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Physiology II E3 > T3 AQ > Flashcards

T3 AQ Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
The liver has a low blood flow and a high vascular resistance
The liver has a low blood flow and a low vascular resistance
The liver has a high blood flow and high vascular resistance
The liver has a high blood flow and low vascular resistance

A

The liver has a high blood flow and low vascular resistance

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2
Q 
Which of the following would NOT be a function of the liver?
Gluconeogenesis
Formation of urea
Synthesis of prothrombin
Synthesis of calbindin
A

Synthesis of calbindin

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3
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of metabolic syndrome associated with diabetes?
Peripheral neuropathy
Obesity
Fasting hyperglycemia
Hypertension
A

Peripheral neuropathy

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4
Q 
Hemoglobin is released from damaged RBCs and split into globin and heme by macrophages. Here is then converted into which of the following by heme oxygenase?
Cholic acid
Biliverdin
Bilirubin
Urobilinogen
A

Biliverdin

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5
Q 
Higher than normal back pressure in hepatic veins may lead to the following condition:
Jaundice
Cirrhosis
Ascites
Diabetes
A

Ascites

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6
Q

Which of the following BEST represents the most important function of insulin in the body?
Actives phosphorylase and phosphatase necessary for the uptake of glucose by the liver
Controls from moment to moment whether fat or carbohydrate will be used by cells for energy
Activates lipoprotein lipase to split triglycerides into fatty acids
Activates the ornithine transport mechanism

A

Controls from moment to moment whether fat or carbs will be used by cells for energy.

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7
Q

In the pituitary glans, somatotropes (acidophils)secrete which of the following trophic hormones?
TSH
HGF
LH

A

HGF

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8
Q

The hormone response element is best characterized by which of the following?
An intracellular protein that binds to a lipid soluble hormone to form the hormone-receptor complex
A regulatory sequence of DNA
Phosphatidylinositol biphosphate component of a second-messenger system
A tyrosine-binding protein for thyroxine

A

A regulatory sequence of DNA

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9
Q 
Some signal transduction mechanism involve calcium. In these pathways a change in membrane potential opens calcium channels. Calcium ions enter the cell and bind to which of the following?
Janus kinase
The receptor component of a G protein
Diacylglycerol
Calmodulin
A

Calmodulin

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10
Q

Down regulation of receptors may occur as a result of which of the following:
Inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules
Activation of some of the receptor molecules
Increased production of receptors
Increase in the target cell’s responsiveness to the hormone

A

Inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules

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11
Q 
One of the best known stimuli for increasing the rate of thyroid releasing hormone is....?
Cold
Anxiety
cAMP
Excitment
A

Cold

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12
Q 
Which of the following is a common cause of hyperthyroidism?
Hashimotos
Graves'
Endemic goiter
Cretinism
A

Graves

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13
Q 
The basal membranes of thyroid cells contains symporters for iodide. What ion is co-transported with iodine by these symporters?
Sodium
Potassium 
Chloride
Hydrogen
A

Sodium

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14
Q 
The major hormonal product of the thyroid gland is thyroxine. How many iodinated tyrosine residues are found in thyroxine?
One
Two
Three
Four
A

Four

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15
Q

Pendrin is used for which of the following functions?
As a sodium-iodide symporter in the basal membrane of a thyroid follicle cell
As a hepatic-derived conjugating protein for the transport of thyroxine in the blood
As a chloride-iodine counter-transporter in the apical membrane of a thyroid follicle cell
As a decoupling protein used to separate iodide from thyroglobulin during the recycling of thyroxine

A

As a chloride-iodine counter-transporter in the apical membrane of a thyroid follicle cell

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16
Q 
Osteoclasts do not have receptors for parathyroid hormone; instead they respond to secondary signals from osteocytes which do have the receptors. Which of the following is important as a major secondary ligand in the communication process?
Osteoprotegerin
Pendrin
Calmodulin
Calbindin
A

Osteoprotegerin

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17
Q 
Hyperkalemia, mild acidosis, rise in RBC concentration, loss of ability to maintain normal blood glucose concentrations between meals, and changes in pigmentation pattern are all consistent with which of the following conditions?
Cushing's
Hypothyroidism
Addison's
Hyperparathyroidism
A

Addison’s Disease

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18
Q 
Which of the following is/are functions of glucocorticoids?
Stimulation fo gluconeogenesis
Decreased glucose utilization by cell
Resists inflammation
Resists stress
All
A

All are functions of glucocorticoids

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19
Q 
Aldosterone is the major mineralocorticoid and is secreted by which of the following regions of the adrenal cortex?
Zona glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis
Zona medullaris
A

