Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Policies > Tactics Manual > Flashcards

Tactics Manual Flashcards

1
Q

Command must consider the most critical direction and avenues of fire extension, plus the estimated speed of fire progression, particularly as they affect: (LCSRE)

A
  • Level of risk to firefighters
  • Confinement/control efforts
  • Spaces (concealed)
  • Rescue profile
  • Exposures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The variables relating to OFFENSIVE attack operations involve? (LSS)

A
  • Location/position of attack
  • Size of attack
  • required Support for the attack until
    fire control is achieved
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This benchmark indicates water is being applied to the main body of the fire and has not been controlled

A

Water on the Fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

It’s benchmark indicates the main body of fire has been extinguished in a units assigned geographic work area, but the seven sides of the fire have not been checked for any fire extension

A

Fire Knocked Down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This benchmark will be transmitted when the main body of fire has been extinguished, and all seven sides of the fire have been confirmed as having no fire extension and an assigned units operational area

A

Fire Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An engine that makes a direct connection from a hydrant via the intake valve (Keystone) and then pumps water to the forward engine through the large diameter discharge

A

Key Pumper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An engine, which is located on the supply line between the key pumper and the forward engine. The apparatus will receive water into their 5 inch intake and then pump it from their large diameter discharge.

A

Relay Engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An evolution with an engine pumping to another engine, or aerial apparatus from a pressurized discharge

A

Tandem Pumping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A supporting engine connects a 3-inch line to the forward engines auxiliary 2 1/2 inch inlet and the other end to a 2 1/2 inch discharge. The engineer then pumps his/her water to the forward engine

A

Tank Transfer Evolution

1,000-1,500 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many GPM is a “significant working fire”?

A

400 GPM or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Categories in which 89% of mayday incidents are resolved by

A
  • Self rescue
  • Own crew members
  • Another company in same hazard zone
  • Combination of all three above
    (11% by RIT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Definition of high-rise

A

Six or more floors and/or
75 feet above grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Four basic signs of smoke quality

A

V V D C

  • Volume (tells very little)
  • Velocity (#1 sign of flashover)
    • Laminar pushed by volume, not
      heat
  • Density (smoke is fuel)
  • Color (stage of heating & helps find location)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Interior walls of gypsum board or drywall on water metal studs that extend from floor-to-floor or floor-to-roof, INCLUDING CONCEALED AND INTERSTITIAL SPACES . They are designed to subdivide portions of the building. They are not structurally self-sufficient.

A
  • Fire barriers

Subdivide, including concealed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Interior walls of gypsum board or drywall on wood or metal studs designed to further compartmentalize areas of a structure. They are NOT required to extend concealed spaces.

A

Fire partitions

Compartmentalize
Not required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Roofs with a change in slope: the slope is called the ______.

A

Pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Low, medium to high, and extreme slopes

A
  • Low 1/12 to 5/12, or up to 25 degrees
  • Medium to high slopes, 6/12 to 14/12, or from 25 to 50 degrees
  • Extreme slopes exceeded 15/12 or 55 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What types of roofs require a roof ladder to safely work on?

A
  • Medium to high slope roofs with a
    pitch greater than 12/12 or 45
    degrees
  • Metal or tile roofs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A rectangular unit of solar cells encased in a frame usually 5 1/2 ft x 3 1/2 ft which possess electrical capacity that can injure personnel

A

Modules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A series of modules connected in a row that captured solar energy in the form of direct current (DC) electricity

A

Solar panels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Three conditions inside of stairwell the incident commander must be alerted to

A
  1. Locked stairwell doors that allow civilians to exit into the stairwell will not allow floor re-entry
  2. Civilians are exiting the stairwell firefighters are ascending.
  3. If there is smoke inside a stairwell.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Four types of smoke detectors

A
  • Thermal sensors (fire)
  • Ionization sensors (low smoke)
  • Photoelectric centers (identify smoke)
  • Rate of rise sensors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

This collapse occurs when one or more walls have failed, and the other end of the floor is still attached to only one bearing wall. Voids will be sporadic throughout the debris.

A

Cantilever collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In the hot zone, the IC uses the rescue order. The rescue order is:

(ELRE)

A
  1. the most Endangered
  2. the Largest group.
  3. Remainder of the fire area
  4. Exposures

ELRE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The _____ will drive the IC’s search priorities

A

Occupancy type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Rescue Order versus Search Priority

A

ELRE

1) most Endangered
2) Largest group
3) Remainder of fire area/structure
4) Exposures

Vs

FATR (fatter building - high rise)

  • Fire floor
  • floor Above the fire
  • Top floor
  • Remaining floors starting with the
    second to the top working down
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The order of search priority is:

A
  • Fire floor
  • floor Above the fire
  • Top floor
  • Remaining floors starting with the second to the top working down

FATR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Wind speeds for Natural versus Mechanical ventilation

A
  • Over 6 to 8 mph, natural ventilation
  • Below 6 to 8 mph, mechanical ventilation (PPV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Four stages of fire development

A
  • Incipient
  • Growth
    (Flashover)
  • Fully developed
  • Decay
    (Appears vent limited ->air
    introduced -> fully developed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Heat Release Rate (HRR) is a key measure of ____ whereas heat flux is ____

A
  • How QUICKLY objects generate heat to surrounding objects (kW or MW)
  • AMOUNT of heat transferred per unit area (kW)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The first and second step firefighters can take to reduce the threat of being injured or killed in a flow path?

