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DSA > Tactics Quizlet > Flashcards

Tactics Quizlet Flashcards

1
Q

does a leader have to
select an alternate patrol
when establishing a
patrol base?

A

Yes

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2
Q 
True or False: rally points are used in
the battlefield to
navigate, coordinate,
manage units when
maneuvering
A

True

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3
Q

What does LOA stand

for?

A

Limit of Advance

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4
Q 
True or False: when occupying, the
platoon leader and
another designated
leader inspect and adjust
thru patrol base in a
clockwise manner
adjusting the perimeter
as necessary
A

False

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5
Q

What are the three minor

terrain features

A

Draw, Cliff, Spur

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6
Q

When reacting to
contact, what is the first
thing you do upon
contact

A

Return fire, seek cover, report 3D’s

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7
Q

What do the 3 D’s stand

for when reacting to Contact?

A

Distance, Description, Direction

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8
Q

What does LOA stand

for?

A

Limit Of Advance

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9
Q

What does ACE report

stand for?

A

Ammunitions, Casualties, Equipment

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10
Q

What configuration can
you empty the M249
automatic weapon from?

A

All of the Above

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11
Q 
True or False: The M249 is a 5.56mm
gas operated air cooled
fully automatic machine
gun which fires from the
open bolt position and is
belt or magazine fed
A

True

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12
Q 
True or False: The M249 is a 5.56mm ,
gas operated, air cooled,
fully automatic machine
gun, which fires from the
closed bolt position,
shoulder fired weapon.
A

False

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13
Q 
What is the responsibility
of the trail element in a
squad column fire team
wedge when crossing
LDA?
A

Establish near side security

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14
Q

What are the three individual movement

techniques?

A

High crawl, low crawl, 3 to 5 second rush

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15
Q

What does IMT stand

for?

A

Individual Movement Techniques

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16
Q 
How many meters in
between fire teams
should there be in a
wedge during traveling
over watch?
A

50 meters

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17
Q 
True or False: During successive
bounding, trail squad
advances to become
abreast to the leading
squad.
A

True

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18
Q

What type of ammunition
is used for an M249
squad automatic
weapon?

A

5.56 link

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19
Q

Who usually set a near

security?

A

Trail team

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20
Q

Where does the Soldier
grab the weapon when
high crawling?

A

Cradled in the arms.

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21
Q

What are the three

safeties for US Army hand grenades?

A

Pin, Spoon, Clip

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22
Q

What round does the

M320 fire?

A

40 mm

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23
Q

What is the first thing
you should do when
clearing the M320?

A

Attempt to place selector lever on safe.

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24
Q

What should all
personnel yell when
receiving indirect fire?

A

Incoming

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25
Q

What does SAW stand
for in reference to the
M249 machine gun

A

Semi Automatic Weapon

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26
Q

True or False: The M320 is a breach
loaded weapon that can
only be fired
independently?

A

False

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27
Q

What are the two types
of holds for the lensatic
compass?

A

compass to cheek and centerhold

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28
Q

What is the correct way

to read a map?

A

RIght and up

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29
Q

What does ORP stand

for?

A

Objective Rally point

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30
Q

How should the “T” in a
SALUTE report be
formatted?

A

Date, Time, Group

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31
Q

What acronym
represents immediate
action for M240B
machine gun?

A

POPS

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32
Q

What does POPS stand
for in reference to
immediate action on a
M240B?

A

Pull
Observe
Push
Safe

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33
Q

What caliber is the

M240B machine gun?

A

7.62mm

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34
Q

True or False: Prior to charging the
M240B, the weapon
must be on fire.

A

True

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35
Q 
When performing a
functions check on the
M240B, after having
charged the weapon
and placed on safe,
squeeze the trigger. The
bolt should?
A

should not fire.

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36
Q

When disassembling the

M240B..

A

The bolt must be to the forward position.

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37
Q

True or False: When disassembling the
M240B, the bolt must be
to the forward position.

A

True

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38
Q

How many groups does
the M240B have during
disassembly?

A

8

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39
Q

What is Battle Drill 1?

A

React to Direct Fire Contact

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40
Q

True or False: The back azimuth of 181

degrees is 1.

A

True

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41
Q

What type of methods
are used to bypass a
Small Open Danger
Area?

A

Contour and Detour Bypass

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42
Q

What does black
represent on a military
map?

A

Manmade features

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43
Q

What is the back azimuth

of 136 degrees?

A

316 degrees

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44
Q

How far is a near side
rally point and far side
rally point established?

A

300 meters

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45
Q

At what degrees is a

detour bypass method conduced?

A

90 degrees

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46
Q 
What is the minimum
distance an element
must be from an open
danger area during
contour and detour
bypass method?
A

25 meters

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47
Q

How far must a Soldier
throw an M67 hand
grenade?

A

35 meters

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48
Q

What is the kill radius of
most fragmentation
grendes?