Zona glomerulosa

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20
Q 
Cortisol secretion is controlled mainly by which of the following factors?
Plasma potassium concentration
Angiotensinogen II
Plasma sodium concentration
ACTH
A

ACTH

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21
Q 
Which of the following resists stress, resists inflammation, and stimulates gluconeogenesis but may lead to "adrenal diabetes?"
Aldosterone
Cortisol
Angiotensin II
Pregnenolone
A

Cortisol

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22
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of lack of aldosterone?
Reduction in blood volume
Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia
Reduction in blood pressure
A

Hypernatremia

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23
Q 
"Adrenal diabetes" may occur due to excess of which of the following?
Aldosterone
Mineralocorticoids
Glucocorticoids
Androgenic hormones
A

Glucocorticoids

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24
Q 
Addison's Disease is due to a deficiency of which of the following?
Mineralocorticoids
Glucocorticoids
Androgenic hormones
Mineralocorticoids and Glucocorticoids
A

Mineralocorticoids and Glucocorticoids

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25
Q 
Which of the following characteristics of Addison's Disease is due to a glucocorticoid deficiency?
Muscle weakness
Decrease in CO
Rise in RBC concentration
Mild acidosis
A

Muscle weakness

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26
Q 
The major glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex is... ?
Aldosterone
Estrogen
Cortisol
DHEA
A

Cortisol

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27
Q 
Spironolactone blocks mineralocorticoid receptors. This would probably have which of the following effects?
Hypernatremia
Increase in EC fluid volume
Reduction in CO
Anemia
A

Reduction in CO

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28
Q 
Moon face, "buffalo torso," hypertension and increased blood glucose are characteristic of which of the following?
Addison's
Cushing's
Cretinism
Graves' Disease
A

Cushing’s disease

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29
Q 
The active form of vitamin D promotes the intestinal uptake of calcium by increasing the formation of which of the following substances?
Apoprotein B
Calbindin
Albumin
Calciferol
A

Calbindin

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30
Q 
Hypocalcemia usually becomes lethal at which of the following levels?
12 mg/dl
9.5 mg/dl
6 mg/dl
4 mg/dl
A

4 mg/dl

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31
Q 
Normally the body takes in about 1000 mg of calcium per day orally. How much of this is lost in the feces per day?
350 mg
750 mg
900 mg
990 mg
A

900 mg

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32
Q

Parathyroid hormone has which of the following effect on renal tubules?
PTH promotes the reabsorption of potassium
PTH promotes the reabsorption of calcium
PTH promotes the reabsorption of sodium
PTH promotes the reabsorption of potassium, calcium, and sodium

A

PTH promotes the reabsorption of calcium

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33
Q 
The conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-hydroxycholecalciferol occurs in which of the following?
Bone
Liver
Blood
Kidney
A

Kidney

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34
Q

Death due to hypoparathyroidism is often due to which of the following effects?
Massive losses of calcium from the skeletal system
Excessive reabsorption of sodium followed by tetany
Laryngeal muscle spasms
Vitamin D deficiency

A

Laryngeal muscle spasms

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35
Q

Approximately 40% of plasma calcium is bound to plasma proteins and is not filtered by the kidneys. What effect does acidosis have on plasma calcium ion concentration (unbound)?
There is a increase in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases
There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration decease
There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases
There is a increase in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration decrease

A

There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases

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36
Q 
Which of the following nerves supplies parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland?
Facial
Trigeminal
Glossopharyngeal
Vagus
A

Glossopharyngeal

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37
Q 
Which of the following conditions describes the effects of the ANS on sweat glands in the hands and feet?
Parasymapthetic; cholinergic
Parasympathetic; adrenergic
Sympathetic; cholinergic
Symapthetic; adrenergic
A

Sympathetic; cholinergic

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38
Q 
Which of the following acts as an antihypertensive agent by being uptaken by adrenergic neurons and replacing norepinephrine in the synaptic vesicle?
Methoxamine
Albuterol
Guanethidine
Phenoxybenzadine
A

Guanethidine

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39
Q

The greater splanchnic nerve originates from spinal cord levels T5-T9. Which of the following statements concerning this nerve is correct?
It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the superior mesenteric ganglion.
It is composed of postganglionic fibers and terminates within the wall of the gut tube.
It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the celiac ganglion.
It is composed of preganglionic fibers and synapses in the superior mesenteric ganglion.

A

It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the celiac ganglion.

