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2nd year > All > Flashcards

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1
Q

First line treatment for raynauds

A

CCBs

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2
Q

disease of femoral head comprising of necrosis, collapse, repair and remodelling

A

Perthes’ disease

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3
Q

Recurrent miscarriage seen in ____ syndrome

A

Anti-phospholipid

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4
Q

Fist line treatment for polymyositis rheumatica

A

Oral prednisolone

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5
Q

Methotrexate drug class

A

Folate antagonist

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6
Q

Felty’s syndrome

A

triad of RA, splenomegaly and neutropenia

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7
Q

Screening method for pheochromocytoma

A

plasma metaphrines

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8
Q

Addison’s disease diagnosis

A

9am cortisol

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9
Q

Headache and unilateral vision loss

A

giant cell arteritis

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10
Q

Treatment of gout

A

NSAIDS (if contraindicated colchicine)

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11
Q

Medicine causing hypoglycaemia

A

sulphonylureas (gliclazide)

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12
Q

Skin condition associated with Addisons

A

vitiligo

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13
Q

What is the best initial treatment of an Addisonian crisis?

A

IV fluids and IV steroids

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14
Q

which cells secrete pepsin to digest protein

A

chief cells

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15
Q

Which layer of deep fascia does the vagus nerve travel within in the neck region?

A

Carotid sheath

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16
Q

First line treatment for hyperkalaemia

A

IV calcium glucanoate

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17
Q

Acromegaly diagnosis

A

serum IGF-1

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18
Q

Rare genetic condition where haem synthesis is affected

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

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19
Q

Fall on outstretched hand with dinnerfork deformity

A

Colles / distal radius fracture

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20
Q

Diagnostic test and treatment for BPPV

A

Dix-hallpike manouvre, epley manouvre

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21
Q

Carbimazole mechanism of action

A

Anti-thyroid agent that inhibits thyroid peroxydase

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22
Q

Malignant melanoma treatment

A

Excision biopsy

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23
Q

Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and feeling of deep pressure inside the ear

A

Manière’s disease

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24
Q

Commonest cause of hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroid adenoma

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25
Q

Temporal tenderness, jaw claudication, over 60, vision changes

A

Temporal arteritis (giant cell)

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26
Q

Indicator of dermatomyositis disease activity

A

CK

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27
Q

commonest cause of anovulation in women

A

PCOS

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28
Q

Occurs in the elderly and causes bilateral, proximal muscle pain and stiffness without a rise in CK levels

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica

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29
Q

Scoring system used in RA

A

DAS-28

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30
Q

Which cells are dysfunctional in diabetes

A

Beta cells

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31
Q

Fowl smelling discharge and gradual hearing loss (no pain)

A

Cholesteatoma

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32
Q

Skin condition associated with TB

A

Erythema nosodum

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33
Q

Skin peels with pressure

A

Nikolsky’s sign

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34
Q

Appearance of gout in polarised light microscopy

A

negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals

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35
Q

Most common cause of hyperthyroidism in the UK

A

Grave’s disease

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36
Q

Presents with polyuria, polydipsia and headaches. Typically patients are hypertensive, hyperkalaemic and have metabolic alkalosis

A

hyperaldosteronism

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37
Q

Autoimmune cause of hypothyroidism, positive anti-TPO

A

Hashimo’s thyroiditis

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38
Q

Wichham’s striae (lacy white lines), symmetrically distributed rash, Purple, Pruritic, Papular, Polygonal, Planar (flat topped)

A

Lichen Planus

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39
Q

sulphonylueas side effects

A

hypoglycaemia, weight gain

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40
Q

Test for hypercortisolism (cushings)

A

overnight dexamethasone test

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41
Q

central obesity, proximal myopathy, easy bruising, poor wound healing, abdominal striae, plethoric face, chronic steroid exposure

A

Cushing’s

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42
Q

which skin conditions show Koeber phenomenon - skin disease elevation post injury