A

1) understanding the concept of
controlling flow path
2) proper size up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When Reading Smoke, what are the three steps to smoke assessment?

A

1) Compare VVDC
2) consider Building and Weather
influences
3) gauge the Rate of Change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Concerning carcinogens, the areas of highest absorption include: (4)

A
  • Forehead
  • Neck
  • Back
  • Groin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Airborne carcinogens will remain at high levels, even _____ minutes after fire extinguishment

A

45 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Characteristics of CO

A
  • .96 vapor density
  • Monitored 3 to 5 feet off the ground
  • Hemoglobin affinity 200 times
    greater than oxygen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hydrogen cyanide is ___ times more toxic than CO

A

35 times
(Breathed a lot of HCN at FS 35)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Extra consideration should be given before committing ____ into an extremely dangerous structure

A

More than 100 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A wind driven fire is a severe fire. Sustained winds of _____, and/or gusts of ____ should be used as key indicators for a Wind Driven Fire, ALTHOUGH it is possible with lower speeds.

A
  • 20 mph or more
  • 30 mph or more
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

There are ___ types of firewalls and they are ____.

A
  • 3
  • Fire Walls
  • Fire Barriers
  • Fire Partitions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Fire ____ are non-combustible masonry walls that extend continuously from the base of a building and terminate above the roof. Designed as freestanding walls that will stand the collapse of structure on either side.

A

Walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

This wall is a freestanding, non-load bearing wall that extends above the roofline for ____ feet.

These walls are Dangerously Unstable.

A

Parapet

  • Several
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

This LOAD BEARING wall is common to TWO adjoining buildings or rooms and forms the boundary between them. They are very thick walls and support floors and roofs of both structures. The failure of this wall will usually lead to a building collapse.

A

Party Walls

(Party of two)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Four basic types of trusses
(Tactics Manual)

A
  • Lightweight wood truss (fail as little
    as 5 minutes)
  • Parallel chord truss (fail ALMOST NO
    warning)
  • Bowstring truss (collapse downward
    and outward, hazardous inside and
    outside)
  • Open Web Steel bar joist trusses (fail
    in as little as 10 minutes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A ____ is a row of shops open to the public that share a common roof system, that can be ______ stories

A
  • Strip Center
  • 1-3 stories
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Tactical concerns for attic spaces (4)

A
  • For a working fire, it is vital to quickly
    access the attic and check for fire
    extension
  • Assume the attic is involved until
    proven otherwise
  • Hole to the attic, 4’ x 4’ minimum
  • Vertical voids and pipe chases are
    the Principal Routes for fire
    extension into the attic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Key pumper distances: (2)

A

unless hydrant is within 300 ft of scene - use key pumper (at fire)

Hydrant is greater than 200 ft from engine - key pumper (FDC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The standpipe has pressurized air in MOST of the piping that runs from a valve to the hose outlets, but it’s water in the lesser piping between the water supply and the valve. To activate the system, firefighters connect hoses which sends a signal to an alarm panel.

A
  • semi-automatic dry standpipe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Phase I elevator recall occurs when a smoke alarm is activated at _____ or ____.

A
  • Any elevator lobby
  • In the elevator machinery room
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Three general basement and sublevel types

A
  • No exterior access
  • Limited exterior access (windows)
  • Exterior access (1 or more doors)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Three most common types of wall collapse.

A
  • Inward/Outward
  • Curtain fall collapse
  • 90° angle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Five main types of floor collapse

A
  • Lean-to collapse
  • V-shaped collapse
  • Pancake collapse
  • Cantilever collapse (sporadic voids)
  • A-frame collapse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Concerning electrical systems, the wood utility pole is usually ____ feet, tall and buried _____ feet deep, carrying ____ volts

A
  • 40 ft
  • 6 ft
  • 7,200 V
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Circuits a smaller electrical network with a larger system. Circuits are rated by _____. These are protected by circuit breakers that will open or trip to prevent too much electrical flow into the system. A tripped circuit breaker can indicate ____, ____ or ____ and are excellent clues.

A
  • Amps or amperes
  • fire
  • electrical overload
  • mechanical malfunction of the circuit
    itself
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Voltage is the measure of _____in a system, whereas current (amps) is the measure of ____

A
  • electrical pressure
  • electrical volume or flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Place engines as close to what’s burning at safely possible is what rule?

A

30 ft rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Engines should be prepared to quickly deploy a horizontal standpipe in situations were ____ of hose will not reach the fire

A

200 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The IC will transmit an “Under Control” report to Dispatch when which tactical priorities are complete

A
  • “Fire control” (extinguishment and 7
    sides clear with no extension)
  • Primary and secondary all clears
  • No other resources required to
    complete remaining tactical priorities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Three conditions that may warrant a quick hit

A
  • Fire companies have not yet made entry
  • Significant fire or smoke venting from an opening and/or significant heat will endanger SAFD
  • Delay in attacking fire, such as forcible entry or fire on upper floors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A Manual Lay is where a firefighter pulls a 5-inch landline from the forward engine to a nearby hydrant WITHIN _____ and makes a direct connect

A

200 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

This pumping is when a supplied engine can share its water with another apparatus. This is done by connecting Intake to Intake.

