T-1A MQF June 2013 Flashcards

1
Q

An Operating procedure or technique which is considered essential to emphasize is a ____?

A

Note

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2
Q

If either electronic fuel control fails, the synchronization system is still operative.

A

False

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3
Q

Once TCAS announces “clear of conflict”, the pilot should

A

return to his/her ATC clearance or as directed by ATC

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4
Q

Failure to properly set the decision height (DH) in the radio altimeter could result in

A

nuisance warnings from the GPWS

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5
Q

If the ARC format is selected on the DSP, the EHSI will present an expanded 70 degree (approximate) compass segment

A

True

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6
Q

The weather radar system detects ________ along the flight path ahead of the aircraft. The radar antenna sweeps _____ to paint a full screen radar picture of the precipitation pattern along the flight path

A

wet precipitation, +/- 60 degrees

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7
Q

Due to weather radar system limitations, _____

A

do not rely on the system as the only means to avoid adverse weather

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8
Q

If the left engine fails while the synchronization system is on, there will be a maximum of 1.5% rpm spool down of the right engine. For this reason, the engine synchronization system should be off during takeoff and landing.

A

True

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9
Q

Avoid finger lift actuation to preclude inadvertent engine shutdown when retarding the throttle toward IDLE

A

true

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10
Q

The weather radar system provides radar data for up to _______ NM

A

300

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11
Q

If the antenna on the WX radar is tilted down too far and GCS mode is selected, a GCS wedge may occur. The wedge is displayed as a black area located within ____ of aircraft heading

A

+/- 10 degrees

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12
Q

Binding throttles may indicate an impending throttle linkage cable break with subsequent loss of throttle authority. Throttle linkage cable failure usually results in an uncommanded ending shutdown, however, it is possible for the engine to remain at the power setting at the time of failure or retard to to idle. If the throttle linkage cable breaks and the engine flames out, or if necessary to control the aircraft due to an engine stuck at high power settings, shut down the engine using the Fuel/Hydraulic valve close switch, then accomplish the engine shutdown during flight checklist in section III

A

True

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13
Q

As oxygen cylinders become chill, the pressure is reduced. A temperature drop of 100 degrees F will reduce the pressure 20%. If the pressure begins to drop while the aircraft is in level flight or descending, ______

A

suspect an oxygen leak

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14
Q

In the event of a hung start, advance the throttle beyond IDLE. Increased Fuel Flow could result in engine cooling.

A

False

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15
Q

After flushing the lavatory, _____ to prevent contents from overflowing

A

leave the knife valve open at least a 1/4 inch

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16
Q

Resetting a popped circuit breaker in the fuel system is allowable.

A

False

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17
Q

During cross-side operations, pilots should cross-check ______ with other reliable instruments

A

All of the above (Position, attitude and altitude)

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18
Q

Asterisk (*) items in the checklist

A

need not be accomplished on subsequent flights by the same crew flying the same aircraft on the same day

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19
Q

While using the exterior inspection checklist, specific attentions hold be given to detect fluid leakage

A

true

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20
Q

The exterior door handle will stow by activation of the interior handle

A

False

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21
Q

Failure to stow the exterior door handle can result in damage to the door in flight

A

True

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22
Q

During the walk around, support the main landing gear door if releasing by the manual system

A

True

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23
Q

During the exterior inspection, how many circuit breaker panels are in the aft compartment that are required to be checked?

A

3

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24
Q

When the nose wheel mechanical disconnect pin is disconnected, nose wheel steering is still available.

A

False

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25
Q

With respect to the door locking pins, ______ or the door may open in flight

A

all eight must be white

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26
Q

If pilot valves are inoperative, single point pressure refueling should not be attempted and the aircraft should not be flown.

A

True

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27
Q

An improperly installed escape hatch can result in loss of cabin pressure in flight

A

True

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28
Q

Failure to remove the escape hatch lock pin will

A

All of the above (Make hatch inoperable from the outside, inside and delay emergency ground egress form the escape hatch)

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29
Q

Repeated tests of the AHRS battery are acceptable and will validate AHRS battery performance.

