Take 2 again Flashcards

1
Q

muddy brown casts

A

acute tubular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

chonedrocalcinosis

A

pseudogout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

multi organ disease caused by a systemic vasculitis

A

behcet’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lisfranc’s injury

A

dislocation of the base of the second metatarsal and the medial cuneiform in the midfoot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

common treatment of neuropathic pain

A

amitriptyline (tricyclic antidepressant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

bag of worms

A

varicocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

transillumination

A

hydrocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

given alongside prednisolone to protect bone

A

bisphosphonates (and calcium and vit D)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Patient with skin hardening and PMH of raynauds

A

systemic sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

extremely invasive difficult to treat thyroid cancer

A

anaplastic thyroid cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Diffuse lace like rash and bright red cheeks

A

parvovirus b19 (slapped cheek)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

commonest cause of bronchiolitis

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

heamaturia is more common in nephrotic/nephritic

A

nephritic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

recurrent oral and genital ulcers, uveitis, erythema nosodum

A

Beckets disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how is pyloric stenosis diagnosed

A

abdominal ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what type of testicular cancer shows lymphocytic infiltrate

A

seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What drug can be used in GCA to reduce risk of visual loss

A

Aspirin (75mg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

First line investigation for ureteric calculus

A

non-contrast CT KUB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Haematuria, flank pain and mass

A

renal cell carcinoma triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

profuse diarrhoea that turns bloody a few days later, haemolytic anaemia, uraemia, thrombocytopenia

A

haemolytic uraemia syndrome (most infected by E. coli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Treatment for stress incontinace if pelvic floor exercises show no improvement and surgery is not an option

A

duloxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how should bisphosphonates be taken

A

in the morning before breakfast and remain upright 30 mins after taking it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The ____ nerve arises from the anterior rami of C3,4,5 and lies on the anterior surface of scalenus anterior as it descends into the thorax.

A

phrenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

sciatic nerve arises from ____ and ____divisions of the anterior primary rami of ____. It innervates the muscles in the _____ compartment of the thigh and all the muscles of the leg and foot via its terminal tibial and common peroneal nerve branches.

A

anterior, posterior
L4-S3
posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

largest lymphatic vessel in the body and it drains lymph from the lower half of the body, the left thorax, left upper limb, left head and neck, into the left subclavian vein, back into the venous circulation

A

thoracic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

antibodies against hemi-desmosomes

A

bulbous pemphigoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The wrist is a ______ joint

A

synovial condyloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

NSAIDS cause _____ constriction

A

afferent arteriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what type of bone is the patella

A

sesamoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Proliferative ‘wire-loop’ glomerular histology in the presence of proteinuria and systemic symptoms is characteristic of _____

A

lupus nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

diet advice for protein, phosphate, potassium and sodium in chronic kidney disease

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

IgA nephropathy results from______ in the glomerulus

A

immune complex deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what virus causes shingles

A

VZV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

long term central vision loss suggests ____ where peripheral vision loss suggests ____

A

ARMD
glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Optic Neuritis, episodes of paraesthesia and urinary incontinece

A

multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

apex of a renal pyramid is called a

A

renal papilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the starling forces

A

hydrostatic and oncotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which hormone inhibits GH

A

somatostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

main function of serum albumin

A

regulates oncotic pressure of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the Ottawa ankle rules for x-ray?

A

pain in the malleolar zone and any of:
- bone tenderness at the posterior edge or tip of the lateral / medial malleolus
- inability to bear weight both immediately and in the emergency department for four steps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

happens as a result of un-fixed childhood squint

A

amblyopia (lazy eye)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Treatment resistant hypertension with WORSENING renal function after starting on ACE inhibitor

A

fibromuscular dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Thunderclap headache, rapid neurological deterioration, palpable flank masses

A

Berry aneurysm, causing subarachnoid haemorrhage (ADPCKD)

44
Q

what medication can cause moon face

A

steroids

45
Q

Why does alcohol bingeing lead to polyuria?

A

Suppresses ADH in the posterior pituitary gland

46
Q

what is the bone at the base of the thumb

A

trapezium

47
Q

what are the contents of the cubital fossa (lateral to medial)

A

radial nerve, brachial tendon, brachial artery, median nerve

48
Q

swimmers ear

A

otitis externa

49
Q

triggered by strep infection, common in children and young adults, characteristic drop shape skin lesion

A

guttate psoriasis

50
Q

infection of epididymis causing pain and swelling of testicles. signs of current illness / infection

A

epididymo-orchitis

51
Q

treatment actinic keratoses

A

5-fluorouracil (a cytotoxic agent), NSAIDs, or imiquimod. (for localised lesions - cryotherapy, curettage and surgical excision)

52
Q

Can cause gingival hypertrophy, hypertrichosis and nephrotoxicity

A

cyclosporine

53
Q

nephritic syndrome examples

A

rapidly progressive GN, IgA nephropathy, Alport syndrome

54
Q

nephrotic syndrome examples

A

minimal change disease, membranous GN, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, amyloidosis, diabetic nephropathy

55
Q

examples of GN that can be nephrotic or nephritic

A

diffuse proliferative, membranoproliferative, post-strep

56
Q

loss of knee extension nerve injury

A

femoral nerve

57
Q

tingling and numbness on outer aspect of thigh nerve injury

A

lateral cutaneous (L2 and L3)

58
Q

reduced hip extension and lateral rotation nerve injury

A

inferior gluteal

59
Q

seronegative arthritis examples

A

ankylosing spondylitis
psoriatic arthritis
reactive arthritis
IBD arthritis

60
Q

seropositive arthritis examples

A

rheumatoid arthritis
lupus
scleroderma
vasculitis
sjogren’s

61
Q

What happens to Na levels in response to increased blood pressure

A

(renin/angiotensin system less activated so) increased Na loss

62
Q

Carpal tunnel contents

A

the flexor pollicis longus, the four flexor digitorum superficialis, the four flexor digitorum profundus as well as the median nerve

63
Q

what is takayasu’s arteritis?