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40
Q 
Beta-3 receptors are involved in which of the following functions?
Adrenergic; thermogenesis
Adrenergic; glycogenolysis
Adrenergic; cardiac acceleration
Adrenergic; vasoconstriction
A

Adrenergic; thermogenesis

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41
Q 
Norepinephrine is synthesized from which of the following?
Glycine
Tyrosine
Threonine
Alanine
A

Tyrosine

42
Q 
Which of the following responses would NOT be part of the alarm response?
Increased arterial pressure
Increased glycogenesis
Increased blood glucose concentration
Increased mental activity
A

Increased glycogenesis

43
Q

Norepinephrine/epinephrine secreted into tissues remains active for only a few seconds. Norepinephrine/epinephrine secreted into the blood remains active longer. Which of the following explains the reason for these differences?
The neurotransmitters are immediately reuptaking in the tissues.
Monoamine-oxidase destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues.
COMT destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues.
The neurotransmitters immediately diffuse away from the site when secreted into the tissues.

A

COMT destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues.

44
Q

Which of the following is an effect of the sympathetic nervous system?
Relaxation of GI tract sphincters
Strong stimulation of glands of upper GI tract
Pupil constriction
Strong stimulation of sweat glands

A

Strong stimulation of sweat glands

45
Q 
Which of the following types of receptors are found at the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle cells?
Nicotinic
Muscarinic
Alpha-1
Beta-1
A

Nicotinic

46
Q 
About 75% of all parasympathetic fibers are located in which of the following locations?
Trigeminal nerve
Vagus nerve
Lesser splanchnic nerve
Greater splanchnic nerve
A

Vagus nerve

47
Q 
Which of the following ANS fibers pass through the gray rami?
Preganglionic sympathetic fibers
Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers
Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
A

Postganglionic sympathetic fibers

48
Q

Which of the following characterize postganglionic neurons in the ANS?
They are myelinated; cell bodies are located in the CNS; they all us acetylcholine.
They are myelinated; cell bodies are located in the PNS; they all use norepinephrine.
Cell bodies are located in the PNS; they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine.
Cell bodies are located in the CNS; they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine.

A

Cell bodies are located in the PNS; they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine.

49
Q 
Which of the following has antihypertensive actions as a result of its ability to deplete norepinephrine and other monoamine neurotransmitters by blocking its synthesis and storage from peripheral sympathetic nerve endings?
Methoxamine
Reserpine
Hexamethonium
Isoproteronal
A

Reserpine

50
Q 
Postganglionic fibers associated with which of the following cranial nerves provide parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular glands?
Occulomotor nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Facial nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
A

Facial nerve

51
Q 
Which of the following hormones exerts an interstitial cell-stimulating effect on testes of male fetus, resulting in the production of testosterone until birth?
Estrogen
Progesterone
Human chorionic gonadotropin
Human somatommammotropin
A

Human chorionic gonadotropin

52
Q 
Fructose, which provides energy for the sperm, is secreted by which of the following:
Seminal vesicles
Prostate gland
Cells of Leydig
Sertoli cells
A

Seminal vesicles

53
Q 
Inhibin inhibits secretion of FSH by the anterior pituitary and is secreted by which of the following:
Seminal vesicles
Prostate gland
Cells of Leydig
Sertoli cells
A

Sertoli cells

54
Q 
Plasma testosterone levels in the newborn male are due to which of the following?
Seminal vesicles
Prostate gland
Cells of Leydig
Sertoli cells
A

Cells of Leydig

55
Q 
In the progression from primordial germ cells to mature sperm cells, which of the following would be the first cells to have a haploid genome?
Primary spermatocytes
Secondary spermatocytes
Spermatids
Mature sperm cells
A

Secondary spermatocytes

56
Q 
In order to gain motility, sperm cells must be stored in which of the following for at least 18-24 hours?
Seminal vesicles
Prostate gland
Epididymis
Rete testis
A

Epididymis

57
Q 
Approximately 60 percent of the total volume of semen is derived from which of the following sources?
Bulbourethral glands
Epididymis
Prostate gland
Seminal vesicles
A

Seminal vesicles

58
Q 
In males, gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulates mostly the release of the following gonadotropin hormones?
LH
FSH
Estrogen
Testosterone
A

LH

59
Q 
During spermatogenesis residual bodies are eliminated. Residual bodies consist of which of the following components?
Excess cytoplasm, RER, Golgi
Excess cytoplasm, RER, mitochondria
Excess cytoplasm, RER, centrioles
Excess cytoplasm, RER, nuclear membranes
A

Excess cytoplasm, RER, Golgi

60
Q 
Interstitial cells of Leydig are almost non-existent in the testes during which of the following stages?
At birth
Early childhood
After puberty
Adulthood
A

