolved in the plasma

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156
Q

How is BP regulated

A

baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid arteries (both of which detect high blood pressure) and also the venae cavae, pulmonary veins, and atrial walls (all of which detect low blood pressure)

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157
Q

What is the process of swallowing both voluntary and involuntary

A

the voluntary buccal phase and the involuntary pharyngeal and esophageal phases.

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158
Q

How many layers does the muscularis external have

A

three layers, except for the stomach which has two layers

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159
Q

How does propulsion work in the GI

A

radial contraction and then relax to propel in one direction
happens during swallowing too from pharynx to esophagus
its called peristalsis

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160
Q

define segmentation

A

non adjacent contractions to move food (chyme) back and fourth, and it only happens in the intestines

in the HOUSE - houstral contractions in the large intestine to move from ONE HOUSE to the NEXT HOUSE

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161
Q

What is mass peristalsis

A

occur two to four times a day to push large amounts of chyme toward the rectum

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162
Q

What spincters are located in the GI

A

gastroesophageal sphincter, pyloric sphincter, and anal sphincters

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163
Q

What enzymes are in the saliva

A

Amylase (carbs)
Lipase (fats)
Lysozymes & IgA (bacteria)

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164
Q

Other components in saliva

A

Bicarb
Mucin (for gel that coats the bolus)

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165
Q

Esophagus wall layers

A

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, adventitia

Muscularis Externa on top 1/3 skeletal
in middle mixed
on bottom 1/3 smooth muscle

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166
Q

GI muscularis externa is made of

A

smooth muscle

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167
Q

Esophageal sphincters

A

superior and inferior

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168
Q

Primary role of the stomach

m

A

mechanical breakdown (3-4h) and storage of food
digestions uses unique third muscularis externa layer (oblique)
some chemical digestion
after food mixed with gastric juice, its called chyme

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169
Q

inner surface of stomach

A

its called mucosa, and forms rugae which allows expansion
can hold 1 L typically but up to 4L

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170
Q

Four types of cells for secretion in stomach

A

mucous cells, parietal cells, chief cells, and endocrine cells

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171
Q

Endocrine cells

A

G cells - release gastrin (hormone) into the blood and does not contribute to gastric juices

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172
Q

Parietal cells

A

secrete intrinsic factor, to absorb vitamen B12 in the SI
releases HCl (1-3 pH)
acidic environment to activate pepsinogen needed by chief cells

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173
Q

Chief cells

A

secrete pepsinogen
pepsin is the active form, requires HCl to activate
breaks down proteins into peptide chains
secrete gastric lipase

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174
Q

mucous cells

A

secrete bicarb esque mucous to protect the lining of stomach from acid

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175
Q

Where does most protein and fat digestion take place

A

SI

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176
Q

which spincter is involved in reflux

A

lower esophageal sphincter or cardioesophageal spincter

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177
Q

Fundus

A

most superior section of stomach

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178
Q

Layers of stomach superficial to deep

A

serosa, muscularis externa (3 layers), mucosa

muscularis external outermost is longitudinal, middle is circular, inner is oblique layer

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179
Q

Cardiac region of stomach

A

proximal to esophageal opening, the part of the stomach that food first makes contact with

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180
Q

Parts of the pylorus

A

The pylorus is the inferior part of the stomach proximal to the duodenum. the widest part is the pyloric antrum. the narrowest part is the pyloric canal. pyloric sphincter is the valve

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181
Q

The liver has how many lobes

A

4

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182
Q

Bile -

made? function? composed of?

A

Made in the liver. bile salts made from cholesterol
Emulsfying fats into micelles in stimach (fats then further broken down by lipase in SI)
composed of bile salts, bilirubin, cholesterol, electrolytes.
absorption of ADEK

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183
Q

Bile - stored? Triggered?

A

gallbladder
CCK triggered when food enters SI –> bile squeezed into common bile duct + pancreatic duct. then it becomes the hepatopancreatic ampulla of vater and spills into duodenum via duodenal papilla.

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184
Q

What happens to ammonia

A

the liver recognizes it as a toxin. it is a waste product of amino acids. it gets conversted to urea.

Urea travels to the kidneys to be excreted.

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185
Q

pancreas secretes what

A
  • insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin
  • digestive enzymes (amylase digests starch, lipase fats)
  • CCK (acinar cells) to release bile, secretin bicarb (duct cells) to lower pH
  • proteases in an inactive form (activated at the site of SI) - trypsin, carboxypeptidases A and B, chymotrypsin
  • Nucleases
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186
Q

Brush border enzymes

A

embedded in microvilli of apical cells in GI (actin filaments that push out the GI to incr SA)

they come from both pancreas and the enzymes in the gut

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187
Q

Where does the absorption of water and food take place

for the most part

A

jejunum and ileum

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188
Q

How are amino acids absorbed in the GI

A

cotransport with sodium into the intestinal cells

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189
Q

how are sugars absorbed in the GI

A

cotransport with sodium into the intestinal cells

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190
Q

1.

how are lipids absorbed in the GI

A

simple diffusion

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191
Q

how is water abosrbed into the GI

A

simple diffusion

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192
Q

how does food absorb overall into the GI and the body

A

taken into intestinal cells, then diffuse into capillaries within the villi and travel to the liver

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193
Q

where does most chemical digestion occur?

A

SI
also where brush border enzymes are

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194
Q

how much mechanical digestion takes place in the SI?

A

Some.

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195
Q

name of the glands that secrete bicarb in the SI

A

Brunners
neutralizes acid chyme so that enzymes don’t denature

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195
Q

Nucleosidase

A

nucleotide

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195
Q

Dextrinase

A

substrate oligosaccharides

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195
Q

Phosphatase

A

Nucleotide

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196
Q

Glucoamylase

A

substrate oligosaccharide

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197
Q

Jejunum

absorpion, digestion?

A

main site for absorption
long villi, dense microvilli

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197
Q

How does the large intestine differ anataomically from the SI

A

It is larger in diameter than the small intestine, but much shorter in length—averaging 1.5 meter

There are no villi in the large intestine, but there are pouch-like sacculations called haustra that are separated by folds called plicae semilunares. These pouches are formed by the contraction of smooth muscle within the muscularis layer. The walls of the large intestine are lubricated by mucus, which is secreted by goblet cells.

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197
Q

Duodenum - digestion, absorption roles

A

no absorption, except for iron

chemical digestion

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197
Q

ileum

A

longest of the SI, but narrowest
Concentration of Peyer’s Patches
Absorb B12, bile salt, nutrients leftover
terminates at the ileocecal valve

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198
Q

What does the large intestine absorb, and what is left over

A

vitamin K, biotin, sodium ions, chloride ions, and water.

By the time chyme reaches the large intestine, most of the water (approximately 80%) has already been absorbed by the small intestine.

As the chyme is pushed through the colon 90% of the remaining liquid is absorbed, leaving a mass of indigestible food, water, and bacteria.

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199
Q

Describe the benefits of bacteria in the gut

A

The bacteria also release vitamin K, biotin, thiamin, riboflavin, and vitamin B12. Vitamin K (required for the synthesis of clotting proteins) and biotin (a cofactor for many enzymes) are absorbed for use in the body.

Resident gut flora also help to keep populations of pathogenic bacteria in check. The appendix may serve as a reservoir for beneficial species of bacteria, though it is often infected with harmful microbes.

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200
Q

where is the appendix

A

larged in the large intestine, at the cecum

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201
Q

What spincters are in the anal canal

A

The anal canal is the last portion of the rectum, and it ends with an involuntary internal sphincter and a voluntary external sphincter.