A

Dual pumping (dual intakes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Level One for responding engines is _____ from the fire scene at a hydrant

A

One block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A significant working fire (a fire that will require ____ GPM or more) will almost always require a key pumper unless a hydrant is within ____ feet of the scene.

A
  • 400 gpm
  • 300 ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Command is ultimately responsible for managing attack positions in either offensive or defensive locations. The key to effective attack positioning is _____.

A

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When assigning an engine company to deploy an operating hand line in the hot zone, and is very important for the IC to specify ______ and _____.

A
  • What to do with the units apparatus
  • Where their water supply comes from
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The electronic pressure governor will automatically return the engine to idle if there is an inlet pressure drop of ____within a _____ period

A
  • 30 psi or MORE
  • 3 second
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The solution to a successful water shuttle operation is ____ and ____.

A
  • INITIAL portable water tank set up location
  • Minimizing the IDLE time of water shuttling apparatus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The proper INITIAL set up of water supply operations is essential for two reasons:

A

1) water supply requirements are most critical during the FIRST FEW MINUTES of the attack
2) It is difficult or impossible to build on or maneuver around a POOR SET UP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Three main components to a water shuttle operation

A

1) dump site (scene)
2) travel TIME
3) fill site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

_____ can be the biggest factor in producing adequate fire flows concerning shuttle operations

A

Travel time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Fill sites should be selected in the following order:

A

1) hydrants closest to the scene
2) WELL PUMPING stations closest to the scene
3) DRAFTING location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The most urgent reason for requesting a greater alarm is for the purpose of

A

Covering life safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

(Rescue) When encountering larger, high density, compartmentalized, multi-unit/room, residential structures, it is more effective to implement a:

A

“Protect in place” life safety operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

______ rather than _____ is the critical element during a secondary search

A
  • Thoroughness
  • Time

(Should be completed by different companies other than those that completed primary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Until the “Fire Knocked Down” benchmark has been achieved and transmitted, the entire response team’s objective is to _____while commands primary objective is to ___

A
  • (Response team)
    Not to supply the fire with any additional air (oxygen)
  • (Command)
    coordinate an overwhelming force of the proper water application
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

For hydraulic ventilation, fog and smoothbore nozzles can be manipulated to produce water streams that create ____ to ____ CFM

A

10,000 to 18,000 CFM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The most likely assignments for On Deck companies are (4)

A

1) reinforce a position within an assigned D/G
2) crew relief within an assigned D/G
3) any other tactical position assigned by the IC
4) deploy as a RIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

(Occupant Services)
As occupants arrive, identify: (5)

A
  • Name
  • Telephone number
  • Number of occupants
  • Any emergency shelter needs
  • salvage priorities, including
    important medication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Demobilization of the Occupant Services will occur when occupants have ____ and ____.

A
  • Shelter or other arrangements secured
  • Transportation has been arranged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The key to successful SALVAGE is to distinguish between ____ and ____

A
  • Excessive damage
  • Damage that is required to reduce
    potential fire damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Concerning recycling, if conditions permit, a companies work cycle could be ____ air cylinders

A

Up to 2 to 3 air cylinders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

______ and ______ are responsible for monitoring the welfare of their personnel at all times and determining if D/G recycling or rehab is appropriate

A
  • DGS
  • Company Officers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

If the OHD is down, cut an opening in the door. Consider vertical cuts, approximately _____ from the tracks and _____ across the top.

A
  • 6 inches
  • Horizontally
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The 4 high-rise locations

A
  • Base (Level 2)
  • On deck (Lobby)
  • Staging (2 below fire)
  • Rehab (2 below fire)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Concerning a high-rise fire and quick hit, an aerial stream should be able to hit fire ___

A
  • Up to the 12th - 15th floors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The 4 pre-assignments for a high-rise incident:

A
  • Attack (1E & 1L)
  • Lobby control (2nd Eng)
  • Water supply manager (1st 2 engine engineers)
  • Ventilation group (2nd Truck)

LAW-V pre-assignments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

There are two conditions which will DICTATE the use of elevators in Phase II operations in a high-rise incident:

A

1) Working Fire – do not use an elevator bank that serves the fire floor UNLESS authorized by IC

2) Nothing Showing – personal may use elevators to ascend to 2 floors below the suspected fire floor and then walk up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

This stage of the fire is the stage immediately after ignition, and includes factors such as:

  • Fire has not affected anything
    beyond its immediate vicinity
  • Smoke is not reduced visibility
  • Civilians can breathe and can escape
  • Heat is low
  • Smoke alarms may sound
A

Incipient stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Factors that affect whether a fire can be extinguished in the Incipient stage (3)

A
  • Proximity of other flammable FUEL
  • Fires access to OXYGEN
  • Whether civilians can extinguish the
    fire
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

This stage of fire occurs when the fire has established itself and is self-sufficient. The fire has achieved “established burning” when it is generating enough heat to cause a positive heat feedback loop with the fires, using its own heat to initiate combustion among the surrounding fuel sources, and spreading from the origin to other fuels in its path.

Shortest stage

A

Growth stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

This stage of fire is when it reaches its hottest point as an engulfing all of the available fuel sources. This is the most dangerous stage due to intense heat.

A

Fully developed stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The stage of fire is when the fire runs out of either oxygen or fuel, and is the longest stage of a fire.