A

False

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30
Q

After pushing the battery feed test button and the battery switch is placed to “EMER”, check for operation of ___________

A

RTU #1

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31
Q

When the cabin pressure controller is set, set the altitude to _______ feet above the highest anticipated cruise altitude or according to mission requirements

A

1,000

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32
Q

Turning the manual pressure control knob past its normal range __________

A

could damage the threads or needle valve seat

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33
Q

When the battery fee test button is pushed with the battery switch ON, check for

A

A & B (FDR FAIL annunciator illuminated, STBY PWR ON annunciator illuminated)

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34
Q

Landing with brakes applied could result in

A

All of the above (Blown tires, potential runway departure, damage to the aircraft)

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35
Q

The H STAB DEICE TEST position will

A

B & C (Check de-ice timer in the fast advance mode through the 12 segment positions, allies power to the heater elements for 0.6 seconds in sequence with a pause after each six)

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36
Q

When checking the stall warning system ______

A

A & B (the master test switch must remain in the L or R STALL until stick shaker actuates twice, check hat the indexer on the glare shield follows AOA gauge indication)

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37
Q

When testing the indicator lights, the flowing lights do not illuminate

A

All of the Above (red landing gear unlocked indicator, starter DISENGAGE button, and ENG START buttons)

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38
Q

When doing the stall warning test on the left or right side, the stick shaker should activate

A

twice when the AOA pointer passes 0.4 to 0.5 and 0.7

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39
Q

After selecting the left tank during the fuel cross feed check, these lights will illuminate

A

Left boost pump light, right jet pump light, XFEED in-transit operation light

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40
Q

When running the pitch or roll trim switch for ______ seconds continuously, the trim arming horn will activate.

A

5

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41
Q

During flight control checks, after the pilot checks the controls, the copilot must also physicaly check the flight controls.

A

True

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42
Q

If starting engines with battery power only, do not start the seconds engine until the first engine’s load meter reads below ______ amps

A

150

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43
Q

For generator assisted starts on the second engine, the operating engine must be at idle

A

True

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44
Q

The stabilizer anti-ice fail annunciator will illuminate in _____ seconds once the anti-ice switch is set to the test position

A

3

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45
Q

While accomplishing the horizontal stabilizer de-ice test, if one of the 12 elements is open, the operation lights will remain off for 1-2 seconds during the test

A

True

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46
Q

Do not use the horizontal stabilizer anti-ice on the ground because a squat switch failure could cause damage to the ________

A

horizontal stabilizer

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47
Q

If not monitored properly, the VNAV function of the FMS may result in terrain impact

A

True

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48
Q

Do not operate entine anti-ice during ground operations (except for preflight test) at temperatures above ______ degrees Celsius OAT/SAT

A

10

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49
Q

An external power cart is required for engines tart at ambient temperatures below

A

5 degrees F

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50
Q

The throttles should be set at ____ to ensure that the anti-ice vale is open when checking wing and engine anti-ice

A

70 % N2

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51
Q

When taxiing for takeoff through ice and snow, leave the flaps ______ until approaching the runway to avoid accumulations of i.e. being cast off from the tires

A

retracted

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52
Q

An operating procedure or technique which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed is

A

Caution

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53
Q

During a wake turbulence takeoff, allow a minimum of ____ minutes behind a large type aircraft. With and effective crosswind over _____ knots, this interval may be reduced

A

2, 5

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54
Q

For a wake turbulence takeoff

A

a crosswind over 5 knots may reduce the required interval

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55
Q

After the gear is retracted on a a normal takeoff, with two engines operating, adjust the pitch to climb at a minimum of _____ until reaching _______ feet above field elevation

A

Vco + 10, 400

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56
Q

Flaps are retracted after takeoff passing _____ feet above field elevation and a minimum airspeed of _____

A

400, Vco + 10

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57
Q

During takeoff and landing, to avoid obscuring visibility, the visors must be in the stowed position

A

True

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58
Q

For extended high altitude cruise, the windshield heat should be set at

A

LOW

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59
Q

Ignition switches should be on

A

B and C (when flight is through turbulence and/or visible precipitation, for all takeoffs, approaches and landings)

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60
Q

During the cruise check a temperature drop of ______F will reduce the oxygen pressure by _____%

A

100, 20

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61
Q

Starting a descent at FL 200, maximum range descent is flown at ______, enroute descent is flown at ______ and rapid descent is flown at _______

A

230, 250, 330

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62
Q

Maximum range descent is _________.