A

10-15 meters

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49
Q 
What is the distance
from the squad leader to
each fire team when
using traveling
movement technique?
A

20 meters

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50
Q 
What is the appropriate
distance between
Soldiers moving in a
squad column fire team
wedge?
A

10 meters

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51
Q

Who walks between fire
teams during squad
column fire team
wedge?

A

Squad leader, RTO, Machine Gun team

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52
Q

What is the ratio US
Forces use to gauge
enemy forces?

A

3:1

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53
Q 
When maneuvering
teams, what key factors
does the squad leader
want to avoid when in
open terrain?
A

Using smoke to mask the element due to

weather considerations

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54
Q

Where is the squad
leader placed in his
squad?

A

Wherever he can best control the squad

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55
Q

How far does the squad
move once contact has
been broken?

A

300 meters or major terrain feature

56
Q

How many personnel are

in a traditional squad?

A

9

57
Q

What does FOOM stand

for?

A

Formation Order Of Movement

58
Q

What are examples of

Covered position?

A

Large trees, rocks, depressions

59
Q

What is the determining
factor of whether an
open area is large or
small?

A

Time

60
Q

What technique is used
to cross a large open
danger area?

A

Bounding overwatch

61
Q

What are the three
movement techniques
when moving a squad?

A

Traveling, Traveling Overwatch, Bounding

Overwatch

62
Q

What is Traveling in
reference to squad
movement techniques?

A

it is used when enemy contact is not likely

but speed is necessary.

63
Q

What is Traveling
Overwatch in reference
to squad movement
techniques?

A

it is used when enemy contact is possible

64
Q

What is Bounding
Overwatch in reference
to squad movement
techniques

A

it is used when enemy contact is likely, or

when crossing a danger area

65
Q

What is LDA stand for?

A

Linear Danger area

66
Q

True or False: Detour Bypass is the
most preferred over
Contour.

A

False

67
Q

true or False: Contour is the most
preferred over Detour
Bypass.

A

True

68
Q

What are the two types

of Bounding Overwatch?

A

Successive or alternating

69
Q

Which is the preferred
method of Bounding
overwatch

A

Successive

70
Q

When bounding, the
element does not
exceed ……

A

150 meters

71
Q

What are the
characteristic of Rally
Points?

A

easy to recognize on the ground, have
cover and concealment, Be away from
natural lines of drift, Be defendable for
short periods.

72
Q

What are the
characteristics of Patrol
Base?

A 
Easily Defendable
Away from natural lines of drift
Away from avenues of approach
Provides no tactical value to the enemy
Provides cover and concealment
Ground and air
Near water source
73
Q

What does EAAPP stand

for?

A 
Easily Defendable
Away from natural lines of drift
Away from avenues of approach
Provides no tactical value to the enemy
Provides cover and concealment
74
Q

What does S in SALUTE

stand for?

A

Size

75
Q

What does A in SALUTE

stand for?

A

Activity

76
Q

What does L in SALUTE

stand for?

A

Location

77
Q

What does U in SALUTE

stand for?

A

Unit or Uniform

78
Q

What does T in SALUTE

stand for?

A

Time

79
Q

What does E in SALUTE

stand for?

A

Equipment

80
Q

What is an OPORD?

A

a directive issued by a leader to his
subordinates in order to effect the
coordinated execution of specific
operation

81
Q

How many paragraphs in

an OPORD?

A

5

82
Q

What is used to explain

an OPORD?

A

a terrain model or a sketch along with a

map.

83
Q

True of False: In OPORD, when
possible, give the order
while observing the
objective?

A

True

84
Q

What is paragraph 1 of

the OPORD?

A

SITUATION

85
Q

What are the four
sections of Situation in
an OPORD?

A

Enemy Forces, Friendly Forces,
attachments and detachments, terrain and
weather analysis

86
Q 
What three things do you
include of the enemy
when referring to Enemy
Forces of Situation in
OPORD's?
A

composition, disposition, strength

87
Q

What three things do you
include when referring
to Friendly Forces of
Situation in OPORD’s?

A

the mission, commanders intent, concept

of operation for HQ’s, location of units

88
Q

What are the five
paragraphs of an
OPORD?

A 
SITUATION
MISSION
EXECUTION
ADMINISTRATION/LOGISTICS
(SUSTAINMENT)
COMMAND AND SIGNAL
89
Q

What is paragraph two of

an OPORD?

A

MISSION

90
Q

Is there subparagraph’s
in Paragraph 2, Mission
statement of an
OPORD?

A

No

91
Q

What are the 5 W’s of the
MISSION statement of
OPORD?

A 
WHO
WHAT
WHEN
WHERE
WHY
92
Q

in the 5 W’s of the
mission statement, which
two are the most
important?

A

WHAT ( Task) AND WHY ( Purpose)

93
Q

What is paragraph 3 of

an OPORD?

A

EXECUTION

94
Q

What is paragraph 4 of

an OPORD?

A

ADMINISTRATION/LOGISTICS

SUSTAINMENT

95
Q

What is TROOP

LEADING PROCEDURE?

A

the process a leader goes thru to prepare

his unit to accomplish a tactical mission.