A

Decay stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Connecting a supply line from hydrant to the forward engine without using a key pumper

A

Direct connect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

An engine that is located in one of the primary, forward attack positions on the fire ground where equipment, hose, and water are deployed from the engine directly into or around hazard zones

A

Forward engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

This situation can be extremely dangerous for Firefighters. Upon arrival the fire might appear to be in the early growth stage. In truth, and may have already achieved the Fully Developed stage, reached its peak HRR, starved from lack of oxygen, and then transition to Decay stage.

A

Ventilation limited fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Reading smoke begins with the first arriving apparatus, comparing smoke issuing from ____ is key.

A

Various openings of similar size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

When reading smoke, velocity is the second step. When you look for the fastest smoke, coming from the most restrictive opening, this will tell you what?

A

Most likely where the fire is located

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

This color of smoke can mean early pyrolysis of plastic or hot fire far away

A

Dirty white smoke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

This color of smoke indicates unfinished wood is pyrolyzing just prior to ignition. This type of smoke is a collapse warning sign in lightweight wood construction.

A

Tan/brown smoke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

This color smoke comes from materials heated to the fullest extent, regardless of the type of materials ignited

A

Black smoke

100
Q

This color smoke means mostly carbon-infused smoke from serious heating

A

Flat black

101
Q

This color smoke is mostly hydrocarbon-infused smoke from the serious heating or burning of plastic and other petroleum products

A

Glossy or rich/deep black smoke

102
Q

When comparing volume, velocity, density and color with reading smoke, same color, density, and velocity from multiple openings can mean?

A

Deep seated fire in walls, floors, or basement

103
Q

Large building with multiple smoke exit points can indicate

A

A large fire

104
Q

Light smoke reports from a medium, large, or mega structure could indicate

A

A serious fire

105
Q

This is the near simultaneous ignition of directly exposed combustible material in an enclosed area.

A

Flashover

106
Q

Flashover normally occurs between what temperatures for ordinary combustibles?

A

900°F to 1100°F

107
Q

These are signs of what event?

  • High heat conditions and flaming
    combustion overhead
  • Dense black smoke
  • Smoke that pushes out of doorways
    or windows
  • Presence of “fingers of flame” at the
    ceiling level
  • Lack of water droplets falling back
    to the floor from an attack line
A

Flashover

108
Q

This is a temperature driven event, and the sudden transition from the growth stage to the fully developed stage may occur in as little as 10 seconds

A

Flashover

109
Q

This can occur when a fire is consumed all available oxygen in a room and more oxygen is rapidly introduced. This is an air driven event.

A

Backdraft (smoke explosion)

110
Q

This event is deadly because of the tremendous explosive force and potential to send shrapnel in all directions

A

Backdraft

111
Q

The following are signs of what event:

  • Lack of visible flames
  • Pulsing smoke plumes from
    openings
  • Auto ignition of hot gases at
    openings where they mix with
    oxygen in the surrounding air
  • Yellow or brown smoke
  • Windows appear to be stained (black
    or brown)
A

Backdraft

112
Q

What 4 assignments are listed on TAC 11, Fire Operations, for a high-rise fire?

A
  • Attack
  • Extension
  • RIT
  • Water supply
113
Q

Structures that present increased risk to fire personnel are Extremely Dangerous Structures, and can be any of the following: (7)

A
  • An enclosed structure with limited
    entry/egress
  • A large area structure with significant
    square footage
  • Structure with a below grade fire
  • Structures with burglar bars, or
    security features limiting access
  • An abandoned building with
    structural damage
  • A hoarder home
  • Any other structure features that
    increase the potential for
    disorientation, and make rapid
    retreat from interior positions more
    difficult than what would be
    expected from a standard residential
    structure
114
Q

This is the condition where high winds have not yet affected the fire conditions inside of the structure, but can easily become a wind driven fire when an opening is made and an uncontrolled flow path occurs

A

Potential wind driven fire

115
Q

Walls can be characterized several different ways. One of the most important characteristics is whether a wall is _____.

A

Load bearing

116
Q

This is part of the building’s passive protection system used to prevent the spread of fire built between or through buildings

A

Fire walls (not load bearing)

117
Q

What are five tactical concerns concerning parapet walls?

A
  • Dangerously unstable
  • Important to avoid striking a parapet
    wall with a master stream
  • Do not rest an aerial ladder on top
  • Consider using a roof ladder to form
    an A-frame to allow access on and
    off the roof
  • On a commercial building, the
    collapse zone can span the entire
    length of the building
118
Q

Tilt walls are typically ____ feet tall, maybe as high as ____ feet

A
  • 15-20 ft
  • 40 ft
119
Q

There are three basic architectural styles of roofs

A
  • Flat
  • Pitched (gable, hip, gambrel,
    mansard, butterfly, monitor,
    sawtooth, shed)
  • Curved (arched or bowstring truss
120
Q

Before operating on a roof, it is essential for the BC/FSC to get a report from personnel on the inside of the structure to determine what two questions 

A
  • Where the fire is located?
  • Whether or not the roof system is
    involved?
121
Q

There are several key factors that determine whether it is safe for Firefighters to operate on a pitched roof and they are: (3)

A
  • slope
  • roofing material
  • weather conditions
122
Q

Industrial buildings used for storage and/or manufacturing. Some of the characteristics include high fuel loads, the presence of HAZARDOUS MATERIALS, industrial machinery, and a large footprint.