A

Idle, clean, 0.70 IMN above 35,900 feet, 230 KIAS below 35,900 feet

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63
Q

During preflight inspection, a drop of fuel hanging on the sniffle valve _____

A

is acceptable

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64
Q

Steep idle power approaches, or approaches requiring late changes in pitch attitude during the landing flare are acceptable in the T-1A due to the stressed landing gear

A

False

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65
Q

Use of stabilizer trim for round out int he flare could induce strong pitch up tendency that would be difficult to control in the event that a go-around is attempted

A

True

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66
Q

In the event of a suspected hard landing:

A

A & B (Make an AFTO Form 781 write up with your gross weight, airspeed and RA/VSI, gear should remain down and the mission terminated

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67
Q

Touchdown will normally be made at approximately Vapp minus ________ KIAS

A

6

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68
Q

The wipers are functional at flight speeds up to __________ knots indicated airspeed. higher speeds can cause damage to the wiper motor and possible blade separation.

A

200

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69
Q

The takeoff trim setting mark is small and can be hard to see under many conditions. Avoid fixating on this gage while resetting trim to maintain aircraft control.

A

True

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70
Q

Failure to properly reset the trim can result in

A

All of the Above (Lower than normal yoke forces, over rotation and higher than normal yoke forces)

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71
Q

Crossfeed will supply fuel to a single engine from both wing tanks simultaneously

A

False

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72
Q

After landing on a snow or slush covered runway

A

do not retract flaps beyond 10 degrees

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73
Q

If the parking brake is set from the copilots side

A

A & C (binding could affect normal braking action from the pilot’s side at a later time., temporary binding in the mixing valve could occur)

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74
Q

During cross feed operation, the boost pump in the non-selected fuel feed chamber will not activate if the boost pump switch is in AUTO and the fuel feed line pressure drops below 5 psi

A

False

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75
Q

If any system emergency affecting safety of flight is experienced prior to S1 speed, the takeoff should be aborted.

A

True

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76
Q

If an emergency is experienced at or after S1 speed,

A

The takeoff should be continued

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77
Q

If the aircraft is decelerated and engages the barrier perpendicular to the middle half, no damage to the aircraft should be expected

A

False

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78
Q

Which statements(s) are true?

A

A & B (Taxi over cables lying on the runway is acceptable at slow speeds (less than 5 knots), Landing should be accomplished beyond arresting cables)

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79
Q

If engine shutdown or failure occurs in flight, consider the use of cross feed to balance the fuel load, unless fuel system contamination is suspected

A

True

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80
Q

The base of the emergency escape hatch is 4.5 feet above the ground with the landing gear extended. Use caution when using this exit

A

True

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81
Q

With dual Remote Tuning Unit (RTU) failure, how can VHF guard (121.5) be tuned?

A

Pulling and resetting the VHF circuit breaker

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82
Q

If UHF guard mode was on when the dual RTU failure occurred, guard reception is still available

A

True

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83
Q

Using the engine fire switch lights to close the fuel valve also closes the hydraulic valve

A

True

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84
Q

Pulling and resetting the UHF circuit breaker after dual RTU failure does what?

A

A & B (turns off the squelch, returns to the frequency tuned at the time of failure

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85
Q

NAV auto tuning is disabled when the RMT TUNE switch is in the DSABL position

A

True

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86
Q

In the event of a fuel quantity indicator failure, which of the following are true?