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202
Q

Where are feces stored

A

A dilated region (superior to the anal canal) called the rectal ampulla functions as a storage area for feces before they are eliminated in the process of defecation.

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203
Q

What is inside of feces

A

bacteria, water, undigested material, epithelial cells, and bile (which accounts for the brown coloration).

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204
Q

How do the sphincters work

A

As this material accumulates, the walls of the rectum expand and stretch receptors send signals that cause the rectal muscles to contract, the internal sphincter to relax, and the external sphincter to contract. At this point, the decision can be made to eliminate or delay elimination.

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205
Q

Submucosal plexus

A

embedded in the connective tissue of the submucosa. It functions in regulating local secretions, absorption, contraction of submucosal muscle, and blood flow

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206
Q

Myenteric Plexus

A

located between the circular and longitudinal layers of the muscularis externa. This network exerts control over the motility of the GI tract.

increases the tone, as well as the rate, intensity, and velocity of contractions.

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207
Q

If you cut off the brain and spinal cord, would the gut still work?

A

Yes, it operates independently

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208
Q

Preganglionic neurons in the parasym and sym nervous system release what

A

Ach

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209
Q

what do postganglionic neurons in the symp and parasympath release

A

sym - norepinephrine
parasym - ach

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210
Q

mechanoreceptors list

A
  • Meissner’s corpuscles, Merkel’s disks, Pacinian corpuscles, and Ruffini endings
  • muscle spindles that detect stretching of skeletal muscle
  • receptors of the inner ear that detect vibrations.
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211
Q

chemoreceptors

A

olfactory and taste receptors

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212
Q

Nocicepotrs

A

detect pain

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212
Q

exteroceptors

A

near the body surface transmit information about the external environment.

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212
Q

proprioceptors

A

within the inner ear, skeletal muscles, and joints provide information about movement, position, and equilibrium.

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213
Q

What kind of pathways does the autonomic division use

A

two neuron pathways

213
Q

Interoceptors

A

of visceral organs and blood vessels provide information about internal stimuli.

214
Q

Phasic adaptation

A

quickly adapt to a constant stimulus, meaning that action potentials decrease over time and eventually stop. This explains the loss of sensation of clothes against the skin, or how an odor seems to disappear when the source is still present. Most tactile and chemoreceptors are phasic.

214
Q

Somatic division structure of neurons

A

All motor neurons of the somatic division run directly from the CNS to the effector without synapsing with another neuron.

215
Q

Hypothalamus to pituitary or vice versa?

A

pituitary is the second stop, or most inferior

215
Q

Tonic adapatation

A

adapt slowly, constantly alerting the CNS of the stimulus with action potentials. Proprioceptors (receptors that provide feedback about position and movement of the body) are tonic receptors, as are photoreceptors (light-detecting receptors) and nociceptors (pain receptors).

215
Q

Sensory adaptation

A

change in sensitivity that occurs when receptors are exposed to a prolonged stimulus.

phasic or tonic

216
Q

Hindbrain

A

medulla oblongata, cerebellum, and pons

217
Q

Midbrain

A

integrates sensory signals and orchestrates responses to these signals.

218
Q

forebrain

A

cerebrum, thalamus, and hypothalamus

218
Q

cerebral cortex

A

thin layer of** grey matter** covering the cerebrum. The brain is divided into two hemispheres, with each responsible for multiple functions. The brain is divided into four main lobes, the frontal lobe, the parietal lobe, the occipital lobe, and the temporal lobes.

219
Q

parietal lobe

A

located slightly toward the back of the brain and the top of the head and is responsible for sensory input as well as spatial positioning of the body

220
Q

occipital lobe

A

ocated at the back of the head just above the brain stem. This lobe is responsible for visual input, processing, and output; nerves from the eyes enter directly into this lobe.

220
Q

temporal lobe

A

all auditory input, processing, and output.

221
Q

cerebellum

A

role in the processing and storing of implicit memories. Specifically, for those memories developed during classical conditioning learning techniques and any automatic responses.

221
Q

brainstem

A

midbrain, the pons, and the medulla oblongata are the three parts of the brain stem.

respiratory, digestive, and circulatory functions

222
Q

Name the cranial nerves 1 through 12

A

olfactory, optic, oculomotor, trochlear, trigeminal, abducens, facial, vestibulocochlear, glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory, hypoglossal

222
Q

meninges

A

comprised of the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater) line the cavity and surround the brain and the spinal cord and contain cerebrospinal fluid between the arachnoid mater and pia mater in the subarachnoid space. The meninges and cerebrospinal fluid protect and cushion the dorsal cavity.

223
Q

Which cranial nerves are both sensory and motor

A

Trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus

224
Q

cranial cavity

A

contains the brain, the 12 cranial nerves, and the pituitary gland.

225
Q

which cranial nerves are only motor

A

oculomotor, trochlear, abducens, accessory, hypoglossal

226
Q

CN adjusts pupil and lens of eye

A

oculomotor 3

227
Q

chewing

A

trigeminal, 5

228
Q

facial sensation

A

trigeminal

229
Q

facial expression

A

facial, 7

230
Q

taste other than ant 2/3 of tongue

A

glossopharyngeal

231
Q

anterior two/thirds of tongue

A

facial

232
Q

swallowing

A

glossopharyngeal (9), hypoglossal (12) and accessory (11), 10

233
Q

saliva CN

A

glossopharyngeal

233
Q

control of peripheral nervous system

A

vagus (10)

233
Q

tongue motor, speech

A

hypoglossal, 12

233
Q

sight

A

optic, 2

234
Q

movement of the head and neck

A

accessory

235
Q

smell

A

olfactory, 1

236
Q

what encloses the vertebral cavity

A

meninges

236
Q

spinal cord composition

A

exterior layer of white matter that surrounds an interior core of grey matter

237
Q

[](htt

vertebral cavity contains

A

vertebrae and spinal cord

238
Q

grey matter in spinal cord

A

Grey matter consists mostly of interneurons, but also contains motor neurons and glial cells. (The axons are mostly unmyelinated, giving the tissue its grey appearance.)
The cell bodies of afferent neurons reside in dorsal root ganglia, just outside the spinal cord.

238
Q

white matter in spinal cord

A

glial cells and myelinated bundles of axons that form tracts to and from the brain.

  • There are no cell bodies or dendrites in white matter.
239
Q

afferent vs efferent nerve fiber pathways

A

Afferent fibers enter into the posterior/dorsal aspect of the spinal cord (a region called the posterior grey horn) through the anterior root, while efferent fibers exit on the anterior/ventral aspect (the anterior grey horn) through the posterior root.

240
Q

unique organelle to neurons

A

Granular Nissl bodies (made of rough ER and clusters of free ribosomes) synthesize proteins for use within the cell.

240
Q

spinal cord anatomy:

which side is the ganglia on? what does that side look like?

A

the tail of the butterfly is the posterior side w/ the dorsal root ganglion on that side. the grey is on the inside, white is on the outside. the ends are called ‘horns’.the white area superficial to it is the funiculus. anterior median sulcus is the crack in the front. posterior median sulcus is the buttcrack.

241
Q

polysynaptic reflex

A

brain can override reflex
interneurons

241
Q

monosynaptic reflex.

A

don’t involve the brain
can’t stop the reflex from happening
direct connection between sensory and motor

241
Q

the posterior pituitary houses what

A

The hypothalamus produces oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH), but
these hormones are stored in and secreted by the posterior pituitary.