A

Warehouse

123
Q

These are business occupancies that include strip centers, warehouses, high-rise buildings, midrise buildings, big box stores, and STAND-ALONE STORES

A

Commercial structures

124
Q

These stores are characterized by having tall ceilings, high fuel loads, large footprints, and installed SPRINKLER systems. They may be difficult to ventilate.

A

Big box stores

125
Q

In all commercial structures, one of the most critical INITIAL decisions for fire personnel is to:

A

Select the best point of entry that minimizes the distance to the fire

126
Q

In all commercial structures, one of the most critical TACTICAL decisions for fire personnel is to:

A

Put the fire out

127
Q

Occupants of commercial high-rises ____ practice routine evacuations where as occupants of residential high-rises ____ practice routine evacuations

A
  • May
  • Rarely
128
Q

Firefighting in Commercial Structures offers many DANGEROUS challenges such as

A
  • Entrapment
  • Entanglement and maneuverability
  • Heavy life load
  • High fuel loads
  • Difficult access to people and fire
  • Difficult search
129
Q

Some of the various firefighter dangers in Warehouse Fires include:

A
  • Long hose lays
  • Risk of disorientation
  • Ventilation challenges
  • High fuel load
  • Hazardous materials
  • Industrial machinery
  • Large footprint
130
Q

Concerning HVAC systems, these are used to cool air and often located on the lower levels

A

Chillers/air conditioners

131
Q

Concerning HVAC systems, these are often located at the roof level

A

Cooling towers

132
Q

Concerning HVAC systems, these are usually centrifugal “squirrel cage” units that are located inside the air handling unit and are driven by fan belts powered by electrical motors

A

Blowers

133
Q

Concerning HVAC systems, these are 3 devices that are used to distribute air into building spaces

A
  • Grilles
  • Registers
  • Diffusers
134
Q

By removing these pieces, you will expose the fan, motor, and belts. These are often indicated by the picture of a hand being pinched in a gear and the bolts are a standard size 5/16”

A

Service panels

135
Q

When identifying the stairwell, avoid using ____ directions

A

Cardinal

136
Q

In this situation, warm air will rise within a structure, begin to cool, lose its thermal energy necessary to continue rising, and will stall at the neutral plane. The air can then descend and push back down towards the fire floor.

A

Reverse Stack Effect

137
Q

Four actions to take to pressurize stairwells

A
  1. Protect the lobby by venting it
  2. Inspect the stairwell. If there is smoke inside, use PPV’s to introduce air at the base. If one PPV is sufficient at additional is needed.
  3. Boost the pressure by placing a PPV on an upper floor and have it blow into the stairwell. Set it back 4 to 6 feet.
  4. Firefighters inside the stairwell should try to keep the doors closed to maintain pressure.
138
Q

FDC

When the nearest hydrant is greater than ____ feet from the engine, use a key pumper. Pressures above ____ PSI are easier reached if a key pumper is used on the hydrant.

A
  • 200 ft
  • 200 psi
139
Q

Water pumps and fire pumps feed standpipe risers to maintain water in the system. They are designed supply the furthest standby connection on the top floor at ____ in older buildings and ____ buildings built after 1993.

A
  • 65 psi
  • 100 psi
140
Q

4 basic types of standpipe systems

A
  • Wet system (most common-
    commercial)
  • Automatic dry standpipe
  • Semi-automatic dry standpipe
  • Manual dry standpipe (no pump)
141
Q

When hooking up to a standpipe, use the connection ___ below the fire floor

A

One level

142
Q

When discussing standpipes, the most important reading is when?

A

The hose is flowing

143
Q

Sprinkler systems protect buildings within an effective fire expression capability. When activated, these system are designed to only flow ____ of the total number of sprinkler heads. Most systems are ____ systems.

A
  • Approximately 10%
  • Wet-pipe
144
Q

Apartment complexes have smaller FDC’s that can be supplied by ____ size couplings

A

1 1/2”

145
Q

Water supply and a sprinkler system is designed to deliver water to the highest sprinkler in the building and still have at least ____ residual pressure

A

15 psi

146
Q

Do not pump into a sprinkler system until _____ . Connect the hoses and leave them dry.

A

Ordered by the Incident Commander

147
Q

Before SAFD leaves the premises, make sure that the sprinkler system is _____ and _____ . This is a safety protection system.

A
  • going to be repaired
  • responsible party is addressing the
    problem
148
Q

The alarm panel should have keys, including: (3)

A
  • Elevator keys
  • Master keys
  • Pull station reset keys
149
Q

These systems will indicate the exact device within a zone

A

Addressable

150
Q

This alarm condition may indicate a sprinkler valve is shut, low air pressure in a dry system, lock box has been opened

A

Supervisory alarm

151
Q

This alarm condition could indicate a low battery, battery disconnected, power outage, dirty smoke detector, or electrical fault

A

Trouble Alarm

152
Q

This alarm condition is an active smoke detector or water flow sensor, which are both emergency conditions

A

Alarm

153
Q

During a fire response, if it is necessary to temporarily silence the alarm, press ____ and then ____ at the alarm panel.