A

Both gauges’ dial pointers move off scale to below the zero mark to indicate an inoperative condition

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87
Q

Securing an engine after a failure/fire on takeoff should not be accomplished prior to ______

A

A & C (400 ft AGL (1500 optional), clear of obstructions)

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88
Q

If an engine fire occurs immediately after takeoff when using the ACM OFF procedure, the bleed air selector may be turned to NORM at any time

A

False

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89
Q

Do not attempt to restart an engine that has been shut down due to obvious mechanical difficulties

A

True

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90
Q

If a spin is entered:

A

simultaneously reduce power to idle, apply full rudder opposite spin direction, forward elevator control and neutral roll control

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91
Q

During a starter assisted airstart, a relight should normal be obtained within _____ seconds after the throttle is moved to idle

A

10

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92
Q

During a windmilling airstart, should the temperature rise indicate a hot start, place the throttle to CUTOF and windmill the engine for __________ seconds before attempting another start

A

30

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93
Q

The FMS does not recognize step-down fixes between the FAF and the MAP and will not try o comply with them. If a given approach has any step-down fixes between the FAF and arrival at MDA, VNAV should not be used for this portion of the approach

A

True

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94
Q

During the flight control check of the rudder, ensure that both the PF and the PM independently observe a proportional displacement of their left and right rudder pedals and a proportional rudder control surface movement

A

True

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95
Q

The switch light in the fire protection group on the shroud panel is used to close the _________ on the respective engine

A

A & B (main fuel line shutoff valve, hydraulic valve)

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96
Q

The autopilot is not capable of controlling the aircraft in the event of an engine failure.

A

False

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97
Q

Rudder boost is provided bye the rudder servo of the autopilot.

A

True

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98
Q

In the event of electrical system failure, excluding the aircraft artery, placing the battery switch to EMER causes the battery to power the

A

All of the above (emergency bus, standby battery, standby bus)

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99
Q

If smoke or fumes are emanating from the air-conditioning vents, select L ENG or R ENG in an attempt to isolate the source. Bleed air source selector must remain in each position approximately ______ seconds to allow adequate purging.

A

20

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100
Q

With oil pressure below ______, execute engine shutdown

A

40 psi

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101
Q

If high oil temperature is experienced, _______

A

increase affected engine throttle within N1 limits

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102
Q

While truing to eliminate smoke or fumes from the inside of the aircraft, turning the manual pressure controller fully counterclockwise will decrease the cabin pressure to the absolute pressure regulator setting of

A

12,500 +/- 1,500

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103
Q

Under high temperature, low altitude, high throttle setting conditions, entire oil temperature may exceed _______ when the throttles are reduced due to a reduction in cooling field through the fuel/oil heat exchanger. The maximum transient limit is _____ and _____ should not be exceeded for more than ____ minutes

A

121 degrees C, 135 degrees C, 121 degrees C, 15

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104
Q

If you have an EFC failure

A

matching the throttles using the engine with the EFC off may cause over boosting of the other engine

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105
Q

If the fuel filter bypass annunciator is illuminated, the bypass filters is purifying the fuel to the engine

A

False

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106
Q

Left or right fuel level low annunciator illumination indicates that approximately ____ pounds of fuel remains in the respective tank

A

200

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107
Q

If acceptable takeoff performance can only be achieved by selecting 0 degrees flaps and/or ACM off, takeoff in the presence of potential windshear is not recommended. Windshear conditions will quickly negate these minor performance enhancements.

A

True

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108
Q

If automatic starter dropout has not occurred by ______ % N2, press the starter disengage button.

A

45

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109
Q

Autopilot engagement is not possible with the pitch trim selector in the EMER position

A

True

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110
Q

An operating procedure or technique which could result in personal injury or loss of life is not carefully followed is a _____

A

Warning

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111
Q

What provides ground fault protection for external power?

A

Battery protection circuits

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112
Q

Air entering the cabin or pressurization during air conditioning emergency operation will not still be hot until the bleed air selector has been turned off.

A

True

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113
Q

In the event of a bleed air duct failure, if the wing anti-ice switch is turned OFF and the annunciator extinguishes, flight may be continued if icing conditions are avoided.