242
Q

schwann cell

A

myelin sheath of peripheral neurons
they are a type of glial cells that form lipid rich layers
the nucleus and cytoplasm is outside of the sheath
Think won the race and you have to use arms and legs to win a race

243
Q

part of a cell that is absent in neurons

A

centrioles in mature neurons. they can’t divide

244
Q

what type of neurons are unipolar

A

sensory

245
Q

what type of neurons are pseudounipolar

A

sensory

245
Q

where are bipolar neurons

A

retina and inner ear

245
Q

what neurons are multipolar

A

motor and interneurons

246
Q

where does the axon emerge

A

axon hillock

247
Q

what is the cytoplasm of the axon called

A

axoplasm

248
Q

what does the axoplasm lack

A

golgi, nissl, and ribosomes
protein translation

249
Q

what are collaterals

A

axon splits and it allows neurons to interact with multple other cells

250
Q

non-myelinating schwann cells

A

when the axons are super skinny

250
Q

neurilemmal sheath

A

in the outer neurilemmal sheath of a schwann cell is where the nucleus and cytoplasm are.

(neurons)

251
Q

what is responsible for mylein sheath of CNS

A

oligodendrocytes

Think oligarch is the head. Oligarchs are OP they can work with multiple neurons.

251
Q

what is different about oligodendrocytes

A

they can myelinate tons of axons

252
Q

conditions from damaged myelin

A

MS
leukodystrophies

252
Q

white or grey matter in the CNS

A

mostly white in the CNS

white in the CNS is myelinated

grey matter is unmylinated

253
Q

Nodes of Ranvier

A

uninsulated gaps between myelinated portions of the axon

254
Q

downsides of myelinated axons

A

less neuroplasticity

254
Q

can glial cells divide?

A

yes

nearly all brain tumors come from them

254
Q

are there more glial cells or neurons?

A

glial cells

254
Q

glial cells in PNS

A

schwann, satellite

254
Q

glial cells in CNS

A

astro,micro,oligo, ependy

255
Q

astrocytes

A
  • most abundant
  • anchor
  • helps exchange of meterials between capillaries and neurons
  • uptake of excess ions
256
Q

microglia

A

few extensions
phagocytes - dead debris and immune

257
Q

oligodendrocytes

A

extensions wrap around axons of CNS neurons
mylein sheath

258
Q

ependyma

A

epithelial lining of ventricles
central canal of spinal cord
CSF circulate between brain and spinal cord

259
Q

Schwann cells

A

produce myelin sheath that insulate PNS

260
Q

Synapse that is axodendritic

A

terminate on the dendrite of a postsynaptic neuron

261
Q

axosomatic

A

terminates on a POSTsynaptic soma

262
Q

axoaxonic

A

synapse that is rare. terminates on a POSTsynaptic axon.

263
Q

most synapses are what kind of junction

A

chemical unidirectional
and they use neurotransmitters

264
Q

what is unique about electrical synapses

A

the bidirectional electrical synaptic junctions do not use neurotransmitters. they are linked only by gap junctions that allow the flow of ions between cells.

-electrical synapses are rare, faster, always excitatory

265
Q

ach does what

A

stim skeletal muscle

266
Q

[](htt

NE does what

A

mood and sleep

267
Q

dopamine

A

mood, attention, reward, and movement

268
Q

histamine

A

promotes wakefulness in the hypothalamus

269
Q

serotonin

A

mostly inhibitory. sleep, mood, hunger, arousal

270
Q

GABA

A

inhibitory NT

271
Q

Glutamate

A

excitory NT

272
Q

what organs are under the control of the somatic (voluntary) nervous system

A

posture, eye movements

273
Q

[](htt

skeletal muscle pump vs thoracic pump

A

sk msk - large peripheral veins have valves that prevent backflow, and skeletal muscle pump forward

thoracic- During inspiration, contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles expands the thoracic cavity. The increased volume results in a decrease in pressure, which is transmitted to the right atrium. This drop in pressure helps the blood to return to the heart.

when the pressure in the thoracic cavity decreases, the pressure in the abdominal cavity increases, squeezing the blood in the inferior vena cava toward the heart.

274
Q

where do thermoreceptors send info

A

POSTERIOR hypothalamus

275
Q

is shivering endothermic or exothermic

A

exothermic reaction releases energy in the form of heat to warm the body

276
Q

features of a skeletal muscle cell

A

These muscles are striated; the muscle fibers have alternating regions of light and dark bands. A single skeletal myocyte is cylinder- shaped and has many nuclei.

277
Q

features of a smooth muscle cell

A

. Smooth muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow organs and vessels and aids in the movement of substances such as food and blood. The cells are spindle-shaped, non-striated, and uninucleate.

278
Q

cardiac muscle cell features

A

exhibits myogenic activity. Cardiac muscle tissue is found in the walls of the heart and is required for the pumping of blood. The cells are branched, striated, and usually uninucleate (but may have two nuclei). They are connected to each other by intercalated discs with gap junctions that allow the cells to communicate.

279
Q

T tubules

A

tunnel-like invaginations of the sarcolemma, the plasma membrane of striated muscle cells

280
Q

what role do T tubules play in muscles

A

When an action potential propagates along the sarcolemma, the T-tubules help to depolarize the cell by carrying the impulse to the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

281
Q

what is the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) surrounds the myofibrils in a muscle cell. The SR is a form of smooth endoplasmic reticulum that is specialized to store and release calcium ions.

282
Q

t tubules

A

t-tubules are sandwiched between two enlarged chambers of the SR called terminal cisternae. extension of the sarcolemma

283
Q

how does a muscle relax at the SR

A

ATP powered calcium pumps in the SR membrane pump calcium back into the SR to relax the muscle

284
Q

what is a sarcomere

A

The structure of the contractile apparatus is similar among striated muscle tissues and consists of a repeating unit

285
Q

contractile apparatus

A

a unit within muscle tissue that is specialized for contraction

286
Q

what makes up a myofibril

A

Tens of thousands of these sarcomeres lie end to end to form a myofibril.

287
Q

what is a z line

A

boundary that seperates sarcomeres
-point of anchorage for actin thin filaments.

288
Q

do actin change length during muscle contraction

A

The filaments themselves do not change length during contraction

their arrangement allows them to slide over each other when myosin heads pull on the thin filaments, causing the sarcomeres to shorten and the muscle to contract.

288
Q

how many filaments surround a thick myosin filament

A

6

288
Q

does smooth muscle contain sarcomeres

A

while smooth muscle cells do contain actin and myosin, the filaments are disorganized, and no sarcomeres are present.

289
Q

what is SO type 1

A

muscle fibers slow twitch oxidative

289
Q

What type of muscle fibers do most muscles have

A

a blend of fast (II) and slow twitch (I)

290
Q

maintaining posture uses what type of muscle fibers

A

type 1, slow twitch

290
Q

between 3 types of muscle fibers, explain use

A

1 = low intensity aerobic, or posture
2a= running
2b= short bursts of sprinting or heavy lifting

291
Q

of three muscle fibers, give diameter

A

slow 1 = smallest
fast 2a = intermediate
fast 3 a= largest

292
Q

between three types of muscle fiber, explain conc. of mitochondria

A

1 = high
2a = moderate
2b = low

293
Q

between the three muscle fibers, explain myoglobin

A

myoglobin binds oxygen. type 1 is for aerobic capacity, so it has the most myoglobin. myoglobin gives it a red color.

type 2a is for anaerobic and aerobic. middle amount of myoglobin. pink color.