A

group of large vessel arteritis causing inflamed blood vessels and stenosis. Diagnosed by angiography. Treatment corticosteroids.

64
Q

what is the difference in the way the anterior and posterior pituitary produce hormones?

A

anterior pituitary produces its own hormones (FSH, LH, ACTH, GH, TSH etc) , under the control of the hypothalamus.
posterior stores hormones (ADH and oxytocin) produced by the hypothalamus

65
Q

whooping cough cause bacteria

A

gram negative coccobacillus bordatela pertussis

66
Q

what is mumps

A

viral infection caused by paramyxovirus usually affecting salivary glands

67
Q

describe garden classification

A

Stage I: incomplete fracture line or impacted fracture
Stage II: complete fracture line, non-displaced
Stage III: complete fracture line, partial displacement
Stage IV: complete fracture line, complete displacement

68
Q

management intracapsular hip fracture in each of younger mobile and older immobile patients

A

younger, mobile - cannulated screws or dynamic hip screw
older, immobile - total or hemiarthroplasty

69
Q

management extracapsular hip fracture

A

internal fixation

70
Q

why do you give calcium gluconate for hyperkaleamia

A

stabilises cardiac membrane

71
Q

Occurs after viral infection, symptoms of thyrotoxicosis

A

subacute granulomatosis (de Quervain’s)

72
Q

scabies treatment

A

permethrin 5%

73
Q

main hormone that causes contractions

A

oxytocin

74
Q

drugs that cause psoriasis flares

A

antimalarials, lithium, beta blockers and interferons

75
Q

most common site of crystals in pseudo gout

A

synovium

76
Q

astigmatism treatment

A

cylindrical lenses

77
Q

acantholytic keratinocytes

A

pemphigus vulgaris

78
Q

what must be performed with Kawasaki disease to monitor heart?

A

echocardiogram due to risk of coronary artery aneurisms

79
Q

where does ADH act?

A

collecting ducts

80
Q

nerve lying medially to thyroid gland, in groove between oesophagus and trachea

A

left recurrent laryngeal nerve (brach of vagus)

81
Q

What muscles does the axillary nerve supply?

A

deltoid and teres minor

82
Q

cauda equina syndrome next step

A

urgent MRI

83
Q

what is first line acne treatment

A

topical retinoid with/out Benzoyl Peroxide OR topical tretinoin and antibiotic

84
Q

2nd line acne treatment

A

any of: topical retinoid with/out Benzoyl Peroxide OR topical tretinoin and antibiotic,
OR Azelaic acid 20% with oral antibiotic
OR oral anti-androgen (females only)

85
Q

3rd line acne treatment

A

oral retinoid

86
Q

which sign makes it likely that the eye is affected in herpes zoster

A

hutchinson’s sign - nose tip involvement

87
Q

first line treatment for plaque psoriasis

A

potent topical corticosteroid + topical vitamin D

88
Q

what muscle disease is giant cell arteritis associated with

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

89
Q

rash most associated with IBD

A

erythema nodosum

90
Q

most common cause of hyopthyroidism in the developing world

A

iodine deficiency

91
Q

high calcium means hyper/hyoparathyroidism?

A

hyperparathyroidism

92
Q

how do SGLT2 inhibitors work

A

make you pee out glucose

93
Q

hydroxychloroquine commonly causes what problems

A

eye

94
Q

what is the effect of aldosterone on sodium and potassium

A

increased sodium reabsorption into blood and increased secretion of potassium into the urine

95
Q

Define the different stages of CKD (1-5)

A

stage 1 - normal, >90 eGFR
stage 2 - mild impairment, 60-89 eGFR
stage 3a - moderate impairment, 45-59 eGFR
stage 3b - 30-44 eGFR
stage 4 - severe impairment, 15-29 eGFR
stage 5 - renal failure <15 eGFR

96
Q

green/ yellow bile vomit

A

volvulus

97
Q

no periods, no breast development, widely spaced nipples

A

Turner syndrome (XO karyotype)

98
Q

what should be screened for before starting biologics

A

TB (quantiferon test)

99
Q

first line treatment minimal change disease

A

prednisolone

100
Q

BPH first line

A

alpha blocker e.g. tamsulosin

101
Q

where does middle thyroid vein drain to

A

internal jugular vein

102
Q

what drug can worsen diabetic control due to anti-insulin effects?

A

corticosteroids

103
Q

what chemical imbalance causes hypocalceamia and makes it treatment resistant

A

hypomagneseamia

104
Q

what are the contents of the cubital fossa from lateral to medial

A

radial nerve, brachial tendon, brachial artery, median nerve

105
Q

in what condition should NSAIDs be avoided in

A

AKI and CKD