A
  • Acknowledge
  • Silence

(Alphabetical)

154
Q

With an elevator system, this is a space enclosed by fireproof walls and hoistway doors that includes the pit and ends at the underside of the machinery room

A

Hoistway

155
Q

With the elevator systems, this is a device that pulls the car cable

A

Machine drive

156
Q

With the elevator systems, these are automatic doors on the elevator car equipped with photo-electric sensors, to sense entry and exit

A

Car doors

157
Q

With elevator systems, these are a set of doors on each floor that protect people from falling into the hoistway

A

Hoistway doors

158
Q

With elevator systems, these are fire service keys to gain access to the hoistway

A

Hoistway keys

159
Q

With elevator systems, these are used to control the car in Phase I and II fire service operation

A

Elevator keys

160
Q

This phase of elevator operation is a condition when the fire service takes control of the elevator cars using elevator keys

A

Phase II

161
Q

The fire service indicator blinking is an indication that ____

A

Elevator operation is compromised

162
Q

Firefighters should not use fire escapes, unless

A

There is no other method to move up and down the structure

163
Q

For working basement fires and commercial sublevel fires, prior to entry, what three things should be accomplished:

A
  • Utilize a quick hit
  • Have a backup line in place for the
    attack group
  • Assigned on deck crews at the point
    of entry
164
Q

For all walls that collapse zone should be ____ times the height of the wall

A

1.5

165
Q

All person on the fire ground must maintain situational awareness during operations. If firefighters suspect a collapse is imminent, immediately announced this fact as ____.

A

Priority traffic

166
Q

Two tactical concerns for burglar bars and a “working fire”

A

1) assigned a company to remove
burglar bars
2) assign a dedicated RIT UNTIL the
burglar bars are removed

167
Q

Tactical Concerns:

Before opening a window, consider these four things:

A
  • Stage of the fire
  • Fire control efforts
  • Wind direction/speed
  • Impact this action will have on the
    flow path
168
Q

This is a higher security door which can also have features like interior drop bars

A

Metal clad door

169
Q

This door can be difficult to break and cannot be “re-closed” afterwards

A

Glass door

170
Q

These doors are usually found at commercial structures. In commercial buildings, most of these doors are located at loading platforms, and there can be a 3-5 ft drop immediately adjacent to the door.

A

Rolling door
(Drop 3-5 ft = “go rolling”

171
Q

These doors are doors where the bulk of the doors weight is carried by the balanced door spring that sits above the opening

A

Overhead doors (garage doors)

172
Q

These doors are equipped with closing devices that are key life safety features and should not be disabled. Residential homes may have one from the garage into the house.

A

Self-closing doors

173
Q

When fighting fire in an interior hallway apartment or office building, crews should create this in case conditions deteriorate?

A

Area of refuge, prior to opening the door into the fire room.

(Force another door open off the hallway so you can retreat)

174
Q

San Antonio water system SAWS has grids that serve over _____ hydrants with pressure is normally in the ____ PSI range (p.39)

A
  • 28,000
  • 80-100 psi
175
Q

Using the International Fire Code, the SAFD has the authority to extinguish any fire, if it is determined to be ____.

A

“Unsafe”

where conditions such as flying embers constitute a fire hazard or pose an endangerment to life/property

176
Q

Situations involving what two instances concerning unauthorized burn responses may warrant law-enforcement involvement for possible citation issuance? (GR)

A
  • Gross negligence
  • Repeated offenses
177
Q

Use of open-flame cooking devices (charcoal, wood, gas-burning), is prohibited where?

A
  • Commercial or Multi-family
    occupancies
  • A balcony or within 10 feet of a
    combustible surface
178
Q

Cooking devices that use _____ are acceptable on a balcony or within 10 feet of a combustible surface

A

1-lb propane containers, such as those used on camp stoves and lanterns

179
Q

The 10 foot rule does not apply to ____ and open flame cooking on commercially sold devices as permitted as long as ____ and ____

A
  • One or two family dwellings
  • The fire is attended
  • There is a means of extinguishment
    readily available
180
Q

What four guidelines apply to fire pits being allowed within the San Antonio city limits?

A
  • Fire pit is a commercially-sold device
  • Operated within intended use
  • The fire is attended
  • There is a means of extinguishment
    readily available
181
Q

Rules of thumb for defensive apparatus placement (masonry/wood and tilt wall)

NOT COLLAPSE ZONE

A
  • masonry or wood structures - one to 1.5 times the full height of the building (OR a MIN of at least 30 feet away)
  • Tilt wall structures - spot 1.5 times the full height of the wall away from the building
182
Q

Level 1 procedure is automatically activated when the officer of the initial unit arrives and (2)

A
  • Gives initial radio report (IRR)
  • Assumes Command
183
Q

For an engine companies level one means that they don’t pass ____ and for ladder truck companies don’t pass ___

A
  • last water source
  • last ACCESS point
184
Q

Concerning Level 1 staging, only which two units respond directly to the scene?

A
  • 1st UNIT
  • 1st BC
185
Q

Level one immediately goes into effect with ____

A

Initial radio report (IRR) from the IIC

186
Q

Once Level 2 is implemented, all communications involving staging will be between the staging manager and?

A

Command OR Logistics

187
Q

Once fire knockdown has been achieved, fire control crews must continue to reduce the interior temperatures of the structure to ___ to improve occupant and Firefighters survivability

A

BELOW 200°F

188
Q

Hose lines entering the hot zone for fire control and must have adequate GPM, which is this, in order to protect entry Crews

A

150+ GPM

189
Q

For a potential wind driven fire, identify and announce the high-pressure side. Never advance into the structure from the low pressure side. The best approach is _____.