A

Psoriasis, vitiligo, lichen planus

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43
Q

Positive posterior sag

A

posterior cruciate ligament injury

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44
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism - refractory hypertension despite multiple anti-hypertensive agents

A

Conn’s syndrome

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45
Q

Medication causing abnormal thyroid function

A

amiodarone

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46
Q

First line treatment for type 1 diabetes

A

basal-bolus insulin

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47
Q

Giant cell arteritis treatment

A

60mg prednisolone

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48
Q

Level of HbA1c to diagnose diabetes

A

6.5% (48mmol/mol)

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49
Q

rare granulomatous inflammation causing eosinophilia and positive p-ANCA

A

Churg-Strauss syndrome (eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis)

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50
Q

Occurs secondary to SLE, causing thromboembolism, thrombocytopenia and mottled lace appearance on legs (lived reticularis)

A

antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)

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51
Q

Single large red patch, followed by generalised pink rash, preceded by viral respiratory illness

A

pityriasis rosea

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52
Q

what drug is given to pregnant women with antiphospholipid syndrome to prevent thrombotic complications

A

Heparin

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53
Q

________________ is diagnosed by low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation but then normalised osmolality after desmopressin is given

A

Cranial diabetes insipidus

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54
Q

What endocrine condition is frozen shoulder associated with

A

Diabetes

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55
Q

autoimmune blistering skin condition which affects the elderly. More common in those with neurological diseases such as Parkinson’s Disease or dementia

A

Bullous pemphigoid

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56
Q

Pulmonary embolism, and other thrombotic complications such as recurrent miscarriage, stroke and myocardial infarction, are associated with ________

A

Anti-Phospholipid Syndrome

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57
Q

(which drug) has a high iodine content and is well recognised to cause thyrotoxicosis (hypothyroidism)

A

Amiodarone

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58
Q

______ has to be screened for and treated first before starting biologics

A

TB

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59
Q

Initial management of DKA involves ___________ in order to correct the hypovolaemia, acidosis, ketonemia and total body hypokalaemia associated with this condition

A

fluid and potassium replacement

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60
Q

(what type of) Retinitis in immunocompromised patient

A

CMV retinitis

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61
Q

Dry mouth, eyes and vagina, parotid gland swelling, positive anti-ro

A

sjogren’s syndrome

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62
Q

_____ causes non-tender goitre due to the action of TSH on the thyroid tissue

A

Hashimoto’s

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63
Q

Mid humeral shaft fracture, nerve most likely to be damaged

A

Radial

64
Q

Scapular winging

A

long thoracic nerve damage

65
Q

What drug should be avoided with patients on methotrexate

A

trimethoprim

65
Q

The Keith-Wagener classification is used to stage ________

A

hypertensive retinopathy

66
Q

DEXA scan results:
>-1
-1 to -2.5
< -2.5

A

Normal,
osteopenia,
osteoporosis

67
Q

Metabolic side effect of B2 receptor antagonists

A

Hypokalaemia

68
Q

cortisol binds to ________ in order to be active

A

Cortisol binding globulin

69
Q

What type of blood pressure activates the renin-angiotensin system

A

Low

70
Q

what is released in response to hypercalceamia

A

Calcitonin

71
Q

What gives the most accurate measurement of GFR

A

Inulin

72
Q

Where is most sodium reabsorbed

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

73
Q

What hormone increases in response to increased extra cellular fluid volume

A

ANP

74
Q

What electrolyte imbalance is seen in primary hypoparathyroidism

A

Hypocalceamia

75
Q

Explain what happens in response to reduced blood pressure in terms of renin and GFR

A
  • increased renin
  • this increases angiotensin II production (via RAAS)
  • this constricts efferent artériole
    -increases hydrostatic pressure to maintain GFR
76
Q