Early childhood

61
Q 
Testosterone that is not fixed in tissues is converted into other compounds and conjugated to be excreted in the gut or urine. The initial conversion to other compounds occurs in which of the following structures?
Epididymis
Liver
Spleen
Gall bladder
A

Liver

62
Q 
Shortly after birth in the ovaries of the human female, all the germ cells in the ovaries are in which of the following developmental stages?
Metaphase stage of meiosis II
First polar body stage
Granulosa cell stage
Diplotene stage of meiosis I
A

Diplotene stage of meiosis I

63
Q 
The oocyte maturation-inhibiting factor that keeps ovum suspended in its primordial state prior to puberty is secreted by which of the following?
Anterior pituitary 
Hypothalamus
Granulosa cells
Corpus luteum
A

Granulosa cells

64
Q 
During the menstrual cycle, the early growth of a follicle is primarily stimulated by which of the following?
LH
FSH
Estrogen
Progesterone
A

FSH

65
Q 
Pregnenolone is an intermediate in the synthesis of progesterone form cholesterol. It is synthesized in which of the following?
Granulosa cells only
Granulosa and theca cells
Thecal cells only
None of the above
A

Granulosa and theca cells

66
Q 
Which of the following hormones would be predominate at about day 22 of the human sexual cycle?
LH
FSH
Estrogen
Progesterone
A

Progesterone

67
Q 
Hyaluronidase released from the sperm acrosome is necessary to breach which of the following barriers?
The corona radiata
The zona pellucida
The egg plasmalemma
The thecal cells
A

The corona radiata

68
Q 
Fertilization occurs in the upper third of the fallopian tube. By the time the blastocyst reaches the uterus, it consists of approximately how many cells?
11
48
100
1,000
A

100

69
Q 
During pregnancy, the progesterone needed to maintain the developing fetus is secreted primarily by which of the following?
Thecal cells
Uterine endometrium
Corpus albicans
Corpus lutuem
A

Corpus lutuem

70
Q 
All nutrients for the developing embryo during the first week following implantation are supplied by which of the following?
Syncytiotrophoblast cells
Corpus luteum
Cytotrophoblast cells
Decidual cells
A

Decidual cells

71
Q 
Which of the following values (mm Hg) represents the mean diffusion gradient pressure between the PO2 of the mother and PO2 of the fetus?
10
20
30
40
A

20

72
Q

As a result of the Bohr effect there is an increase in the capacity of the fetal blood to combine with oxygen and a decrease in the capacity of the maternal blood to combine with oxygen. This is mostly due to which of the following:
The mother’s blood becomes more alkaline.
The mother’s blood becomes more acidic.
The fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than the maternal blood.
The fetal blood has a higher hemoglobin concentration.

A

The mother’s blood becomes more acidic.

73
Q 
In females, a sharp rise in gonadotropins to almost 60 times that at birth occurs during which of the following periods?
Menopause
Just prior to each ovulation phase
Puberty
Old age
A

Menopause

74
Q

In the ovarian follicle, both thecal cells and granulosa cells possess receptors for LH and LDL. Which of the following statements BEST characterizes the secretory activities of the cells?
Both thecal and granulosa secrete estrogens but not androgens.
Thecal cells and granulosa cells both secrete androgens and estrogens.
Thecal cells secrete androgens and granulosa cells secrete estrogens.
Thecal cells secrete estrogens and granulosa cells secrete androgens.

A

Thecal cells secrete androgens and granulosa cells secrete estrogens.

75
Q 
In females inhibin has a negative feedback effect on both the anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus. It is secreted by which of the following types of cells?
Granulosa cells
Internal thecal cells
External thecal cells
Primary oocytes
A

Granulosa cells

76
Q

At the time of fertilization, the oocyte has reached which of the following stages of development?
Prophase I of meiosis with no polar bodies
Metaphase II of meiosis with one polar body
Prophase II of meiosis with no polar bodies
It has completed meiosis and has two polar bodies

A

Metaphase II of meiosis with one polar body

77
Q

Ascites may results from which of the following?
Constriction of the hepatic artery
Blockage of the portal vein
Higher than normal pressure in hepatic veins
Constriction of the celiac trunk

A

Higher than normal pressure in hepatic veins

78
Q 
Kupffer cells are found in which of the following spaces?
Space of Disse
Hepatic sinusoids
Bile canaliculi
Space of Wirsung
A

Hepatic sinusoids

79
Q 
Which of the following prevents the pancreas from digesting itself?
Chymotrypsin inhibitor
Trypsin inhibitor
Phospholipase
Pancreatic amylase
A

Trypsin inhibitor

80
Q

Which of the following characterizes pancreatic secretions under low flow rates?
Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride
Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and bicarb
Hypotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride
Hypotonic, composed mostly of sodium and bicarb