96
Q 
After the squad leader
reacts to Direct Fire
Contact, what choices
does he have to
determine from?
A

SQUAD ATTACK/ BATTLE DRILL 2A
BREAK CONTACT/ BATTLE DRILL 3
PLT SUPPORT BY FIRE

97
Q

What is Battle Drill 2A?

A

Conduct a squad Assault

98
Q

What is Battle Drill 3?

A

Break Contact

99
Q

What is Battle Drill 9?

A

React to Indirect Fire?

100
Q

What statement do you
make when transmitting
a MEDEVAC Request?

A

I have a MEDEVAC Request Over

101
Q

What is LINE 1 of a

MEDEVAC Request?

A

Location of Pickup Site

102
Q

What is LINE 2 of a

MEDEVAC Request?

A

Radio Frequency, Call Sign, Suffix

103
Q

What is LINE 3 of a

MEDEVAC Request?

A

Number of Patients by Precedence

104
Q

What is LINE 4 of a

MEDEVAC Request?

A

Special Equipment Required

105
Q

What is LINE 5 of a

MEDEVAC Request?

A

Number of Patients By Type

106
Q

What is LINE 6 of a

MEDEVAC Request?

A

Security of Pickup Site (Wartime)
Number and Type of Wound, Injury, or
Illness ( Peacetime)

107
Q

What is LINE 7 of a

MEDEVAC Request?

A

Method of Marking pickup Site

108
Q

What is LINE 8 of a

MEDEVAC Request?

A

Patient Nationality and Status

109
Q

What is LINE 9 of a MEDEVAC Request?

A

NBC Contamination (Wartime) Terrain Description ( Peacetime)

110
Q 
Which Lines of a
MEDEVAC Request may
you submit immediately
before submitting the
rest to expedite a
MEDEVAC enroute?
A

1 thru 5

111
Q

What two types of scales
are on the face of a
Lensatic Compass?

A

degrees and mils

112
Q

How many mils are on a

lensatic compass?

A

6200

113
Q

What color depicts mils

on a lensatic compass?

A

Black around the outside of the face

114
Q

How many degrees are

on a lensatic compass?

A

360

115
Q

What color depicts
degrees on a lensatic
compass?

A

red around the face inside of the mils

116
Q 
True or False: In the marginal date is
the declination diagram,
which helps you
calculate the difference
between grid north, true
north, magnetic north.
A

True

117
Q

What is Limit of

Advance(LOA)?

A

An easily recognized terrain feature
beyond which attacking elements will not
advance

118
Q 
To convert a grid
azimuth into a magnetic
azimuth for use with with
a lensatic compass, What
section of a map do you
refer to to get the
conversion?
A

Declination Diagram

119
Q

How do you get an
accurate/average pace
count for land
navigation?

A

Count each time your left foot strikes the
ground for up to 100 meters at a normal
stride.

120
Q

Line 1 of MEDEVAC

requires the following:

A

Encrypt Grid coordinates

121
Q

Line 2 of MEDEVAC

requires the following:

A

Radio Frequency, Call sign

122
Q

Line 3 of MEDEVAC

requires the following:

A 
A is Urgent
B is Urgent Surgical
C is Priority
D is Routine
E is Convenience
123
Q

Line 4 of MEDEVAC

requires the following:

A 
A= None
B = Hoist
C= Extraction Equipment
D= Ventilator
124
Q

Line 5 of MEDEVAC

requires the following:

A

L plus the number of patients L is for Litter
A plus the number of patients A is for
Ambulatory

125
Q

Line 6 of MEDEVAC

requires the following:

A 
N= No Enemies in area
P= Possible Enemies in area
E= Enemies in area
X= Enemies in area
126
Q

Line 7 of MEDEVAC

requires the following:

A 
A= Panels
B= Pyrotechnic Signal
C= Smoke Signal
D= None
E= Other
127
Q

Line 8 of MEDEVAC

requires the following:

A 
A= US Military
B= US Civilian
C= Non US Military
D= Non US Civilian
E= EPW
128
Q

Line 9 of MEDEVAC

requires the following:

A 
N= Nuclear
B= Biological
C= Chemical
129
Q 
True or False: The M240B is a 7.62mm,
gas operated, air cooled,
automatic machine gun
which fires from the
open bolt position and is
belt fed.
A

True (for M240B)

130
Q

Does TLP have to follow

in order?

A

No ( TLP)

131
Q

How many step are there
in Troop Leading
Procedures?

A

8

132
Q

What FM’s cover Troop

Leading Procedures?

A

FM 3-21.8
FM 3-21.10
FM 5-0

133
Q

What are the 8 steps of
Troop Leading
Procedures?

A 
Receive the Mission.
Issue a Warning Order.
Make a tentative Plan
Initiate a Movement
Reconnoiter
Complete the Plan
Issue the complete Order
Supervise
134
Q

True or False: Eyes on the Enemy is the

Best RECON.

A

True

135
Q

What are man made

LDA’s?

A 
Roads
Vehicles
Foot Trails
Railroad Tracks
Clear cut areas

DSA (4 decks)

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