A

From either flank (potential wind)
p. 46

High pressure side (potential wind)
P.68

190
Q

For upper floor vacancies with long handline stretches, it may be quicker to utilize alternate means of egress to apply water on the fire (ground ladders, aerial devices, fire escapes). When using alternate means of egress to quickly attack the fire, Command must also:

A

Quickly cover and protect the NORMAL means of egress for BOTH the occupants and firefighters

191
Q

Command must make critical decisions as they relate to ___ and ___ . This decision also includes a forecast of where the fire will be when attack efforts are in position to engage the fire.

A
  • Cut off points
  • development of a pessimistic IAP
192
Q

Goal of a quick hit is knock the fire down to allow entry. Typically a quick hit should last:

A

No more than 45 seconds

193
Q

There are four main types of forcible entry tools:

A
  • Cutting
  • Prying
  • Striking
  • Pushing/pulling
194
Q

Concerning secondary hydrants and shared mains, many times ____ is the best option to increase flow.

A

Pumped water

195
Q

The IC will use the following methods to address the Life Safety tactical priorities on offensive structure fires: (3)

A
  • Protect in place
  • Primary searches
  • Secondary searches
196
Q

When the risk management profile allows, a primary search should be considered. A good rule of thumb is a primary search should be considered:

A

On any occupancy with beds

197
Q

For primary search, standard search patterns include:

A

Left and right, utilizing oriented search

198
Q

What 4 parameters relate to Search being protected by a hose line in the immediate search area in the event conditions deteriorate:

A
  • The Search cannot be protected by
    nearby hose line, they must deploy
    their own
  • If Attack is in immediate area, Search
    should be able to operate without a
    hose line
  • If Search is on a floor directly above
    the fire floor, they should have their
    own hose line
  • EXCEPTION to this guidance is
    conducting the Vent, Enter, Isolate,
    Search (VEIS) tactic
199
Q

This type of search is an effective method to conduct a room to room primary search and low visibility conditions, and is not suitable for large area structures

A

Oriented Search

200
Q

This type of search technique is effective when firefighting conditions prevent access from other directions and clearing the exterior of the building. It can be used in single and/or multi story structures as well as buildings were multiple points of entry are needed for rescue.

A

Vent enter isolate search (VEIS)

201
Q

The tasks for VEIS (4)

A
  • Once a room has been identified, the
    officer/Group supervisor must
    request PERMISSION from the IC to
    perform VEIS using the order model
  • ladder rungs at the bottom of the
    window sill
  • Immediately isolate (close the door)
  • Point person at the window sill for
    safety
202
Q

Responsibilities for RIT (4)

A
  • Tools (saw, RIT bag, etc.)
  • Identify which companies inside,
    assignment, general location
  • Perform 360
  • CONSIDER pulling a hose line
203
Q

When conducting occupant services, if it is possible, assist homeowners with contacting what companies? (3)

A
  • Insurance
  • Security
  • Clean up
204
Q

The goal of this fire ground activity is to reduce the incidents of secondary fires, control loss, and stabilize the incident scene, providing for firefighter safety

A

Overhaul

205
Q

This is an assignment to a location close to the emergency where units will be medically evaluated, rehydrated, and replenished

A

Rehab

206
Q

Concerning Extremely Dangerous Structures, this is the most important consideration in risk management

A

Firefighter safety

207
Q

For extinguishing grease fires with an extinguisher, the preferred agent is ___ or ____, and the technique used is?

A
  • ABC or CO2
  • PASS - Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
208
Q

Concerns with fires involving MC 306/406 tankers (4)

A
  • tankers may carry variety, most
    common are gasoline, diesel fuel,
    and alcohol/ethanol
  • gasoline in a container will burn at a
    rate of 1 foot of depth per hour
  • Aluminum tanker will melt at 1200°F
  • BLEVE is highly unlikely due to low
    operating pressure of 3 PSI
209
Q

The two HMRT engines each carry ____ gallons of class B foam

A

300

210
Q

Concerning solar panel fires, when a hose stream is applied to 1000 Volt DC source, a slight adjustment of the combination nozzle can provide protection to the firefighter. A solid stream adjusted to a ____ degree semi fog cone pattern can reduce measured current below perception level in distances as close as ___ feet.

However, do not approach within _____ feet of the DC source.

A
  • 10 degree
  • 5 feet
  • 10 feet
211
Q

With a single family residential fire, anticipate early failure with lightweight construction as it can fail within ___ minutes when exposed to fire.

A

10 minutes

212
Q

The IC will determine the incident communications plan, and every radio channel must have a dedicated ___ at the ICP. The channels are:

A
  • person
  • Tac 11 - Ops (Att, Supply, Ext, RIT)
  • Tac 12 - Logs (Base, On Deck, Stag)
  • Tac 13 - Medical (3 T’s & Rehab)
    14, 15, 16 use as needed
213
Q

A midrise structure is ___ floors, where as a commercial podium/mixed use structure is usually ____ floors.

A
  • 5 or fewer
  • 4-5 floors
214
Q

In commercial warehouse/big box, fires sprinkler activation can:

A

Create COLD smoke, resulting in rapidly deteriorating visibility

215
Q

Mulch can be stored in very tall piles, ____ feet high is not uncommon

A

20-30 ft

216
Q

Although masonry firewalls are designed to withstand structural collapse, this type of structure involved in a fire must be considered a collapse hazard.