A

True

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114
Q

If the AIR COND FAIL annunciator illuminates, the system will switch from normal to emergency pressure mode automatically

A

True

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115
Q

If a malfunction occurs with an associated loss of brakes upend landing, ___________

A

Place the anti-skid switch to the off position and attempt braking from both the pilot’s and copilot’s position. If braking is not restored, use the emergency brake system.

116
Q

The emergency descent procedures are intended to be used for a maximum rate descent to quickly escape the high altitude environment

A

True

117
Q

To execute an emergency descent

A

All of the above (you man use up to 45 degrees angle of bank to aid in lowering the nose, lower the nose to approximately 20 degrees, and accelerate to 330 KIAS or 0.78 MACH whichever is slower

118
Q

The maximum zero fuel weight is

A

13,000 pounds

119
Q

During a controllability check, the aircraft speed should be decreased to a point where full control deflection is required to maintain controlled flight

A

False

120
Q

Do not attempt an actual single engine go-around after selecting flaps to 30 degrees

A

True

121
Q

When executing a forced landing with no power, if sufficient altitude remains after reaching a suitable landing area, a rectangular pattern will provide the best observation of surface condition, wind speed, and direction.

A

False

122
Q

Pushing the AV STBY BLO button isolates power to the failed blower system.

A

False

123
Q

Pushing the AV STBY BLO button does not isolate power to the failed blower system. If an overheat condition occurs, isolate the circuit by pulling the GALLEY circuit breaker.

A

True

124
Q

Electrical loads up to ______ amps are permissible for single generator operations above 32,500

A

280

125
Q

If cruising below 32,500 feet, single generators operations load capacity is ______ amps

A

400

126
Q

During a dual generator failure situation, if the generators fail to reset and flight conditions permit, attempt to reset by turning both generator switches OFF, and reset them one at a time.

A

True

127
Q

Illumination of the AC BUS SHED annunciator is advisory only and indicates a combination inverter/load bus malfunction that will result in the loss of flap position indicator and both oil pressure indicators

A

True

128
Q

When the BATT CUT-OFF annunciator is illuminated, it means the battery ________

A

relay is open; battery charging will not occur

129
Q

If the DOOR UNLOCK annunciator illuminates in flight, the jump seat may check the security of the cabin door as long as he/she stays strapped in.

A

False

130
Q

The DOOR UNLOCK annunciator indicates that

A

a and/or b ( the cabin door pins are not fully seated, the aft fuselage door is not fully closed and locked.

131
Q

The CABIN PRESSURE LO warning annunciator will illuminate when the

A

cabin altitude exceeds 9,500 +/- 500 feet

132
Q

If only two pilots are onboard, crew members will exchange seats only when the autopilot is engaged

A

False

133
Q

The pilot flying must announce to the crew when the autopilot is engaged or disengaged

A

True

134
Q

Only the pilot and copilot need to monitor UHF and VHF frequencies during descent when three crew members are aboard the aircraft

A

False

135
Q

The flight crew will make all necessary entries in AFTO 781 to indicate when any limitations have been exceeded. Entries shall include

A

All the above

136
Q

Do not operate surface anti-ice systems inflight at ram air temperatures above 10 degrees Celsius.

A

True

137
Q

The yaw damper must be disengaged by 200 feet AGL for all landings.

A

False

138
Q

During ground aborts within a given stopping distance, the same amount of heat is generated by the brakes whether the brakes are applied in one steady application or a series of short applications.

A

True

139
Q

When ______ million foot pounds of brake energy are absorbed per brake, thermal fused screws may release resulting in flat tires

A

4.05

140
Q

What should you do if braking effort puts you between the 8.1 million and 14.8 million foot-pounds range on the brake energy limits chart?

A

All of the above (This should be regarded as hot brakes, park the aircraft, shut down engines)

141
Q

For practice approach to stalls, what power setting should be used to recover?

A

MCT

142
Q

During windshear recovery the best pitch attitude is one which will nibble in and out of the stick shaker.