2b is anaerobic. least amount of myoglobin. white color.

294
Q

between the three muscle fiber types, what is contractile velocity versus force production

A

type 1 = force production low, and slow velocity

type 2a= moderate force production, rapid velocity
type 2b= high force production, rapid velocity

295
Q

capillary density of three muscle fiber types

A

high density type 1
mod density type 2a
low density type 2b

296
Q

direction of current through the heart

A

SA, AV, bundle of his, his branches, perkinje fibers

297
Q

how does an AP flow in the heart

A

As the impulse travels through the sarcolemma of a cardiac muscle cell, voltage- gated calcium ion channels open, allowing the entry of extracellular Ca2+

The inflow of Ca2+ triggers the release of even more Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

cardiac cells have a prolonged AP compared to skeletal

298
Q

what increases HR and decreases HR
5 items total

A

Sympathetic stimulation increases heart rate, while parasympathetic stimulation (the vagus nerve) decreases heart rate. The endocrine system influences heart rate as well. Epinephrine secreted from the adrenal medulla and thyroxine from the thyroid gland both increase heart rate.

299
Q

[](htt

what is oxygen debt

A

is the amount of oxygen required to restore metabolic conditions to resting levels.

The amount of oxygen required to accomplish exercise, and to replenish the levels of ATP and creatine phosphate, is called oxygen debt.

300
Q

explain the use of atp during rest and not at rest

A

Muscle activity is powered by the hydrolysis of ATP. In a resting state, aerobic respiration provides enough ATP for muscles to function. Stored ATP is quickly used up during intense exercise, and a molecule called creatine phosphate phosphorylates ADP to produce ATP

301
Q

explain anaerobic respiration during exercise

A

Anaerobic respiration also supplies ATP relatively quickly, but only for a short amount of time. If oxygen is available, aerobic respiration synthesizes ATP. When oxygen levels become depleted, lactic acid (a byproduct of anaerobic respiration) begins to accumulate.

302
Q

explain lactic acid buildup

A

The buildup of lactic acid, along with the depletion of ATP and oxygen, causes muscle fatigue. Lactic acid that does not remain in the muscles is brought to the liver, where it is converted into glucose. The amount of oxygen required to accomplish this task, and to replenish the levels of ATP and creatine phosphate, is called oxygen debt.

302
Q

autonomic nervous system - is the preganglion neuron bigger or post ganglion bigger

A

Postganglionic nerve fibers are shorter than presynaptic fibers, and they extend to the effectors

302
Q

autonomic nervous sustem - what NT sympathetic and NT parasympathetic

A

Preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems release acetylcholine (ACh)

303
Q

what do post gnaglion of autonomic nervous system release

A

Ach for parasympathetic, and NE for sympathetic

304
Q

sympathetic nervous system effects

A

The sympathetic division induces a fight or flight response, which causes heart rate and blood pressure to increase, and blood to be diverted away from the digestive system.

304
Q

parasympathetic nervous system effects

A

The parasympathetic division induces a rest and digest response, which causes heart rate and blood pressure to decrease, and promotes digestion.

305
Q

what part of the brain is responsible for voluntary movements

A

motor cortex initiates

306
Q

what is the lower part of the brain stem responsible for

A

The lower part of the brainstem called the medulla oblongata sends signals to involuntary muscles that play a role in digestion, vasodilation/vasoconstriction, heart rate, respiratory rate, and other visceral functions.

307
Q

[](htt

where does the stimulus for skeletal muscle contraction come from

A

motor neurons
communicated through the NMJ (neuromuscular junction)

308
Q

can a single motor neuron form synapses with multiple muscule cells or just one?

A

A single motor neuron can form synapses with multiple muscle cells

The neuron and the muscle cells that it innervates are collectively called a motor unit.This arrangement allows a large group of cells to contract together.

308
Q

what is a motor pool

A

All the motor neurons that innervate the same muscle make up a motor pool

309
Q

define epedidymis

A

The epididymis is a convoluted tube attached to the outside of a testicle that nourishes sperm as they finish maturing, and stores them until ejaculation

309
Q

[](htt

explain NMJ

A

When an action potential reaches an axon terminal, voltage-gated calcium ions in the membrane are opened, and Ca2+ enters. These ions bind to synaptic vesicles that store acetylcholine (ACh), causing them to fuse with the membrane and release ACh into the synaptic cleft. ACh binds to nicotinic receptors on a folded portion of the sarcolemma known as the motor end plate. The permeability of the muscle cell changes, and the cell depolarizes. The action potential is taken into the muscle cell via T-tubules, causing calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum to open. The release of calcium into the sarcoplasm causes the muscle to contract.

see page 144

310
Q

Do women produce oocytes as they go, or before birth?

A

The ovaries produce much higher levels of estrogen than male gonads. They contain all of the oocytes that they will ever have before birth, and only one is released per month during ovulation.

311
Q

[](htt

what is vas deferens

A

sperm duct from epididymis

heads to the ejaculatory duct then urethra

312
Q

define seminal vesicles and components of what they produce

A

secrete fluid into the ejaculatory duct that makes up roughly 60% of the volume of semen. The contents of this mildly alkaline fluid include fructose, prostaglandins, and proteins

313
Q

[](htt

define prostate gland

A

Secretions of the prostate gland (about 30% of semen volume) nourish the sperm and increase their motility.

314
Q

Cowper’s glands

A

lubrication
2-5% of semen volume

315
Q

describe the spongy tissue in the penis

A

a pair of corpora cavernosa and the corpus spongiosum that surrounds the urethra

a cavern is created by two walls or two corpora cavernosa

316
Q

define scrotum

A

the sac that protects the sperm-producing testes and keeps them at the proper temperature

317
Q

describe ovulation and fertilization

A

ovaries produce oocytes, and also secrete sex hormones. When an oocyte is released during ovulation, it is “captured” by the fallopian tube, also known as the uterine tube or oviduct, which is not directly connected to the ovaries. Fertilization typically occurs in the fallopian tube, and implantation of the fertilized egg usually occurs in the endometrium of the uterus.

318
Q

describe tunica albuginea and its compartments

A

fibrous layer of connective tissue surrounding the testes.Thin layers of tissue extend from the tunica albuginea and divide the testes into 250 to 300 compartments called lobules. Each lobule contains one to four seminiferous tubules, the sites of spermatogenesis

319
Q

[](htt

define bartholins glands

A

Bartholin’s glands produce a fluid that lubricates the vagina

320
Q

how are ovaries held in position

A

peritoneal ligaments

321
Q

describe the different cell types in the tunica albuginea

A

epithelial lining of these tubules consists of the spermatogenic cells that give rise to sperm, as well as the cells that nourish them (sustentacular cells, also called Sertoli cells). Interstitial cells (Leydig cells) around the seminiferous tubules produce testosterone, which stimulates the production of sperm.

322
Q

describe the structure of seminiferous tubules

A

The seminiferous tubules join together to form a network of channels called the rete testis.

Rete Testis bring maturing sperm cells to the efferent ducts where they exit the testes and enter the epididymis

323
Q

layers of tissue on ovary
also the sections of the ovary

A

germinal epithelium (cuboidal, simple), superior
tuniva albuginea (inferior)

cortex and medulla

324
Q

describe the cortex of the ovary

A

granular appearance due to the presence of thousands of nourishing follicles in various stages of development. Each of these saclike follicles contains an oocyte.

