T Cell-Mediated Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

1st phase of T cell response: Ag recognition

A

Ag recognition of T cells induces IL-2 secretions followed by clonal expansion of T cells, and differentiation into effector and memory cells.

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2
Q

How do effector CD4+ cells respond to binding Ags?

A

They produce cytokines that regulate the recruitment and activation of leukocytes and activation of B cells.

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3
Q

How do effector CD8+ cells respond to binding Ags?

A

They kill infected host cells.

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4
Q

How does the number of effector T cells change once the Ag is eliminated?

A

The number of effector T cells is greatly reduced, but the memory cells remain in high quantity.

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5
Q

3 required signals for proliferation and differentiation of T cells:

A

Ag recognition
Costimulation
Cytokines

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6
Q

Activation of T cells requires recognition of Ag by:

A

Only DCs.

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7
Q

Effector T cells can recognize Ags presented by:

A

Tissue macrophages and B cells.

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8
Q

CD28:CTLA4

A

Inhibitory signal. Costimulation.

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9
Q

CD28:CD80/86

A

Activating signal. Costimulation.

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10
Q

LFA1:ICAM1

A

Adhesion w/ APCs.

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11
Q

ITAMs

A

The region of signaling proteins that are phosphorylated on Tyr residues and become docking sites for tyrosine kinases.

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12
Q

ITIMs

A

The region of signaling proteins that are sites for tyrosine phosphatases that counteract the action of ITAMs.

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13
Q

Superantigens

A

Bind to MHC II molecules and the V region of beta subunit of the TCR. This causes the T cell and APC to stick together and continuously produce TNF, IL-1, and IL-2, which can lead to shock.

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14
Q

Staphylococcus enterotoxins are:

A

Bacterial SAgs that cause food poisoning and TSS.

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15
Q

DCs’ costimulation mechanism

A

Usually DCs do not express a high enough quantity of costimulation molecules. However, once the T cell binds the Ag on an APC, it releases cytokines which activate DCs to express the costimulatory molecules.

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16
Q

CD28 binds to:

A

B7-1 (CD80) and B7-2 (CD86) on activated APCs.

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17
Q

CTLA4 regulation

A

Naive and memory T cells have high levels of CD28, but little CTLA4. After the TCR is triggered by the Ag, CTLA4 is transported to the cell surface.

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18
Q

The stronger the stimulation through the TCR (and CD28):

A

The greater the amount of CTLA4 deposited on the T cell surface. Therefore, CTLA4 functions as a signal dampener.

19
Q

Programmed cell death protein 1 (PD1) function

A

Regulate inflammatory responses in tissues by effector T cells recognizing Ag in peripheral tissues.

20
Q

PD1L

A

Downregulates activity of T cells and limits collateral damage in response to infection.
The best signal for PDL1 induction is INF-gamma.

21
Q

Excessive induction of PD1 causes:

A

An anergic state in T cells.

22
Q

IL-12 causes:

A

Activation of signaling molecule STAT4 that leads to expression of T-bet, which facilitates the generation of Th1.

23
Q

IL-4 causes:

A

Activation of STAT6 that leads to expression of GATA3 which facilitates the generation of Th2.

24
Q

IL-6 causes:

A

Activation of STAT3 that leads to expression of RORyt which facilitates the generation of Th17 cells.

25
Q

IGF-beta causes:

A

Activation of signaling molecule SMAD2-SMAD4 that promotes expression of FOXP3 and generation of T regulatory cells.

26
Q

Costimulatory molecules in CTLs

A

CD28-CD80

27
Q

T-bet regulates:

A

Transcription of genes coding for perforin, granzymes, annd IFN-gamma.

28
Q

Initiation of TCR signaling

A

ITAMs on zeta chains are phosphorylated.
Phosphorylated ITAMs bind ZAP-70 via the SH2 domains.
ZAP-70 is phosphorylated by Lck and activates ZAP-70 catalytic activity.
Activated ZAP-70 phosphorylates LAT and SLP-76, which functions as a scaffold to recruit other signaling molecules.
Phosphorylated LAT recuits GADS and GRB2, which phosporylates PLC1.

29
Q

PLC1 mechanism

A

PLC1 produces IP3 and DAG.
IP3 leads to increase in cytosolic Ca2+ and NFAT activation.
DAG activates both PKC which activates NF-kB.
DAG also actiavtes Ras that activates MAPK pathways and AP-1.

30
Q

IL-2 induces the:

A

Anti-apoptotic protein Bcl-2.

31
Q

IL-2 stimulates the cell cycle by:

A

Degredation of p27 (cell cycle inhibitor).

32
Q

IL-2 is required for the survival and function of what cells?

A

Treg cells.

33
Q

Changes in CD69 expression after T cell activation:

A

CD69 binds CD69L and reduces surface expression of S1PR1. This causes activated T cells to remain in the LNs long enough to receive signals that initiate the proliferation/differentiation into effector and memory cells.
After cells division, CD69 expression decreases.

34
Q

Actvated T cells express how much S1PR1?

A

High levels, so they can leave the LN.

35
Q

Expression of CD40L in activated T cells

A

T cells recognize Ag causing expresion of CD40L.
CD40L binds to CD40 on DCs, which leads to DC expression of B7, which causes secretion of cytokines,
Activated DCs stimulate T cell proliferation and differentiation.

36
Q

IL-2 starvation triggers:

A

The mitochondrial intrinsic pathway of apoptosis.

37
Q

Regulatory mechanisms contributing to normal contraction of immune responses (3):

A

CTLA4 and PD-1 (inhibitory receptors)
Apoptosis induced by TNFRI and Fas
Inhibition by Treg cell products

38
Q

T-bet drives differentiation of:

Blimp-1 drives proliferation of:

A

CD4+ T cells.

Memory cells.

39
Q

Memory T cells are generated from effector T cells via:

A

Epigenetic modifications.

40
Q

Naive T cells respond in __________, while memory T cells respond in __________.

A

5-7 days

1-3 days

41
Q

IL-7 and IL-15 induce the expression of:

A

Anti-apoptotic proteins and stimulate low-level proliferation.

42
Q

Central memory T cells

A

Home mainly to spleen and LNs and circulate in the blood.

They are capable of proliferation.

43
Q

Effector memory T cells

A

Circulate in blood.

Cannot proliferate, but secrete IFN-gamma and TNF or become cytotoxic.

44
Q

Resident tissue memory T cells

A

Reside in the epithelial barrier.
Produce IFN-gamma and TNF and are specific for Ags that have been previously encountered through that barrier epithelium.