A

True

143
Q

Accumulations of 1/2 inch of ice can add ______ pounds or more to the aircraft gross weight

A

500

144
Q

Apply _____ % of the tailwind component to CFL, Vcef, Vr, Vb and take-off distance

A

150

145
Q

After checkling flight controls during cold weather operations, the speed brakes may not fully retract due to lack of airflow across the wing surfaces.

A

True

146
Q

Take-of rated thrust is the maximum allowable thrust (determined by %N1) and varies with

A

All of the above (pressure altitude, ram air temperature, engine bleed)

147
Q

Increase approach speed and touchdown speed by 50% of the use increment, not to exceed a _____ knot correction.

A

10

148
Q

Vmcg is _____ KIAS, and is the minimum speed which (with one engine failed) will allow directional control without deviating more than _____ feet laterally

A

88,25

149
Q

Center of gravity problems affecting longitudinal stability during flight should be considered prior to __________

A

Personnel movement within the cabin area

150
Q

Deviations from any flight rule are authorized only when

A

All of the above (An inflight emergency requires mediate, deviation is necessary to protect lives, when safety of flight dictates)

151
Q

When an alternate is required and the pilot uses the ceiling and visibility weather criterion to determine suitability of the original destination, total flight plan fuel

A

need not include the fuel required for an approach and missed approach at the original destination

152
Q

When computing fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, you should use fuel consumption rates for

A

Maximum endurance at 10,000 feet

153
Q

When the “ANTI-SKID FAIL” annunciator is illuminated, anti-skid braking is not available and braking will be in the power brake mode.

A

True

154
Q

Pilots operating retractable gear aircraft must report “gear down” before _________.

A

Runway Threshold

155
Q

USAF aircraft must fly under IFR to the max extent practical and shall fly IFR if:

A

All of the above (operating in class A airspace, operating in excess of 180 KTAS within federal airways, operating at night, unless the mission cannot be conducted under IFR, weather conditions do not permit VFR flight)

156
Q

Aerobatics is defined as intentionally performed spins, vertical recoveries, and other maneuvers that require pitch and bank angles greater than ________ degrees

A

90

157
Q

The control and performance concept procedural steps are (in order):

A

establish pitch and power, trim off pressures, crosscheck, adjust

158
Q

In the event a formation is unable to maintain VMC while aborting a low level, lead will direct the route abort, giving base heading and ERAA at a minimum. Lead will set _____ and initiate a climb to ERAA at ______KIAS (unless otherwise briefed). The wingman will set ______, initiate a climb at ______ KIAS (unless otherwise briefed) to ERAA plus 1,0000 feet. While executing the climb, wingman will ensure lateral separation (wingman will normally execute lost wingman procedures while executing the climb to the directed altitude). Once obstacle clearance is assured, the wingman may set power as required to attain ______ mile spacing. WARNING: The wingman is responsible for avoiding obstacles while performing the lost wingman procedure.

A

MCT, 250, MCT, 220, 1

159
Q

As a guide for instrument turns of 30 degrees or less, the bank angle should be approximate -_____. For turns of more than 30 degrees, use a bank angle of _________

A

The number of degrees to be turned, 30 degrees.

160
Q

Absence of an ILS identifier:

A

indicates an unreliable signal

161
Q

Reliable DME signals may be received at distances put o 199 NM at line-of-sight altitude with an accuracy of _____ mile or _____ percent of the distance, whichever is greater.

A

1/2, 3

162
Q

The glide slope signal is usable to a distance of _____ NM from the glide slope antenna unless otherwise depicted on the IAP

A

10

163
Q

Where procedures depict a ground track, the pilot is expected to correct for known wind conditions, unless being radar vectored

A

True

164
Q

When proceeding to a station, turning to keep the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line describes

A

Homing

165
Q

When does the wingman maneuver to the stack level position for a formation tactical overhead pattern entry?