325
Q

oocyte development

A

Initially, the oocyte is surrounded by a single layer of follicular cells, but as the follicle matures, the cells give rise to a multi-layer of estrogen-producing granulosa cells. After ovulation, a gland called the corpus luteum forms, and it secretes progesterone and small amounts of estrogen. This gland disappears unless pregnancy occurs.

happens in the cortex of the ovary

326
Q

describe the medulla of the ovary

A

The interior of the ovary, or medulla, is made of loose areolar connective tissue, and contains many blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves that enter and leave through the hilum.

327
Q

what are wolfian ducts and mullerian ducts

A

Wolffian ducts give rise to male internal reproductive
structures, and Mullerian ducts give rise to female internal reproductive structures. As one system
develops, the other is broken down.

women go to the mall, men are wolves

328
Q

[](htt

what gene on chromosomes is responsible for male organs and repression of female organs?

A

SRY

329
Q

when do the genitalia become evident

A

7 weeks after conception

330
Q

[](htt

describe what happens in the brain during puberty

A

. At puberty, there is a surge in development as the hypothalamus releases gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH). This triggers the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH)
and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) from the anterior pituitary gland.These gonadotropins increase the production of sex hormones, which allow the male and female reproductive organs to
mature.

331
Q

what happens to the body during puberty

A

Spermatogenesis begins in males, and ovulation and menstruation begin in females.
Secondary sex characteristics emerge as well. Males develop facial, axillary, and pubic hair, and the
voice deepens as the larynx grows. Females develop pubic hair, begin to ovulate and menstruate,
and develop wider hips.

332
Q

three phases of womens reproductive cycle

A

follicular phase, ovulation, luteal phase

333
Q

follicular phase of womens repro cycle

A

During the follicular phase, FSH stimulates the maturation of the follicle, which then secretes estrogen.
Estrogen helps to regenerate the uterine lining that was shed during menstruation.

334
Q

ovulation

A

Ovulation, the release of a secondary oocyte from the ovary, is induced by a surge in LH.

335
Q

luteal phase

A

The luteal phase begins with the formation of the corpus luteum from the remnants of the follicle. The corpus luteum
secretes progesterone and estrogen, which inhibit FSH and LH. Progesterone also maintains the thickness of the endometrium. Without the implantation of a fertilized egg, the corpus luteum begins to regress, and the levels of estrogen and progesterone drop. FSH and LH are no longer
inhibited, and the cycle renews.

336
Q

three phases of the uterine cycle

A

the proliferative phase, secretory phase, and
menstrual phase.

337
Q

[](htt

proliferative phase

A

regeneration of the uterine
lining

338
Q

secretory phase

A

endometrium becomes increasingly vascular, and nutrients
are secreted to prepare for implantation

339
Q

menstrual phase

A

Without implantation, the endometrium is shed during menstruation.

340
Q

describe pregnancy from beginning to end

A

Pregnancy: When a blastocyst implants in the uterine lining, it releases hCG. This hormone prevents the corpus luteum from degrading, and it continues to produce estrogen and progesterone. These hormones are necessary to maintain the uterine lining.

By the second trimester, the placenta secretes enough of its own estrogen and progesterone to sustain pregnancy. The levels of estrogen continue to increase throughout pregnancy, while progesterone decreases.

341
Q

Describe the process of parturition

giving birth

A

first, increased levels of fetal glucocorticoids, which act on the placenta to **increase estrogen and decrease progesterone. **

second, stretching of the cervix stimulates the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin and estrogen stimulate the release of prostaglandins, and prostaglandins and oxytocin increase uterine contractions. This positive feedback mechanism results in the birth of the fetus.

342
Q

describe the process of lactation

A

During pregnancy, levels of the hormone prolactin increase, but its effect on the mammary glands is inhibited by estrogen and progesterone. After parturition, the levels of these hormones decrease, and prolactin is able to stimulate the production of milk. Suckling stimulates the release of oxytocin, which results in the ejection of milk.

343
Q

5 layers of epidermis superficial to deep

A

stratum corneum, lucium, granulosum, spinosum, basale

dont forget basement membrane

344
Q

what cells are in stratum basale

A

keratinocytes. they are the stem cells. cells differentiate more towards the surface.

usually contains just a single layer of cuboidal or columnar cells that adhere to the basement membrane. These are the most nourished cells because they are closest to the capillaries of the dermis.

345
Q

stratum spinosum

A

8-10 layers of spiny cells connected by desmosomes

There is limited mitotic activity in the deeper portion of this layer.

346
Q

straum granulosum

A

The stratum granulosum consists of two to five layers of slightly flattened cells containing granules of keratohyalin. The cells in the superficial portion of this layer lose their nuclei.

347
Q

stratum lucidum

A

The stratum lucidum consists of two to five layers of dead, flattened keratinocytes and is only present in the palms and the soles of feet. These cells contain eleidin, a translucent, water-resistant protein derived from keratohyalin.

348
Q

stratum corneum

A

most superficial layer, and it consists of 15 to 30 layers of dead, keratin-containing squamous cells. This layer helps to prevent water loss from the body.

349
Q

keratinocytes

A

MC epidermis cell type.
arise from stratum basale. they flatten and die as they move superiorly. produce keratin, which hardens the cell to create water resistance.

350
Q

melanocytes

A

produce melanin, a pigment that gives skin its color and protects against UV radiation.

351
Q
A
352
Q
A
353
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A
354
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A
355
Q
A
356
Q
A
356
Q
A
357
Q
A
358
Q
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359
Q
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360
Q
A
361
Q
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362
Q
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363
Q
A
364
Q
A
365
Q
A
366
Q
A
367
Q
A
368
Q
A
369
Q
A
369
Q
A
370
Q

merkel cells

A

cutaneous receptors detect light touch. located in stratum basale.

markers must use light touch or you get ugly marker blobs

370
Q

fibroblasts

A

secrete collagen, elastin, ECM

370
Q

skin absorbs what

A

using eccrine glands, reabsorb sodium ions before losing it through perspiration

370
Q

langerhans cells

A

antigen presenting cells of the immune system (phagocytes). MC stratum spinosum

370
Q

adipocytes

A

fat cells

370
Q

mast cells

A

antigen presenting cells play a role in the inflammatory response
produce histamine

370
Q

skin excretes what

A

urea and ammonia through sweat

371
Q

function of hypodermis

A

anchor skin to underlying organs

371
Q

macrophages

A

phagocytitc cells engulf pathogens

371
Q

1st line of defense vs 2nd line of defense against environment

A

1st line is the skin
2nd line is macrophages and immune system

371
Q

where are the arrector pilli

A

smooth type muscle in the dermis

371
Q

sweat glands 2 types

A

eccrine and apocrine

371
Q

apocrine

A

lies deeper in the dermis and empty onto hair follicles

play NO role in thermoregulation (Apocrine is Aimless)

activate at onset of puberty in response to sex hormones

found only in certain places of the body

372
Q

hypodermis consists of

A

loose connective tissue esp. adipose to protect from heat and cold

372
Q

subcutaneous tissue aka

A

hypodermis
considered seperate from skin

372
Q

how is heat lost from capillaries

A

radiation primarily. conduction and convection can also cool the body, assuming temp in environment is c ooler

372
Q

how does body warm up via vasoconstrict

A

adrenal medulla releases NOR and EPI which causes vasoconstrict

372
Q

eccrine

A

lies more superficial in the dermis, and drumps onto the skin directly.

found everywhere

help in thermoregulation

release of sweat regulated by the hypothalamus

men>women

373
Q

What are nails

A

dense plates of hardened keratinocytes that protect the distal ends of fingers and toes

grows from nail matrix

373
Q

response of body to mechanical abraison

A

the stratum basale responds by increasing the rate of mitosis, which soon leads to an overdevelopment of the stratum corneum (hyperkeratosis). The buildup of dead cells forms a protective pad called a callus.