A

ANY structure

217
Q

These systems are a series of structural members joined together to form a rigid framework. The framework consist of rafters, chords, posts, and struts, and usually support roof and floors.

A

Truss systems

218
Q

For fire department connections, if you anticipate a net pump pressure of over 200 psi, you should do what?

A

Utilize two engines for tandem pumping

(Net pump = tandem pump)

219
Q

Detection meters can be used to find natural gas and propane. The safe operating threshold is ____ of the LEL.

____ is the explosive range where gases will ignite given a heat source.

A
  • 10% or less (safe)
  • 100%
220
Q

When discussing estimated gallons per minute, needed for fire control, most fires are handled by ____ tank(s) of water.

A

1

221
Q

When discussing water shuttle operations, this must be considered when adequate fire flows cannot be as established early on in the operation

A

A defensive strategy

222
Q

Travel time (water shuttle operations) is especially critical in “long-term offensive firefighting”, which is how long?

A

Two or more work cycles

223
Q

The BEST tactic used in addressing the Life Safety tactical priority is to?

A

Control the fire as quickly and as safely as possible

224
Q

Command must obtain this once Fire Knockdown has been achieved and the structure has been adequately ventilated

A

Secondary - All clears

225
Q

During a primary search, if a victim is found, announce as _____.

A

Priority traffic

226
Q

One of the frequent causes of a wind driven fire is?

A

The sudden failure of a window from high heat or unplanned ventilation

227
Q

When discussing wind driven fires, what are the two steps listed under high-rise challenges?

A
  • pressurize attack stairwell (multiple
    PPVs)
  • attack fire from high pressure side.
    Aerial or high rise nozzle.
228
Q

When concerning possible rescues in a high-rise, what are two possible challenges?

A
  • Position the aerial to sweep the face
    of the building
  • Put the ladder up to the floor where
    firefighters are operating in case
    conditions deteriorate
229
Q

What is the one difference in “de-smoking a floor” versus “smoke in the stairwell” in the tactics manual?

A

Desmoking - open a hatch

Smoke in the stairwell - hatches often padlocked and unsafe to operate in full PPE

230
Q

When discussing a Midrise fire, the initial IAP is the same for a high-rise fire, except for these concerns (3)

A
  • lightweight wood framing
    • Early collapse
    • Rapid fire spread
  • lack of or inoperable standpipe
  • avoid using elevators
231
Q

When making an initial call to a podium or mixed use occupancy, the first arriving apparatus should anticipate what?

A

Limited access

232
Q

What are three concerns according to the SAFD tactics manual when encountering a Commercial Strip Center fire?

A
  • Hazardous materials
  • Lateral fire spread
  • Heavy security on rear doors
233
Q

Best practices

With a report of light smoke in a commercial strip center fire at night, consideration should be given for?

A
  • A ventilation limited fire

Anticipate rapid fire growth, and do not enter without a charged line

234
Q

Concerns with commercial warehouse/big box fires

A
  • Large floorplan with increased risk of
    disorientation
  • Sprinkler activation, can create cold
    smoke
  • Prone to early collapse due to
    unprotected steel and lightweight
    structural elements.
  • Air management
235
Q

Actions to avoid with commercial and residential below grade fires

A
  • Personnel operating over the fire
    area
  • Uncoordinated ventilation
  • Crew entering the sublevel alone
236
Q

Concerning wildland fires, it is essential to make clear assignments for all responding units. When resources are lacking, _____ should be the priority.

A

Protection of residential structures

237
Q

Key priority for Wildland fires

A
  • Get to the flanks and push into the
    fire from the sides
  • “Attack from the black”
238
Q

What three factors along with heat from organic decomposition can make mulch fires very challenging?

A
  • Elevated temperatures
  • Low humidity
  • Elevated winds

(Basically a grass fire)

239
Q

When encountering gas leaks, detection meters can be used to identify ___ by taking frequent readings where?

A
  • Perimeter of a gas leak
  • Along the periphery
240
Q

The following are characteristics of what type of commercial structure

  • Flat roof usually supported by lightweight steel bar joists with no fire protection
  • Utilities almost always in the back
  • Partition walls may not extend to roof
  • Stores and offices are almost always compartmentalized
  • Rear doors are almost all metal clad
A

Strip Center

241
Q

A non-load bearing interior wall that only supports the MATERIAL ON THE WALL itself. These walls do not support the ceiling or roof and typically extend from floor to the ceiling joists above.

A

Partition wall

242
Q

Many times it is much quicker and safer to apply water onto offensive fires through outside horizontal openings using a straight stream or smooth bore nozzle. This is true for all fires, but especially true for fires that:

A

Are visible on upper floors or higher elevations

243
Q

What allows firefighters to predict what may occur next, anticipate potential changes, due to ventilation, and the likely effects of tactical action?

A

Recognizing the stages of fire development and likely progression

244
Q

What three things are dependent on the characteristics of the fuel involved in the ventilation profile?

A
  • Speed with which fire develops
  • The peak heat release rate
  • Duration of burning
245
Q

With a key pumper, it can help overcome friction loss in the supply hose up to what distance?

How much can the key pumper deliver from the hydrant to the forward engine?

A

1000 feet

2000 gpm

Policies (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions