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ATI TEAS > Teas > Flashcards

Teas Flashcards

1
Q

In the human body, which of the following body parts are in a superior position to the lungs? (Select all that apply) A. Stomach B. Trachea C. Spleen D. Heart E. Brain

A

B, D, E

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2
Q

Which part of the arm is most distal to the shoulder of the human body?

A

The distal phalanx would be most distal to the shoulder.

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3
Q

Which terms add clarity to anatomical position relative to the coronal plane? A. Superior and Inferior B. Distal and proximal C. Anterior and Posterior D. Lateral and Medial

A

C

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4
Q

Which two terms are likely to appear in the same discussion related to a part of the body? A. Dorsal and Lumbar B. Umbilical and Crural C. Dorsal and Orbital D. Lumbar and Patellar

A

A

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5
Q

Which of the statements below are accurate? (Select all that apply) A. The axillary region is superior to the cephalic region. B. The oral, nasal, buccal, and ocular regions are all anterior to the occipital region. C. Digital or phalangeal structures may be pedal or manual. D. The axillary, brachial, antecubital, antebrachial, popliteal, and sural sub regions are all associated with the upper limbs.

A

B, C

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6
Q

Which of the following breaks down bone material? A. Osteoclast B. Osteoblast C. Osteocytes D. Canaliculi

A

A

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7
Q

Which of the following are considered short bones? A. Skull bones B. Radius and ulna C. Carpals and tarsals D. Humerus and scapula

A

C

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8
Q

Which of the following best describes the purpose of hyaline cartlidge in the skeletal system? A. It forms the matrix of a bone B. It develops into osteocytes C. It’s strengthens the entire skeletal system D. It reduces friction at joints

A

D

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9
Q

Which of the following best explains the cause of osteoporosis? A. Pathogens eat away at bone tissue B. Ligaments degrade, causing joints to malfunction C. Osteoclast breakdown bone faster than osteoblast deposit minerals D. Osteoclast break down bone slower than osteoblast build up bone

A

C

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10
Q

How do the skeletal and muscular system work together?

A

The muscles attached to the skeletal system allow for movement by pulling on them

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11
Q

Which of the following helps to prevent pathogens from invading the body? A. Histamines B. Mucus C. T cells D. Macrophages

A

B

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12
Q

A bacteria cell enters the body through a cut in the skin. Which of the following describes the immune response that would occur next? A. Cytotoxic T cells form B. Histamines are released C. Antigens are released D. Helper T cells are activated

A

B

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13
Q

Which of the following types of cells produce antibodies? A. T cells B. Plasma cells C. Memory cells D. Macrophages

A

B

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14
Q

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a vaccine? A. To produce extra inflammatory responses, such as the release of histamines B. To practice passive immunity C. To produce antibodies in case of future infection D. To increase macrophage production

A

C

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15
Q

What occurs in the immune system when it encounters an allergen?

A

The body will make antibodies to attack the substance

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16
Q

Which of the following parts of the male urinary system also transports sperm? A. Ureter B. Urethra C. Uterus D. Urinary bladder

A

B

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17
Q

Which of the following waste products from digestion does the kidney remove? A. Nitrogen B. Sodium chloride C. Protein D. Carbon

A

A

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18
Q

Which of the following best describes the outcome if the kidney stopped functioning? A. Blood would increase its carbon dioxide concentration B. Blood would feel with waste in the human body would not be able to maintain homeostasis C. The kidneys would feel with urine D. The frequency in which a human excrete urine would increase

A

B

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19
Q

Which of the following structures is the structural and functional unit of the kidney? A. Renal capillaries B. Glomerulus C. Nephron D. Cortex

A

C

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20
Q

What is the purpose of blood pressure in the kidney?

A

The purpose of blood pressure in the kidney is to regulate sodium excretion and maintain homeostasis.

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21
Q

Which of the following best describes the kind of message sent in the endocrine system? A. Electrical signals between axons B. Chemical signals that travel through the bloodstream C. Physical sensory signals received through the integumentary system D. Audiovisual signals process through the brain

A

B

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22
Q

Which of the following structures secretes releasing hormones? A. Hypothalamus B. Pituitary C. Pancreas D. Liver

A

A

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23
Q

Which of the following is a function of the pineal gland? A. Releasing growth hormone B. Releasing melatonin C. Releasing insulin and glucagon D. Releasing luteinizing hormone

A

B

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24
Q

Which of the following glands releases epinephrine during stress? A. Hypothalamus B. Adrenal glands C. Pancreas D. Pituitary

A

B

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25
Q

What happens to the level of blood glucose and hormones after eating?

A

Blood sugar levels will rise. The pancreas will release the hormone insulin to lower the blood glucose levels.

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26
Q

Which of the following is the layer of skin that forms a protective waterproof barrier? A. Dermis B. Sebaceous C. Epidermis D. Sudoriferous

A

C

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27
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of melanocytes? A. Secretion of substances, like minerals and alcohol B. Production of melanin C. Absorption of vitamin D D. Sensing the environment

A

B

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28
Q

Which of the following layers of skin contains hair follicles? A. Dermis B. Sebaceous C. Epidermis D. Sudoriferous

A

A

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29
Q

Which of the following layers of skin contains a layer of dead cells? A. Dermis B. Hypodermis C. Epidermis D. Sudoriferous

A

C

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30
Q

How does the integumentary system react to a rise in body temperature?

A

When body temperature rises, the skin releases sweat which absorbs heat, evaporates and cools the body

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31
Q

Which of the following organs produce female gametes? A. Ovary B. Testes C. Prostate D. Uterus

A

A

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32
Q

Which is the location where fertilization typically takes place? A. Vagina B. Penis C. Vas deferens D. Fallopian tubes

A

D

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33
Q

Which of the following best describes one function of estrogen? A. Production of sperm cells B. Maturation of eggs C. Implantation D. Fertilization

A

B

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34
Q

Which of the following results from the production of luteinizing hormone in males? (Select all that apply) A. Heart growth B. Facial hair growth C. Testosterone production D. Sperm production

A

C

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35
Q

How does the production of male and female gametes differ?

A

The males produce sperm and the females produce an egg. The males produce every day, and the females produce once a month.

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36
Q

Which of the following are the thick filaments in a muscle cell? A. Actin B. Myosin C. Sacromere D. Myofibrils

A

D

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37
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of tendons? A. They connect muscle to bone B. They connect bone to bone C. They connect tendons to muscle D. They connect Cartlidge to bone

A

A

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38
Q

Which of the following types of muscle tissue is voluntary? A. Skeletal B. Smooth C. Cardiac D. Nervous

A

A

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39
Q

Which of the following muscles are located at the shoulder? A. Deltoids B. Pectorals C. Trapezius D. Abdominals

A

A

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40
Q

A person put their hand on a hot stove, but quickly removed it. Describe the pathway of the signal and response through the nervous system.

A

The nerves in our skin shoot a message of pain to our brain. The brain sends a message back to the muscles in your hand to pull away.

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41
Q

Which of the following actions are controlled by voluntary nerve signals? (Select all that apply) A. Walking B. Digestion C. Heart beating D. Breathing

A

A

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42
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of a nerve synapse? A. It carries a nerve impulses away from the nerve body B. It is responsible for involuntary muscle movement C. It allows for the passing of signals between neurons and other neurons, or between neurons and muscles D. It contains a bundle of fibers that transmit electrical impulses

A

C

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43
Q

Which of the following describes the role of the central nervous system? A. Transmit electrical signals to muscles B. Connects the brain to the rest of the body C. Controls the regulation of body systems D. Since messages from the body to the spinal cord

A

C

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44
Q

Which of the following types of nerves sends messages to the brain? A. Skeletal B. Smooth C. Sensory D. Motor

A

C

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45
Q

What is the difference between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system?

A

The peripheral nervous system includes nerves that branch off from the spinal cord, and extend to all parts of the body. The central nervous system includes the spinal cord and the brain.

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46
Q

In which of the following organs does digestion begin? A. Mouth B. Stomach C. Small intestine D. Pancreas

A

A

47
Q

In which of the following organs does the breakdown of proteins begin? A. Mouth B. Stomach C. Small intestine D. Pancreas

A

B

48
Q

Which of the following structures absorbs nutrients in the small intestine? A. Mucus B. Microvilli C. Enzymes D. Hormones

A

B

49
Q

Which of the following statements best describes peristalsis? A. The partly digested food moving from the stomach to the small intestine B. The mechanical breakdown of food entering the stomach C. Muscle contractions that move food through the digestive tract D. Chemical digestion of food with the help of enzymes

A

C

50
Q

Describe the mechanical and chemical digestion of a starch or carbohydrate

A

Starch begins to break down in the mouth. Chewing breaks the molecules into smaller pieces. Amylase speeds up the process of starch is breaking down. Muscle contractions in the stomach break down food particles into chyme. In the small intestines, more enzymes released by the pancreas, break down the starches into simple sugars.

51
Q

Which of the following list the primary parts of the heart? A. Blood cells B. Muscle tissue split into two chambers C. Muscle tissue split into four chambers D. Four ventricles

A

C

52
Q

Which of the following blood components is responsible for transporting oxygen? A. Red blood cells B. Plasma C. Dissolved gases D. Leukocytes

A

A

53
Q

Which of the following Chambers pumps blood towards the lungs? A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle

A

D

54
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the function of veins? A. Veins carry deoxygenated blood B. Veins carry oxygenated blood C. Veins carry blood back to the heart D. Veins carry blood away from the heart

A

A & C

55
Q

Which two chambers of the heart have thicker walls and why would these chambers be thicker?

A

The left and right ventricles. Ventricles use a large amount of pressure to push blood to different parts of the body, which requires these Chambers to be thicker.

56
Q

Which of the following structures changes the volume of the lungs? A. Alveoli B. Heart C. Trachea D. Diaphragm

A

D

57
Q

Which of the following statements best explains how the structure of Alveoli relates to its function? A. Alveoli are large to maximize gas exchange B. The walls of the Alveoli are thin to increase the rate of diffusion C. The walls of the Alveoli are thick to prevent pressure buildup D. Alveoli are small to increase the transportation of cells

A

B

58
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the primary function of the respiratory system? A. It transports, oxygen, and carbon dioxide to cells all over the body B. It involves the inhalation and exhalation of gases into the environment C. It exchanges gases between the blood and the air in the environment D. It maintains proper blood level pH

A

C

59
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the make up of the lungs? A. Right lung three lobes; left lung two lobes B. Right lung two lobes; left lung two lobes C. Right lungs two lobes; left lung three lobes D. Right lung three lobes; Left lung three lobes

A

A

60
Q

Describe what will occur in the blood if the tidal volume in the lungs increases

A

Increasing the tidal volume will increase diffusion of carbon dioxide out of the bloodstream

61
Q

List the six components of the biological hierarchy of the body from least to most complex

A

Chemicals, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organism

62
Q

Which of the following describes the function of ribosomes? A. Proteins synthesis B. Energy production C. Cell movement D. Storage of molecules

A

A

63
Q

Because muscle cells require large amounts of energy to function correctly, which organelles would be abundant in those type of cells? A. Ribosomes B. Mitochondria C. Cytoskeleton D. Cell membrane

A

B

64
Q

Which of the following organelles house the genetic material? A. Nucleus B. Ribosomes C. Cell membrane D. Lysosomes

A

A

65
Q

What is the function of cell membrane?

A

Maintain cell environment through the process of selective permeability

66
Q

What is the function of cytoplasm?

A

Supports and suspends structures inside the cell membrane; transfers materials required for cellular processes

67
Q

What is the function of Golgi apparatus?

A

Processes proteins and lipid molecules

68
Q

What is the function of a lysosome?

A

Aids in digestion and recycling of old cell materials; may help destroy invading, viruses, and bacteria

69
Q

What is the function of mitochondria?

A

Generates chemical energy in the form of ATP molecules

70
Q

What is the function of the nucleus and nucleolus?

A

Holds jeans that carry hereditary information; regulates the activity of the cell

Nucleolus a symbols, RNA and proteins into ribosomes

71
Q

What is the function of ribosomes?

A

Synthesize proteins

72
Q

What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Contain ribosomes; synthesizes and processes proteins in the cell

73
Q

What is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Synthesize and concentrates lipids in the cell

74
Q

What is the function of vacuole?

A

Serves as a storage for a variety of elements, such as water, toxins, and carbohydrates

75
Q

Which of the following nucleotides pairs with adenine in DNA? A. Guanine B. Adenine C. Cytosine D. Thymine

A

D

76
Q

Which of the following is the number of chromosomes found in a human cell? A. One circular chromosome B. 22; 11 pairs C. 46; 23 pairs D. 50; 25pairs

A

C

77
Q

Which of the following statements about nucleotides in jeans is correct? A. A gene contains thousands of chromosomes B. A nucleotide contains many genes and chromosomes C. Nucleotides form strings of DNA that make up genes D. Nucleotides form strands of chromosomes that make up DNA.

A

C

78
Q

Which of the following is the name for a segment of DNA that codes for a protein? A. Nucleotide B. Gene C. Chromosome D. DNA

A

B

79
Q

A pea plant has a dominant homozygous genotype. Which of the following letters best represent this genotype? A. WW B. Ww C. ww D. WX

A

A

80
Q

Pea plants have seeds that are either green or yellow. Green seeds are dominant to yellow seeds. Two pea plants that are heterozygous for seed color are crossed. What percentage of their offspring will have green seeds?

A

25%

81
Q

Which of the following best describes the expression of alleles? A. Heritable trait B. Genotype C. Phenotype D. P generation

A

C

82
Q

Explain why each type of macromolecule is important to the human body

A

Carbohydrates are used as a source of energy. The store energy and are used as chemical messengers. Nucleic acids store, genetic information and transmit information needed to make proteins. Proteins form many body structures.

83
Q

Which of the following groups is synthesized from monosaccharides like glucose? A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Nucleic acid

A

A

84
Q

Which of the following macromolecules store genetic information? A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Deoxyribonucleic acid

A

D

85
Q

Which of the following monomers form enzymes? A. Glucose and fructose B. Amino acids C. Nucleotides D. Fatty acids

A

B

86
Q

Which of the following foods contain mostly lipids? A. Potatoes B. Oil C. Chicken D. Lettuce

A

B

87
Q

What time is used to describe all disease causing microorganisms? A. Decompose B. Prokaryote C. Pathogen D. Eukaryotes

A

C

88
Q

Which of the following is at the core of every virus particle? A. DNA or RNA B. Enzymes C. DNA and RNA

A

A

89
Q

Which microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification? A. Brightfield B. Dark field C. Electron D. Fluorescence

A

C

90
Q

Which of the following are considered micro organisms? (select all that apply.) A. Mosquitoes B. Protozoa C. Bacteria D. Fungi

A

B, C, D

91
Q

Explain the difference between infectious and non-infectious diseases

A

An infectious disease can’t be transmitted from one person to another. Non-infectious disease cannot be spread through person-to-person contact.

92
Q

Which of the following phase changes requires the loss of heat? A. Melting B. Evaporating C. Freezing D. Sublimation

A

C

93
Q

Which of the following is true of liquids? A. They have a definite shape and volume B. They have no definite shape, but they have definite volume C. They have a definite shape, but no definite volume D. They have no definite shape and a definite volume

A

B

94
Q

Which of the following best describes the triple point? A. Point where temperature pressure and volume all equal one another B. Point where a substance can exist as a solid liquid and gas C. Point where no more energy can be absorbed by substance D. A point where a substance starts to lose its shape

A

B

95
Q

Which of the following substances are ionic compounds? (select all that apply) A. H2O B. C2O C. NH3 D. KCl E. NaCl

A

D, E

96
Q

A substance that lowers the activation energy is which of the following? A. Reactant B. Product C. Catalyst D. Time

A

C

97
Q

Which of the following would slow down a reaction rate? A. Increasing the temperature B. Adding enzymes C. Decreasing the pressure D. Decreasing the reactants

A

D

98
Q

An enzyme does which of the following to a chemical reaction? A. Shift the reaction to the right B. Shift the reaction to the left C. Speeds up both the forward and reverse reactions D. Changes the reaction from one that is at equilibrium to one that goes to completion

A

C

99
Q

Which of the following describes the process of diffusion? A. It is the movement of substances from a solid to liquid state. B. It is the movement of a substance from areas of high concentration to low concentration C. It requires a large amount of energy D. It is specific to the movement of water onlyp

A

B

100
Q

Orange juice stomach acid and coffee are all acids. Which of the following is the pH level for the substances? A. PH less than 2 B. PH less than 7 C. PH at about 7 D. PH above 7

A

B

101
Q

Which of the following substances are examples of a base? (select all that apply.) A. KOH B. HCl C. NH3 D. Hl E. NaOH

A

A, C, E

102
Q

Which of the following substances is an example of an acid? A. Hl B. CO2 C. NH3 D. KCl

A

A, B

103
Q

What is the measurement of micro?

A

0.0001

104
Q

What is the measurement of Millii?

A

0.001

105
Q

What is the measurement of centi?

A

0.01

106
Q

What is the measurement of Deci?

A

0.1

107
Q

What is the meaning of kilo?

A

1000

108
Q

Which of the following values is appropriate for the height of an adult human? A. 1.5 mm B. 1.5 cm C. 1.5 m D. 1.5 km

A

C

109
Q

Which of the following tools could be used to measure the volume of a liquid sample? A. Flask B. Triple beam balance C. Meter stick D. Ruler

A

A

110
Q

A block of ice has a height of 10 cm a width of 5 cm and a length of 5 cm what is the volume in cubic centimeters of the substance?

A

10 x 5 x 5 = 250cm3

111
Q

Which of the following units is most appropriate for measuring the height of a giraffe? A. Centimeters B. Kilometers C. Meters D. Millimeters

A

C

112
Q

Which of the following units is most appropriate for measuring the mass of a coin? A. Grams B. Kilograms C. Meters D. Kilometers

A

A

113
Q

Which of the following can lead to the breakdown of glycogen? A. High levels of insulin B. High levels of glucose C. Low levels of insulin D. Low levels of glucose

A

C

ATI TEAS (4 decks)

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