373
Q

what sensory receptors do nails have

A

pressure, but nothing else

374
Q

what happens to skin during mechanical abrasion

A

protected by keratin filled celled of epidermis but cells in stratum corneum are sloughed off. in place of the sloughed off cells, keratinocytes and glycolipids glue together to form a seal.

375
Q

Hair function

A

shield from UV, cushioning, insulation
trap foreign particles
sensory receptors in response to injury

376
Q

how does the skin prevent microorganisms preventatively

A

“acid mantle”
secretions of sweat and sebacious glands mix together to form low pH & enzymes to help prevent infections

also the good bacteria living on the surface can outcompete the bad bacteria

deep in the layers of the skin are dendritic cells to phagocytize

377
Q

does the endocrine system have specificity

A

Only cells with receptors that are specific to the secreted hormones are affected. This specificity allows hormones to control targeted tissues and organs, often other endocrine glands (these are called tropic hormones).

378
Q

organs with endocrine function

A

hypothalamus, pineal gland, pituitary gland, thyroid, parathyroid glands, thymus, adrenal glands, gonads, and pancreas. Certain cells within the heart, kidneys, gastrointestinal tract, and placenta also have endocrine functions.

379
Q

GnRH does what

A

stimulates anterior pituitary to release LH and FSH

379
Q

exocrine glands

A

exocrine glands release non-
hormone products such as sweat, oil, tears, and bile through ducts to their target locations—usually
a cavity or epithelial surface inside or outside the body. Unlike hormones, exocrine products do not bind to receptors.

379
Q

define hypothalamus

A

the link between the nervous system and the endocrine system. It is located in the brain, superior to the pituitary and inferior to the thalamus. The hypothalamus communicates with the pituitary by secreting “releasing hormones” (RH) and “inhibiting hormones” (IH)

380
Q

define hormones

A

Hormones are molecules that bind to receptors and deliver regulatory messages. Many of these
signaling molecules are steroids derived from cholesterol. These include the sex hormones and
corticosteroids. The rest are non-steroids and include amines, peptides, and proteins.

381
Q

TRH does what

A

thyrotropin releasing hormone stimulates TSH

381
Q

intermediate pituitary

A

melanocyte

381
Q

posterior pituitary gland produces

A

release oxytocin where its also stored, vasopressin, ADH (stored)

prolactin is produced in anterior pituitary, not posterior
oxytocin squi

381
Q

pituitary

A

“master gland”
located within the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone, beneath the hypothalamus. This pea-sized gland hangs from a thin stalk called the infundibulum, and it consists of an anterior and posterior lobe, each with a different function.

382
Q

what does LH do

A

Targets the gonads—stimulates the production of sex hormones; surge stimulates ovulation in females

382
Q

what does FSH do

A

Targets the gonads—stimulates the maturation of sperm cells and ovarian follicles

383
Q

define pineal gland

A

situated between the two hemisepheres of the brain where the two halves of the thalamus join
secretes melatonin

384
Q

thyroid gland

A

attachment between the two lobes is called the isthmus. The isthmus is on the anterior portion of the trachea, with the lobes wrapping partially around the trachea

384
Q

T3

A

triiodothyronine
cell metabolism

385
Q

calcitonin

A

lowers blood calcium

385
Q

T4

A

thyroxine
cell metabolism

386
Q

Thymus gland location and function

A

Located between the sternum and the heart, embedded in the mediastinum. It slowly decreases in size after puberty.

releases Thymosin; Targets lymphatic tissues— stimulates the production of T- cells

386
Q

parathyroid gland does what

A

targets bone and kidney - raises blood calcium

387
Q

location pancreas anatomy

A

The head of the pancreas is situated in the curve of the duodenum and the tail points toward the left side of the body. The pancreas is mostly posterior to the stomach.

388
Q

insulin definition

A

Targets the liver, muscle, and adipose tissue—decreases blood glucose

389
Q

GHIH

A

GHIH - somatostatin. inhibits secretion of insulin and glucagon

389
Q

Gastrin

A

Targets the stomach—stimulates the release of HCl

390
Q

glucagon

A

targets the liver - increases blood glucose

391
Q

adrenal medulla

A

inner part of the gland
targets blood vessels, liver, and lungs—increase heart rate, increase blood sugar (fight or flight response)

392
Q

Secretin

A

Targets the pancreas and liver— stimulates the release of digestive enzymes and bile

392
Q

Calcitrol

A

Targets the intestines—increases the reabsorption of Ca2+

released by the kidneys

392
Q

CCK—cholecystokinin

A

Targets the pancreas and liver— stimulates the release of digestive enzymes and bile

393
Q

adipose tissue releases what

A

Targets the brain—suppresses appetite

393
Q

ANP

A

atrial natriretic peptide; Targets the kidneys and adrenal cortex— reduces reabsorption of Na+, lowers blood pressure

394
Q

ovaries produce

A

estrogen, progesterone, inhibin

394
Q

Inhibin

A

targets anterior pituitary
inhibits the release of FSH

394
Q

what does progesterone do

A

Targets mainly the uterus and mammary glands—stimulates uterine lining growth, regulates menstrual cycle, required for maintenance of pregnancy

394
Q

Placenta responds to which hormones

A

Estrogen, progesterone, inhibin and hCG

394
Q

what does estrogen do

A

Targets the uterus, ovaries, mammary glands, brain, and other tissues—stimulates uterine lining growth, regulates menstrual cycle, facilitates the development of secondary sex characteristics

395
Q

hCG action

A

Targets the ovaries—stimulates the production of estrogen and progesterone

396
Q

Testes produce what and what does it do

A

Targets the testes and many other tissues— promotes spermatogenesis, secondary sex characteristics
testosterone

inhibit targets anterior pituitary, inhibin

397
Q

describe hormones classification

A

Hormones can be broadly classified into lipid-soluble hormones (steroids) and water-soluble hormones (non-steroids).

398
Q

Steroid hormones characteristics

A
  • Steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol, and their base structure consists of four fused carbon rings.
  • They are released by the adrenal cortex, testes, ovaries, and the placenta.
  • Major types of steroid hormones include the sex hormones (estrogens, androgens, progesterone) and the corticosteroids (glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids).
  • Since these
  • hormones are lipid-soluble, they can diffuse through the cell membrane and bind to the nuclear receptors that regulate transcription.
399
Q

non steroid hormone characteristics

A

Non-steroid hormones tend to elicit faster responses than steroid hormones.

They cannot diffuse into the cell and instead bind to receptors on the cell membrane, activating second-messenger
systems.

classified into amines, peptides, and proteins.

400
Q

amines

A

Amines are derivatives of the amino acids tyrosine or tryptophan, and include epinephrine, norepinephrine, thyroxine, and
melatonin.

401
Q

peptide hormones

A

Peptide hormones are short chains of amino acids. Common examples include
oxytocin, somatostatin, and antidiuretic hormone.

402
Q

protein hormones

A

Protein hormones such as insulin, growth
hormone, and parathyroid hormone consist of longer chains—generally over 100 amino acids.

403
Q

glycoprotein hormones

A

Hormones can also be glycoproteins. Follicle-stimulating hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone,
and luteinizing hormone all have carbohydrate attachments.

