T3 AQ Flashcards
Which of the following statements is true?
The liver has a low blood flow and a high vascular resistance
The liver has a low blood flow and a low vascular resistance
The liver has a high blood flow and high vascular resistance
The liver has a high blood flow and low vascular resistance
The liver has a high blood flow and low vascular resistance
Which of the following would NOT be a function of the liver? Gluconeogenesis Formation of urea Synthesis of prothrombin Synthesis of calbindin
Synthesis of calbindin
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of metabolic syndrome associated with diabetes? Peripheral neuropathy Obesity Fasting hyperglycemia Hypertension
Peripheral neuropathy
Hemoglobin is released from damaged RBCs and split into globin and heme by macrophages. Here is then converted into which of the following by heme oxygenase? Cholic acid Biliverdin Bilirubin Urobilinogen
Biliverdin
Higher than normal back pressure in hepatic veins may lead to the following condition: Jaundice Cirrhosis Ascites Diabetes
Ascites
Which of the following BEST represents the most important function of insulin in the body?
Actives phosphorylase and phosphatase necessary for the uptake of glucose by the liver
Controls from moment to moment whether fat or carbohydrate will be used by cells for energy
Activates lipoprotein lipase to split triglycerides into fatty acids
Activates the ornithine transport mechanism
Controls from moment to moment whether fat or carbs will be used by cells for energy.
In the pituitary glans, somatotropes (acidophils)secrete which of the following trophic hormones?
TSH
HGF
LH
HGF
The hormone response element is best characterized by which of the following?
An intracellular protein that binds to a lipid soluble hormone to form the hormone-receptor complex
A regulatory sequence of DNA
Phosphatidylinositol biphosphate component of a second-messenger system
A tyrosine-binding protein for thyroxine
A regulatory sequence of DNA
Some signal transduction mechanism involve calcium. In these pathways a change in membrane potential opens calcium channels. Calcium ions enter the cell and bind to which of the following? Janus kinase The receptor component of a G protein Diacylglycerol Calmodulin
Calmodulin
Down regulation of receptors may occur as a result of which of the following:
Inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules
Activation of some of the receptor molecules
Increased production of receptors
Increase in the target cell’s responsiveness to the hormone
Inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules
One of the best known stimuli for increasing the rate of thyroid releasing hormone is....? Cold Anxiety cAMP Excitment
Cold
Which of the following is a common cause of hyperthyroidism? Hashimotos Graves' Endemic goiter Cretinism
Graves
The basal membranes of thyroid cells contains symporters for iodide. What ion is co-transported with iodine by these symporters? Sodium Potassium Chloride Hydrogen
Sodium
The major hormonal product of the thyroid gland is thyroxine. How many iodinated tyrosine residues are found in thyroxine? One Two Three Four
Four
Pendrin is used for which of the following functions?
As a sodium-iodide symporter in the basal membrane of a thyroid follicle cell
As a hepatic-derived conjugating protein for the transport of thyroxine in the blood
As a chloride-iodine counter-transporter in the apical membrane of a thyroid follicle cell
As a decoupling protein used to separate iodide from thyroglobulin during the recycling of thyroxine
As a chloride-iodine counter-transporter in the apical membrane of a thyroid follicle cell
Osteoclasts do not have receptors for parathyroid hormone; instead they respond to secondary signals from osteocytes which do have the receptors. Which of the following is important as a major secondary ligand in the communication process? Osteoprotegerin Pendrin Calmodulin Calbindin
Osteoprotegerin
Hyperkalemia, mild acidosis, rise in RBC concentration, loss of ability to maintain normal blood glucose concentrations between meals, and changes in pigmentation pattern are all consistent with which of the following conditions? Cushing's Hypothyroidism Addison's Hyperparathyroidism
Addison’s Disease
Which of the following is/are functions of glucocorticoids? Stimulation fo gluconeogenesis Decreased glucose utilization by cell Resists inflammation Resists stress All
All are functions of glucocorticoids
Aldosterone is the major mineralocorticoid and is secreted by which of the following regions of the adrenal cortex? Zona glomerulosa Zona fasciculata Zona reticularis Zona medullaris
Zona glomerulosa
Cortisol secretion is controlled mainly by which of the following factors? Plasma potassium concentration Angiotensinogen II Plasma sodium concentration ACTH
ACTH
Which of the following resists stress, resists inflammation, and stimulates gluconeogenesis but may lead to "adrenal diabetes?" Aldosterone Cortisol Angiotensin II Pregnenolone
Cortisol
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of lack of aldosterone? Reduction in blood volume Hypernatremia Hyperkalemia Reduction in blood pressure
Hypernatremia
"Adrenal diabetes" may occur due to excess of which of the following? Aldosterone Mineralocorticoids Glucocorticoids Androgenic hormones
Glucocorticoids
Addison's Disease is due to a deficiency of which of the following? Mineralocorticoids Glucocorticoids Androgenic hormones Mineralocorticoids and Glucocorticoids
Mineralocorticoids and Glucocorticoids
Which of the following characteristics of Addison's Disease is due to a glucocorticoid deficiency? Muscle weakness Decrease in CO Rise in RBC concentration Mild acidosis
Muscle weakness
The major glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex is... ? Aldosterone Estrogen Cortisol DHEA
Cortisol
Spironolactone blocks mineralocorticoid receptors. This would probably have which of the following effects? Hypernatremia Increase in EC fluid volume Reduction in CO Anemia
Reduction in CO
Moon face, "buffalo torso," hypertension and increased blood glucose are characteristic of which of the following? Addison's Cushing's Cretinism Graves' Disease
Cushing’s disease
The active form of vitamin D promotes the intestinal uptake of calcium by increasing the formation of which of the following substances? Apoprotein B Calbindin Albumin Calciferol
Calbindin
Hypocalcemia usually becomes lethal at which of the following levels? 12 mg/dl 9.5 mg/dl 6 mg/dl 4 mg/dl
4 mg/dl
Normally the body takes in about 1000 mg of calcium per day orally. How much of this is lost in the feces per day? 350 mg 750 mg 900 mg 990 mg
900 mg
Parathyroid hormone has which of the following effect on renal tubules?
PTH promotes the reabsorption of potassium
PTH promotes the reabsorption of calcium
PTH promotes the reabsorption of sodium
PTH promotes the reabsorption of potassium, calcium, and sodium
PTH promotes the reabsorption of calcium
The conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-hydroxycholecalciferol occurs in which of the following? Bone Liver Blood Kidney
Kidney
Death due to hypoparathyroidism is often due to which of the following effects?
Massive losses of calcium from the skeletal system
Excessive reabsorption of sodium followed by tetany
Laryngeal muscle spasms
Vitamin D deficiency
Laryngeal muscle spasms
Approximately 40% of plasma calcium is bound to plasma proteins and is not filtered by the kidneys. What effect does acidosis have on plasma calcium ion concentration (unbound)?
There is a increase in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases
There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration decease
There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases
There is a increase in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration decrease
There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases
Which of the following nerves supplies parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland? Facial Trigeminal Glossopharyngeal Vagus
Glossopharyngeal
Which of the following conditions describes the effects of the ANS on sweat glands in the hands and feet? Parasymapthetic; cholinergic Parasympathetic; adrenergic Sympathetic; cholinergic Symapthetic; adrenergic
Sympathetic; cholinergic
Which of the following acts as an antihypertensive agent by being uptaken by adrenergic neurons and replacing norepinephrine in the synaptic vesicle? Methoxamine Albuterol Guanethidine Phenoxybenzadine
Guanethidine
The greater splanchnic nerve originates from spinal cord levels T5-T9. Which of the following statements concerning this nerve is correct?
It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the superior mesenteric ganglion.
It is composed of postganglionic fibers and terminates within the wall of the gut tube.
It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the celiac ganglion.
It is composed of preganglionic fibers and synapses in the superior mesenteric ganglion.
It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the celiac ganglion.
Beta-3 receptors are involved in which of the following functions? Adrenergic; thermogenesis Adrenergic; glycogenolysis Adrenergic; cardiac acceleration Adrenergic; vasoconstriction
Adrenergic; thermogenesis
Norepinephrine is synthesized from which of the following? Glycine Tyrosine Threonine Alanine
Tyrosine
Which of the following responses would NOT be part of the alarm response? Increased arterial pressure Increased glycogenesis Increased blood glucose concentration Increased mental activity
Increased glycogenesis
Norepinephrine/epinephrine secreted into tissues remains active for only a few seconds. Norepinephrine/epinephrine secreted into the blood remains active longer. Which of the following explains the reason for these differences?
The neurotransmitters are immediately reuptaking in the tissues.
Monoamine-oxidase destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues.
COMT destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues.
The neurotransmitters immediately diffuse away from the site when secreted into the tissues.
COMT destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues.
Which of the following is an effect of the sympathetic nervous system?
Relaxation of GI tract sphincters
Strong stimulation of glands of upper GI tract
Pupil constriction
Strong stimulation of sweat glands
Strong stimulation of sweat glands
Which of the following types of receptors are found at the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle cells? Nicotinic Muscarinic Alpha-1 Beta-1
Nicotinic
About 75% of all parasympathetic fibers are located in which of the following locations? Trigeminal nerve Vagus nerve Lesser splanchnic nerve Greater splanchnic nerve
Vagus nerve
Which of the following ANS fibers pass through the gray rami? Preganglionic sympathetic fibers Postganglionic sympathetic fibers Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
Which of the following characterize postganglionic neurons in the ANS?
They are myelinated; cell bodies are located in the CNS; they all us acetylcholine.
They are myelinated; cell bodies are located in the PNS; they all use norepinephrine.
Cell bodies are located in the PNS; they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine.
Cell bodies are located in the CNS; they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine.
Cell bodies are located in the PNS; they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine.
Which of the following has antihypertensive actions as a result of its ability to deplete norepinephrine and other monoamine neurotransmitters by blocking its synthesis and storage from peripheral sympathetic nerve endings? Methoxamine Reserpine Hexamethonium Isoproteronal
Reserpine
Postganglionic fibers associated with which of the following cranial nerves provide parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular glands? Occulomotor nerve Trigeminal nerve Facial nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve
Facial nerve
Which of the following hormones exerts an interstitial cell-stimulating effect on testes of male fetus, resulting in the production of testosterone until birth? Estrogen Progesterone Human chorionic gonadotropin Human somatommammotropin
Human chorionic gonadotropin
Fructose, which provides energy for the sperm, is secreted by which of the following: Seminal vesicles Prostate gland Cells of Leydig Sertoli cells
Seminal vesicles
Inhibin inhibits secretion of FSH by the anterior pituitary and is secreted by which of the following: Seminal vesicles Prostate gland Cells of Leydig Sertoli cells
Sertoli cells
Plasma testosterone levels in the newborn male are due to which of the following? Seminal vesicles Prostate gland Cells of Leydig Sertoli cells
Cells of Leydig
In the progression from primordial germ cells to mature sperm cells, which of the following would be the first cells to have a haploid genome? Primary spermatocytes Secondary spermatocytes Spermatids Mature sperm cells
Secondary spermatocytes
In order to gain motility, sperm cells must be stored in which of the following for at least 18-24 hours? Seminal vesicles Prostate gland Epididymis Rete testis
Epididymis
Approximately 60 percent of the total volume of semen is derived from which of the following sources? Bulbourethral glands Epididymis Prostate gland Seminal vesicles
Seminal vesicles
In males, gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulates mostly the release of the following gonadotropin hormones? LH FSH Estrogen Testosterone
LH
During spermatogenesis residual bodies are eliminated. Residual bodies consist of which of the following components? Excess cytoplasm, RER, Golgi Excess cytoplasm, RER, mitochondria Excess cytoplasm, RER, centrioles Excess cytoplasm, RER, nuclear membranes
Excess cytoplasm, RER, Golgi
Interstitial cells of Leydig are almost non-existent in the testes during which of the following stages? At birth Early childhood After puberty Adulthood
Early childhood
Testosterone that is not fixed in tissues is converted into other compounds and conjugated to be excreted in the gut or urine. The initial conversion to other compounds occurs in which of the following structures? Epididymis Liver Spleen Gall bladder
Liver
Shortly after birth in the ovaries of the human female, all the germ cells in the ovaries are in which of the following developmental stages? Metaphase stage of meiosis II First polar body stage Granulosa cell stage Diplotene stage of meiosis I
Diplotene stage of meiosis I
The oocyte maturation-inhibiting factor that keeps ovum suspended in its primordial state prior to puberty is secreted by which of the following? Anterior pituitary Hypothalamus Granulosa cells Corpus luteum
Granulosa cells
During the menstrual cycle, the early growth of a follicle is primarily stimulated by which of the following? LH FSH Estrogen Progesterone
FSH
Pregnenolone is an intermediate in the synthesis of progesterone form cholesterol. It is synthesized in which of the following? Granulosa cells only Granulosa and theca cells Thecal cells only None of the above
Granulosa and theca cells
Which of the following hormones would be predominate at about day 22 of the human sexual cycle? LH FSH Estrogen Progesterone
Progesterone
Hyaluronidase released from the sperm acrosome is necessary to breach which of the following barriers? The corona radiata The zona pellucida The egg plasmalemma The thecal cells
The corona radiata
Fertilization occurs in the upper third of the fallopian tube. By the time the blastocyst reaches the uterus, it consists of approximately how many cells? 11 48 100 1,000
100
During pregnancy, the progesterone needed to maintain the developing fetus is secreted primarily by which of the following? Thecal cells Uterine endometrium Corpus albicans Corpus lutuem
Corpus lutuem
All nutrients for the developing embryo during the first week following implantation are supplied by which of the following? Syncytiotrophoblast cells Corpus luteum Cytotrophoblast cells Decidual cells
Decidual cells
Which of the following values (mm Hg) represents the mean diffusion gradient pressure between the PO2 of the mother and PO2 of the fetus? 10 20 30 40
20
As a result of the Bohr effect there is an increase in the capacity of the fetal blood to combine with oxygen and a decrease in the capacity of the maternal blood to combine with oxygen. This is mostly due to which of the following:
The mother’s blood becomes more alkaline.
The mother’s blood becomes more acidic.
The fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than the maternal blood.
The fetal blood has a higher hemoglobin concentration.
The mother’s blood becomes more acidic.
In females, a sharp rise in gonadotropins to almost 60 times that at birth occurs during which of the following periods? Menopause Just prior to each ovulation phase Puberty Old age
Menopause
In the ovarian follicle, both thecal cells and granulosa cells possess receptors for LH and LDL. Which of the following statements BEST characterizes the secretory activities of the cells?
Both thecal and granulosa secrete estrogens but not androgens.
Thecal cells and granulosa cells both secrete androgens and estrogens.
Thecal cells secrete androgens and granulosa cells secrete estrogens.
Thecal cells secrete estrogens and granulosa cells secrete androgens.
Thecal cells secrete androgens and granulosa cells secrete estrogens.
In females inhibin has a negative feedback effect on both the anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus. It is secreted by which of the following types of cells? Granulosa cells Internal thecal cells External thecal cells Primary oocytes
Granulosa cells
At the time of fertilization, the oocyte has reached which of the following stages of development?
Prophase I of meiosis with no polar bodies
Metaphase II of meiosis with one polar body
Prophase II of meiosis with no polar bodies
It has completed meiosis and has two polar bodies
Metaphase II of meiosis with one polar body
Ascites may results from which of the following?
Constriction of the hepatic artery
Blockage of the portal vein
Higher than normal pressure in hepatic veins
Constriction of the celiac trunk
Higher than normal pressure in hepatic veins
Kupffer cells are found in which of the following spaces? Space of Disse Hepatic sinusoids Bile canaliculi Space of Wirsung
Hepatic sinusoids
Which of the following prevents the pancreas from digesting itself? Chymotrypsin inhibitor Trypsin inhibitor Phospholipase Pancreatic amylase
Trypsin inhibitor
Which of the following characterizes pancreatic secretions under low flow rates?
Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride
Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and bicarb
Hypotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride
Hypotonic, composed mostly of sodium and bicarb
Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride
Which fo the following orient themselves on the outsides of micelles? Cholesterol Free fatty acids Carbohydrates Bile salts
Bile salts
Which of the following levels of blood constituents would not be observed in a diabetic coma? Low blood glucose Low keto acids High bicarb Low cholesterol
High bicarb
Flexed arms and legs that resist extension would result in which of the following on the Apgar test? A score of 0 A score of 1 A score of 2 Not measured on the apgar test
A score of 2
Which of the following vitamins is needed by the fetus to create normal clotting factors? A C E K
K
Fetal blood from the right ventricle going to the descending aorta is pumped through which opening? Foramen ovale Ductus arteriosus Ductus venosus Foramen soventus
Ductus arteriosus
The first three or four days after birth, the neonate relies on what energy store? Glucose from mother's milk Fat from mother's milk Stored glucose Stored protein and fat
Stored protein and fat
Excessive variations in blood gasses normally seen in neonates is typically due to which of the following? Residual fluid in the lungs Underdeveloped CNS respiratory center High heart rate Frequent periods of apnea
Frequent periods of apnea
If there is a mutation in the growth hormone receptor and growth hormone us unable to bind to liver cells, what would the outcome be?
Low levels of IGF1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure
High levels of IGF1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure
Low levels of IGF1 (somatomedin C) expression, no effect on growth
Low levels of IGF1 (somatomedin C) expression, accelerated growth
Low levels of IGF1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure
ADH is primarily formed in which of the following locations? Supraoptic nuclei acidophils of adenohypophysis Paraventricular nuclei Basophils of adenohypophysis
Supraoptic nuclei
Growth hormone adenomas that develop in adulthood can result in what condition? Gigantism Dwarfism Acromegaly None of these
Acromegaly
The facial nerve is responsible for which of the following?
Motor control of the eye
Motor control of the heart
Motor control of the muscles of facial expression
Taste in the posterior third of the tongue
Motor control of facial expression
The ciliary ganglion is an extension of which cranial nerve? III VII IX X
III
Which cranial nerve is responsible for taste on the posterior portion of the tongue? III V VII IX
IX
In the early stages of development, the trophoblast will give rise to which of the following structures? Amnion and placenta only Amnion, yolk sac, and embryo only Placenta only Placenta and yolk sac
Placenta only
Which of the following descriptions best describes the relationship between maternal blood and fetal blood?
Maternal blood and fetal blood freely intermingle within the trophoblastic lacunae
Fetal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but maternal blood remains confined within maternal vessels
Both maternal blood and fetal blood remain confined within their respective vessels during pregnancy
Maternal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but fetal blood remains confined within fetal vessels
Maternal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but fetal blood remains confined within fetal vessels
Which of the following substances moves across the placental membranes via facilitated diffusion? Creatine Urea Fats Glucose
Glucose
During pregnancy, syncytiotrophoblast cells secrete estrogens. These estrogens are derived from androgens secreted by which of the following sources? Granulosa cells Cytotrophoblast cells Maternal adrenal cortex Maternal and fetal adrenal cortices
Maternal and fetal adrenal cortices
Prolactin promotes milk secretion. It has full effects on milk secretion after birth due to which of the following physiological reasons?
The corpus luteum produces an extra surge of estrogen
Levels of oxytocin have increased considerably
Progesterone and estrogen effects of placenta have been eliminated
Human chorionic gondaotropin levels increase considerably after birth
Progesterone and estrogen effects of placenta have been eliminated
A sharp surge in which of the following hormones precedes ovulation by about 24 hours? LH FSH Estrogen Progesterone
LH
During the early stages of pregnancy, involution (degeneration) of the corpus luteum is prevented by which of the following hormones? Estrogen Progesterone Human chorionic gonadotropin Human somatomammotropin
Human chorionic gonadotropin
Which of the following is responsible for gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi resulting in the release of bile from the gallbladder? Gastrin Secretin CCK Motilin
CCK