Acetazolamide drug class

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

77
Q

PCOS treatment

A

Combined oral contraceptive pill

78
Q

Most common cause of Cushing syndrome

A

Iatrogenic

79
Q

What is the action of prostaglandins on afferent arteriole

A

Dilation

80
Q

When is the supraspinatous muscle responsive

A

First 20 degrees of shoulder abduction

81
Q

Most likely to be damaged with mid shaft humeral fracture

A

Radial nerve

82
Q

What is mastoiditis

A

Infection of mastoid bone (behind ear)

83
Q

Describe Rinne’s test

A

place tuning fork first behind ear then in front

84
Q

What type of hearing loss does Rinne’s test check for

A

Air conduction - Conductive

85
Q

Describe Weber’s test

A

Place tuning fork in middle of forehead - ask where it is loudest

86
Q

What type of hearing loss does Weber’s test check for

A

Bone conduction - Sensorineural (in conductive it is heard in bad ear)

87
Q

What is conductive hearing loss

A

Loss of air conduction - e.g. otitis external + media, cholesteatoma etc - better in loud environment

88
Q

What is sensorineural hearing loss

A

Loss of neural transmission (air and bone) e.g. congenital, age related, noise induced, autoimmune - worse in loud environment

89
Q

What does Froment’s sign assess?

A

Ulnar nerve palsy
(piece of paper between thumb and index finger)

90
Q

What does Phalen’s test assess?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome
(maximum wrist flexion)

91
Q

What does Tinel’s sign test for?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome
(tap median nerve)

92
Q

What is a boxer fracture?

A

Pinky fracture (fifth metacarpal)

93
Q

What nerve is likely to be damaged with medial epicondyle fracture?

A

ulnar

94
Q

What medication should be prescribed with methotrexate

A

Folic acid

95
Q

what is the normal angle between the femoral head and shaft

A

130 degrees

96
Q

Which hormone suppresses prolactin?

A

Dopamine

97
Q

RAsh, fever, eosinophilia, also on PPI

A

acute interstitial nephritis

98
Q

Most common site of testicular cancer metastasis

A

Para aortic

99
Q

What must be suspected after any eye surgery?

A

bacterial endophthalmitis

100
Q

Early skin cancer, red scaly patch

A

Bowen’s disease (squamous cell carcinoma in situ)

101
Q

Temporary red scaly rash usually affecting children and young adults

A

Pityriasis rosea

102
Q

Which joints are Bouchard’s and Heberden’s nodes?

A

B - PIP, H - DIP

103
Q

High urine osmolarity after water deprivation test

A

Primary polydipsia

104
Q

low urine osmolarity after water deprivation, high after desmopressin

A

Cranial diabetes insipidus

105
Q

low urine osmolarity after water deprivation and after desmopressin

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

106
Q

____ hyperthyroidism is caused by thyroid issues, ____ hyperthyroidism is caused by hypothalamus/pituitary stimulating the thyroid gland to overproduce hormones

A

primary, secondary

107
Q

First line hyperthyroidism treatment

A

Carmibazole

108
Q

can present on x-ray with regional osteopenia, focal cortical loss and periosteal changes

A

osteomyelitis

109
Q

anti-ds-DNA

A

SLE

110
Q

what syndrome commonly occurs in subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

SIADH

111
Q

Diagnostic investigation tubulointerstitial nephritis

A

kidney biopsy

112
Q

tetralogy of fallot

A

right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, right sided outflow obstruction, overriding aorta

113
Q

Aldosterone is low/high in Addisons, ACTH is low/high

A

low, high

114
Q

crescent formation is the histopathological hallmark of ____ disease

A

anti-GBM (good pastures)

115
Q

Horner’s syndrome triad

A

miosis, ptosis, anhydrosis

116
Q

diagnostic test for bladder cancer

A

cystoscopy

117
Q

Polyarteritis nodosa is associated with hepatitis __

A

B

118
Q

____ inhibits growth hormone release from anterior pituitary

A

cortisol

119
Q

______ block Na/Cl transport channels in the distal convoluted tubule to prevent sodium reabsorption.

A

thiazide diuretics

120
Q

What are the HbA1c targets for
- new type 2 diabetics
- patients requiring more than one anti diabetic medication

A
  • 48
  • 53 mmol/mol
121
Q

____ is added once patients are settled on metformin if they have cardiovascular disease or heart failure

A

SGLT-2 inhibitor

122
Q

Second-line treatment for type 2 diabetes

A

add a sulfonylurea, pioglitazone, DPP-4 inhibitor or SGLT-2 inhibitor.