FSH
TSH
LH

404
Q

layers of connective tissue surrounding the kidney

A

renal fascia, the adipose capsule, and the innermost renal capsul

405
Q

where is the renal capsule

A

most inferior
surrounds the renal cortex

406
Q

where are majority of nephrons housed

A

renal cortex
tubules dip into the medulla

407
Q

ultrafiltration

A

what happens in the renal cortex
nonspecific filtration of blood under high pressure. It is also responsible for the majority of the reabsorption of water.

407
Q

[](htt

what does the renal hilum contain

A

BV and nerves

408
Q

glomerulus

A

ball of capillaries
inbetween the renal artery and vein

409
Q

what parts of nephron are inside the cortex

A

renal corpuscles, convuluted tubules
cortical labryrinth

410
Q

what part of the nephron is inside of the renal medulla

A

loop of henle

411
Q

medullary rays

A

The thick, straight portions of the proximal and distal tubules, as well as the collecting ducts

412
Q

how does urine get from the medulla to the pelvis

A

it passes through a renal papilla at the apex of the upside down pyramid, then it moves through calyces (ducts) to the renal pelvis.

412
Q

Renal corpuscle

A

filters the blood. has bowwman’s capsule wrapped around a glomerulus.

glomerulus is the tangled clump of capillaries

413
Q

what portion of nephrons are long and what are short

A

About 85% of nephrons (cortical nephrons) have short loops of Henle that extend only slightly into the medulla. The remaining 15% (juxtamedullary nephrons) have longer loops that extend deeper.

414
Q

is the collecting duct inside of the nephron

A

no! the nephron is considered seperate.

414
Q

renal tubule

A

collects and concentrates filtrate
continuous with bowman’s capsule. diff regions that differ in structure and function

415
Q

describe the capillaries in the glomerulus

A

fenestrated capillariesare lined with a thin layer of epithelial cells

416
Q

what are mesangial cells

A

Mesangial cells contract to regulate blood flow, and also support the capillary network.

417
Q

How does material move from bowmans capsule into the capillaries

A

Gaps between the pedicels (filtration slits) allow the passage of tiny molecules and ions.

417
Q

what makes up the filtration membrane

A

the endothelial cells of the capillaries, the basement membrane, and the pedicels

417
Q

cells & function from the PCT

A

The proximal convoluted tubule extends from Bowman’s capsule, and this coiled tube is characterized by cuboidal cells with dense microvilli that aid in reabsorption and secretion. There are only sparse microvilli in the rest of the tubule.

418
Q

is there high or low solute concentration in the medulla

A

high, and it helps reabsorb water (loop of henle)

418
Q

Bowman’s capsule structure

A

outer layer of epithelial cells that form the parietal layer, and it has a visceral layer of podocytes with processes called pedicels that wrap around the capillaries.

418
Q

what is the bowman’s space

A

the cavity between the two layers of bowman’s capsule

fluid from the blood leaves the fenestrated capillaries and passes through the filtration membrane and collects in Bowman’s space

the final place fluid goes before entering the renal tubule

419
Q

describe the ascending limb in the loop of henle

A

The ascending limb widens into a thick portion composed of larger epithelial cells. The loop is lined with simple squamous epithelial cells, with the exception of the thick ascending limb which is lined with simple cuboidal cells.

420
Q

explain what is absorbed where in the loop of henle

A
  1. descending limb (which reabsorbs water) that plunges into the medulla, a U-turn that curves back toward the cortex,
  2. ascending limb (which reabsorbs ions)
421
Q

DCT

A

cuboidal cells, which is involved in absorption and secretion, but not to the extent of the proximal convoluted tubule. It is also shorter in length.

422
Q

collecting duct shape

A

The collecting duct is the final site of reabsorption in the kidney, and it is shared by multiple nephrons

The distal tubule empties filtrate into the collecting TUBULE, which merges with other collecting tubules to form the collecting DUCT

423
Q

collecting tubule cell types

A
  1. Collecting tubules are lined with simple cuboidal epithelium, but these cells elongate to form columnar cells as they get closer to the duct.
  2. Some of these cells are principal cells, which reabsorb sodium ions and water (under ADH and aldosterone control).
  3. Other cells are intercalated cells, and they play an important role in acid-base balance and the reabsorption of sodium ions.

Both these types of cells can also be found toward the end part of the distal tubule, but there are fewer microvilli than in the collecting duct.

424
Q

where does filtrate go after the collecting duct

A

The filtrate that passes through the collecting duct enters the minor calyces at the apex of a medullary pyramid.

425
Q

describe hydrostatic pressure of blood in glomerulus

A

nonspecific filtration is driven by the hydrostatic pressure of the blood. This pressure is higher than in other capillaries because the efferent arterioles that exit the glomerulus have a smaller diameter than the afferent arterioles that enter.

426
Q

what can pass through the fenetrated capillaries in the glomerulus

A

Water and small solutes from the blood are forced through fenestrations in the capillaries, leaving behind larger in the filtrate

427
Q

how are solutes moved in the nephron

A

primary active transport, secondary active transport, or diffusion, and water is reabsorbed by osmosis.

427
Q

what is the 3 layered filtration membrane

A

The first layer is the endothelial lining of the capillaries. Fenestrations in the capillaries prevent the passage of blood cells. The second layer is the basement membrane, which excludes plasma proteins such as albumin. The third layer is the visceral lining of Bowman’s capsule. Small filtration slits between the podocytes allow only the smallest of particles to pass.

428
Q

in the glomerulus, what is the same?

A

The concentration of a solute in the glomerular filtrate is the same as the concentration in the blood. on average, about 1/5 of the blood is filtered, but this varies depending on the pressure.

429
Q

Secretion/reabsorption for PCT

A
  1. secretion: for H+, creatinine, NH4, drugs, toxins, all active transport!
  2. reabsorption: 60-70% of the volume of all filtrate. glucose, aa, vitamins, Na, cl, k, ca, mg, hco, phosphate, water, urea
430
Q

secretion/reabsorb in descending limb loop of henle

A

secretion: urea
reabsorption: water

430
Q

DCT secretion/reabsorb

A

secretion: K, H
reabsorb: Cl, Ca, Na, Water (no mg, no k)
but water is variable permeability; depends on aldosterone

431
Q

collecting duct reabsorb/secrete

A

secretion: K, H
reabsorb: urea, bicarb, na, water
water is variable and depends on aldosterone and ADH

431
Q

loop of henle ascending secret/reabsorb

A

secretes none
reabsorption: na, cl, k mg, ca (not water)

432
Q

describe the countercurrent mechanism

memorize paragraph

A

the use of active transport to move solutes out of the ascending loop of Henle (which is impermeable to water) into the medullary interstitium. The osmotic gradient that is created causes water to diffuse out of the descending limb (which is permeable to water), concentrating the filtrate. The recycling of urea also helps to maintain a high medullary osmolarity. The descending loop of Henle and the collecting duct are both permeable to urea, but the descending limb and the distal tubule are not. Urea enters the descending loop from the interstitium, and travels through the renal tubule to the collecting duct, where it reenters the interstitium.