A

Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride

81
Q 
Which fo the following orient themselves on the outsides of micelles?
Cholesterol
Free fatty acids
Carbohydrates
Bile salts
A

Bile salts

82
Q 
Which of the following levels of blood constituents would not be observed in a diabetic coma?
Low blood glucose
Low keto acids
High bicarb
Low cholesterol
A

High bicarb

83
Q 
Flexed arms and legs that resist extension would result in which of the following on the Apgar test?
A score of 0
A score of 1
A score of 2
Not measured on the apgar test
A

A score of 2

84
Q 
Which of the following vitamins is needed by the fetus to create normal clotting factors?
A
C
E
K
A

K

85
Q 
Fetal blood from the right ventricle going to the descending aorta is pumped through which opening?
Foramen ovale
Ductus arteriosus
Ductus venosus
Foramen soventus
A

Ductus arteriosus

86
Q 
The first three or four days after birth, the neonate relies on what energy store?
Glucose from mother's milk
Fat from mother's milk
Stored glucose
Stored protein and fat
A

Stored protein and fat

87
Q 
Excessive variations in blood gasses normally seen in neonates is typically due to which of the following?
Residual fluid in the lungs
Underdeveloped CNS respiratory center
High heart rate
Frequent periods of apnea
A

Frequent periods of apnea

88
Q

If there is a mutation in the growth hormone receptor and growth hormone us unable to bind to liver cells, what would the outcome be?
Low levels of IGF1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure
High levels of IGF1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure
Low levels of IGF1 (somatomedin C) expression, no effect on growth
Low levels of IGF1 (somatomedin C) expression, accelerated growth

A

Low levels of IGF1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure

89
Q 
ADH is primarily formed in which of the following locations?
Supraoptic nuclei
acidophils of adenohypophysis
Paraventricular nuclei
Basophils of adenohypophysis
A

Supraoptic nuclei

90
Q 
Growth hormone adenomas that develop in adulthood  can result in what condition?
Gigantism
Dwarfism
Acromegaly
None of these
A

Acromegaly

91
Q

The facial nerve is responsible for which of the following?
Motor control of the eye
Motor control of the heart
Motor control of the muscles of facial expression
Taste in the posterior third of the tongue

A

Motor control of facial expression

92
Q 
The ciliary ganglion is an extension of which cranial nerve?
III
VII
IX
X
A

III

93
Q 
Which cranial nerve is responsible for taste on the posterior portion of the tongue?
III
V
VII
IX
A

IX

94
Q 
In the early stages of development, the trophoblast will give rise to which of the following structures?
Amnion and placenta only
Amnion, yolk sac, and embryo only
Placenta only
Placenta and yolk sac
A

Placenta only

95
Q

Which of the following descriptions best describes the relationship between maternal blood and fetal blood?
Maternal blood and fetal blood freely intermingle within the trophoblastic lacunae
Fetal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but maternal blood remains confined within maternal vessels
Both maternal blood and fetal blood remain confined within their respective vessels during pregnancy
Maternal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but fetal blood remains confined within fetal vessels

A

Maternal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but fetal blood remains confined within fetal vessels

96
Q 
Which of the following substances moves across the placental membranes via facilitated diffusion?
Creatine
Urea
Fats
Glucose
A

Glucose

97
Q 
During pregnancy, syncytiotrophoblast cells secrete estrogens. These estrogens are derived from androgens secreted by which of the following sources?
Granulosa cells
Cytotrophoblast cells
Maternal adrenal cortex
Maternal and fetal adrenal cortices
A

Maternal and fetal adrenal cortices

98
Q

Prolactin promotes milk secretion. It has full effects on milk secretion after birth due to which of the following physiological reasons?
The corpus luteum produces an extra surge of estrogen
Levels of oxytocin have increased considerably
Progesterone and estrogen effects of placenta have been eliminated
Human chorionic gondaotropin levels increase considerably after birth

A

Progesterone and estrogen effects of placenta have been eliminated

99
Q 
A sharp surge in which of the following hormones precedes ovulation by about 24 hours?
LH
FSH
Estrogen
Progesterone
A

LH

100
Q 
During the early stages of pregnancy, involution (degeneration) of the corpus luteum is prevented by which of the following hormones?
Estrogen
Progesterone
Human chorionic gonadotropin
Human somatomammotropin
A

Human chorionic gonadotropin

101
Q 
Which of the following is responsible for gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi resulting in the release of bile from the gallbladder?
Gastrin
Secretin
CCK
Motilin
A

CCK

Physiology II E3 (8 decks)

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