123
Q

_____ is found on the anterior nasal septum and is an anastomosis of 5 arteries: anterior ethmoidal artery, posterior ethmoidal artery, sphenopalatine artery, greater palatine artery, and the septal branch of the superior labial artery.

A

littles area

124
Q

The_____ reflex brings near objects into focus through thickening, pupillary constriction and eye convergence

A

accommodation

125
Q

What is the corneal reflex

A

bilateral eye blinking in response to unilateral eye stimulation

126
Q

Most common cause of Addison’s disease

A

autoimmune destruction

127
Q

what are renal stones commonly composed of

A

calcium oxalate

128
Q

neuropathy of the arm caused by injury to the upper group of the brachial plexus

A

erbs palsy

129
Q

what meds cause osteonecrosis of the jaw

A

bisphosphonates

130
Q

Patients with ______ are advised to adopt a diet which has
* Low protein
* Low phosphate
* Low sodium
* Low potassium

A

renal failure

131
Q

____ is released due to reduced renal perfusion

A

Renin

132
Q

What signals do leptin and ghrelin stimulate

A

fullness, and hunger

133
Q

_____ is the active form of vitamin D, synthesised in the kidney. It is the calcium-binding protein found in the cytoplasm

A

calcitriol

134
Q

first line hypertension treatment in CKD

A

ACE inhibitors

135
Q

Vitamin ____ deficiency causes rickets

A

D

136
Q

Fibromuscular dysplasia treatment

A

ballon angioplasty

137
Q

Hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia and weight loss can indicate _______

A

Addison’s disease

138
Q

A patient develops foot drop following a fibular neck fracture - ______ nerve

A

common perineal nerve

139
Q

________ increases filtration fraction, through vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus to preserve GFR

A

angiotensin II

140
Q

______ and ______ are innervated by superior gluteal nerve

A

gluteus medius and minimus

141
Q

_______ supplies the anterior compartment of the lower leg

A

deep perineal nerve

142
Q

(which antibiotic medication) causes AKI by causing renal cell apoptosis

A

Gentamicin

143
Q

What are the DAMN drugs? (cause nephrotoxicity)

A

Diuretics, ACE-inhibitors + ARBs, Metformin, NSAIDS

144
Q

TSH: Low, T4: Low
TSH: High, T4: Low

A

secondary hypothyroidism
primary hypothyroidism

145
Q

where do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors work?

A

proximal and distal convoluted tubule

146
Q

what type of renal cancer is mahogany brown with central stellate scar

A

oncocytoma

147
Q

what transporter do thiazide diuretics block

A

Na/Cl co-transporter

148
Q

Most common bacterial cause of leg ulcers

A

strep pyrogens

149
Q

first line drug for prolactinomas

A

Cabergoline (dopamine antagonist)

150
Q

what test should be done if a patient has recurrent candiditis

A

diabetes

151
Q

Drug metabolism:
Phase 1: oxidation, reduction and _____. Usually through cyp450. ______ reactions are almost always due to phase 1
Phase 2: _____ to make drug water soluble and enables excretion of drug in urine/bile

A

hydrolysis, adverse drug
conjugation

152
Q

Internal pudendal and branches from external iliac artery supply the ______. Deep arteries of the penis and branches of the internal pudendal artery (which comes from the internal iliac artery) supply the _____

A

scrotum, penis

153
Q

ADPKD chromosome(s)

A

type 1 on 16
type 2 on 4

154
Q

ARPKD chromosome

A

6

2nd year (5 decks)

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