432
Q

does urine become less or more concentrated after aldosterone is increased

A

urine becoems more concentrated because water goes into the blood instead of the urine

433
Q

what actions move urine from the kidney to the bladder

A

peristalsis and gravity

433
Q

what parts of the urinary system are lined with transitional epithelium

A

ureters, bladder, and sup. portion of the urethra
it allows expansion

434
Q

countercurrent multiplier vs countercurrent exchanger

A
  1. countercurrent multiplier: occurs in the loop of henle- creating osmotic gradient in medulla to reabsorb water.
  2. countercurrent exchange: occurs in the vasa recta- maintains osmotic gradient through opposite blood flow in hairpin vasa recta shape. going down, the blood picks up ions. going up, the blood leaves ions. this preserves the medullary osmolarity without created a new gradient, since the solutes are taken but then put back.
435
Q

Contraction of the bladder is controlled by

A

parasympathetic
stretch receptors send signal to sacral cord

436
Q

how does the body urinate

A

A circular smooth muscle called the internal urethral sphincter relaxes, and (if the timing is appropriate) the voluntary external urethral sphincter relaxes as well. Urine flows from the bladder, through the urethra, and out of the body in a process called micturition.

437
Q

where is the internal urethral sphincter muscle located

A

between the bladder and the urethra

438
Q

how does the internal urethral sphincter work

A

its made of smooth muscle and its continuous with the detrusor muscle. The sympathetic nervous system keeps the IUS contracted until the micturition reflex is triggered. The IUS relaxes as a result of sympathetic inhibition, allowing urine to pass through

439
Q

how does external urethral sphincter work

A

made of skeletal muscle and under the control of the somatic nervous system. A conscious decision can be made to relax the EUS under appropriate circumstances. Involuntary contraction of the detrusor forces urine out of the body, and the voluntary contraction of abdominal muscles can increase the rate of flow by compressing the bladder.

440
Q

describe RAAS

A

When granular juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arterioles of the kidneys detect a drop in blood pressure, they secrete an enzyme called renin. Renin interacts with a plasma protein called angiotensinogen, producing angiotensin I. As angiotensin I enters the capillaries of the lungs, it is acted on by another enzyme that converts it to angiotensin II. This hormone raises blood pressure by promoting vasoconstriction and stimulating the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone. Aldosterone increases the reabsorption of sodium, which increases water reabsorption, causing the blood volume and pressure to increase.

441
Q

im i am thirsty, does my osmoles of the blood go up or down

A

it will go up, because concentration of ions is higher

442
Q

how is osmoles detected in the blood

A

When osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect an increase in osmolality, signals are sent to the pituitary gland to release ADH. ADH causes the collecting ducts in the kidneys to be more permeable to water, and water crosses the epithelium from the urine into the interstitium where it is returned to the blood. As a result, the blood osmolality decreases, and urine osmolality increases.

443
Q

how CO2 travels in RBCs

A

CO2 + H20 = H2CO3 = HCO3 + H

444
Q

what are the waste products of the kidneys

A

ammonia, urea, uric acid, creatinine

445
Q

ammonia

A

toxic base from aa breakdown
converted to urea by liver

446
Q

urea exits how

A

concentration of urea in the medulla which promotes reabsorption of water
reabsorbed in the descending loop of henle

447
Q

uric acid

A

byproduct of the catabolism of purine nucleotides, and most of it is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule by active transport. Like urea, only a small percentage is excreted

448
Q

creatinine

A

Creatinine is produced in the muscles as a byproduct of the metabolism of creatine phosphate. It is filtered by the kidneys and excreted. Unlike urea and uric acid, creatinine is not reabsorbed by the tubules.

448
Q

fever and inflammation: specifc or non specific?

A

nonspecific, innate immune system

448
Q

chemical barriers to infection

A

low pH of gastric juice, interferons that block viral replication, lysozyme in tears, and other antimicrobial proteins such as defensins, collectins, and complements.

448
Q

first barriers to infection

A

skin and mucous membranes (mechanical)

449
Q

where do T cell mature

A

thymus

450
Q

what does T reg do

A

Regulatory (suppressor) T cells inhibit T and B cells to stop the immune response.

451
Q

thymus

A

site for T cell DIFFERENTIATION

451
Q

bone marrow does what two things

A

hematopoietic stem cells that ive rise to ALL WBC and RBC
but site of DIFFERENTIATION for B cells

452
Q

MALT - location and what does it do

A

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue refers to the small clusters of lymphatic cells that are found in the tonsils, appendix, and Peyer’s patches of the small intestine.
T cells, B cells, and macrophages provide protection against pathogens.

452
Q

spleen red pulp vs white pulp

A

Splenic cords of the red pulp contain an abundance of macrophages and lymphocytes that help to filter aged blood cells, pathogens, and debris from the blood.
The **white pulp **is a lymphatic tissue that consists almost entirely of B and T cells, and it provides a place for these lymphocytes to proliferate.

453
Q

lymph nodes do three things

A
  1. Provide a place for lymphocytes and other WBCs to proliferate (cortex contains B cells and macrophages, medulla contains T cells).
  2. Filter the lymph of microorganisms, toxins, and wastes.
  3. B cells produce antibodies that assist in the immune response.
454
Q

lymphatic system organs include

A

adenoids (in face), tonsils, lymph nodes, R lymphatic duct entering vein, spleen, BM, lymph vessel, thymus

455
Q

what is lymph?

A

Lymph is a clear liquid similar in composition to plasma. It is transported in one direction (toward the neck) where it is emptied into the subclavian veins. Lymph consists of white blood cells and the fluid that leaks out of the blood capillaries.

456
Q

what are lymph vessels’ characteristics

A

Lymphatic vessels are similar in structure to veins; they have thin walls, and also have valves to prevent backflow. Their walls are more porous, however, allowing the lymph to drain into them for circulation
lymph moves by contraction of muscle

457
Q

what happens at lymph nodes

A

lymphocytes are there to filter out foreign substances

458
Q

primary and secondary lymphatic organs

A

The primary organs of the lymphatic system (bone marrow and thymus) produce mature lymphocytes.

There are also secondary organs (such as the spleen and tonsils) that house lymphocytes.

459
Q

how antibodies destroy pathogens

A
  1. pathogens agglutinate (clump together) before being destroyed.
  2. Antibodies can also neutralize the antigen by blocking its ability to attach to cells
  3. or cause it to become insoluble and precipitate out of solution.
    4 Sometimes, they activate complement—a system of proteins that enhances the effectiveness of the immune response.
    5 Other cells of the immune system can be called to action, and phagocytosis can be enhanced in a process called opsonization.
    6 Antibodies also promote inflammation to help slow the spread of infection.
459
Q

fluid distribution between blood and tissues is a…

A

key function of the immune system.

Greater hydrostatic pressure in the blood vessels (as compared to the interstitial fluid) causes fluid to leak out of the vessels into the surrounding tissues. Porous lymphatic capillaries collect excess interstitial fluid (now called lymph) for delivery to the right and left subclavian veins. As it travels through the lymphatic system, the lymph passes through lymph nodes where it is filtered and cleansed. Eventually, it reaches either the right lymphatic duct (which drains into the right subclavian vein) or the thoracic duct (which drains into the left subclavian vein), returning fluid back into the blood. If pressure is too great in the lymphatic vessels, edema will occur as fluid leaks back into the tissues.

460
Q

where is lymph found in the GI

A

The villi of the small intestine harbor specialized lymph capillaries called lacteals that absorb fats. These fats are transported in the form of chylomicrons, which give the lymph (called chyle) a whitish appearance.

460
Q

where does the thoracic duct drain into

A

the left subclavian vein

460
Q

where does the right lymphatic duct drain

A

right subclavian

461
Q

where do cells go that leaked out of the bloodstream

A

the lymph

462
Q
A
463
Q
A
463
Q
A
463
Q
A
464
Q
A
464
Q
A

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