A

Initial

166
Q

When correcting back to the arc, displace the bearing pointer _______ degrees from the reference point for each 1/2 mile deviation to the inside of the arc and _______ degrees for each 1/2 mile outside the arc

A

5, 10

167
Q

When checking the altimeter against a known checkpoint on the ground, the maximum allowable error is _____ feet

A

75

168
Q

Normal braking can be used with emergency braking because the systems are independent

A

False

169
Q

Which is a correct standard holding pattern,

A

Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet

170
Q

Emergency braking has anti-skid protection

A

False

171
Q

ATC should issue holding instructions at least ________ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. Within _____ minutes or reaching the fix and clearance beyond the fix has not be received, reduce to holding airspeed

A

5, 3

172
Q

Alternate air refueling rendezvous procedures in order of precedence are primary _____, Secondary ______, tertiary _____

A

Use the computed backup timing; receiver calls miles from the ARCP (off FMS) every 2 NM;, Receiver calls DME off the NAVAID defining the ARIP/ARCP line every 2 NM (if applicable)

173
Q

If the holding course is NOT within 70 degrees of the aircraft heading (using the 70 degree method):

A

Both B and C above (turn outbound in the shorter direction to parallel the holding course, if this turn places you on the non-holding side, parallel or intercept holding course inbound)

174
Q

During an enroute descent the controller tells you that you are cleared for the approach and you are below a published altitude restriction. You should:

A

maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the approach

175
Q

Prior to the IAF you must

A

All of the above (recheck the weather, review the IAP, check the heading and attitude systems, obtain clearance for the approach)

176
Q

while being vectored, repeat:

A

All of the above (all headings, altitudes (departing and assigned), all altimeter settings)

177
Q

Wen flying a non-DME high-altitude teardrop approach, if you arrive at the IAF at an altitude below that published:

A

maintain altitude and proceed outbound 15 seconds for each 1,000 feet the aircraft tis below the published altitude before starting the descent.

178
Q

As a technique, if the receiver is less than ______ of the computed turn range (half-way through the turn) or the bearing pointer is below the ______ degree index, an overrun can be expected.

A

1/3; 45

179
Q

During cell, lead will fly ______ KIAS

A

220

180
Q

The remain within distance of a procedure turn is measured from

A

the procedure turn fix

181
Q

The parking brake should not be set

A

All of the above (if the brakes are hot, during low temperatures, when a accumulation of moisture is present, using the copilots brake pedals)

182
Q

The localizer has a usable range of at least ______ miles within 10 degrees of the course centerline

A

18

183
Q

The final approach course on a non-radar final may vary from the runway heading as much as _____ degrees (except localizer) and still be published as a straight-in approach

A

30

184
Q

If you a re more than one dot below or two dots above glue slope on an ILS, you

A

either a or c above (should not descend below localizer minimums, may continue descent to decision height if the glide slope is recaptured

185
Q

In the event of flap system malfunction, the FLAP circuit breaker hold be pulled to prevent further flap actuation due to air loads or switch contact proximity

A

True

186
Q

T F Virga poses a wind shear threat to aircraft

A

True

187
Q

Do not operate engine anti-ice on the ground at temperatures above _______ degrees Celsius OAT/SAT except for preflight check

A

10

188
Q

Aeronautical charts do not depict man-made obstacles less than 200 feet AGL or a change in terrain until it exceeds the chart contour interval. The worst situation would occur if a 199-foot obstacle sat on terrain with an elevation just below the next higher contour. For a TPC (1:500,000) with a contour interval of 5000 feet, this results in an uncharted obstacle existing 698 feet above charted terrain.

A

True

189
Q

Pilots must adhere to the following when entering Class C airspace

A

Both A and B (Pilots must be in two-way communication with ATC, Unless otherwise authorized, when within 4 NM of the primary airport at or below 2,500 feet AGL do not exceed 200 KIAS

190
Q

In reference to the flap system, if the 26 VAC primary shed bus is lost _____

A

A & C (flap asymmetry detection is not available, the flap position indicator will be inoperative)

191
Q

Be alert for fog or low cloud formation any time the surface air temperature is within ______ of the dew point, and the spread between the two is _______

A

4 degrees F, decreasing

192
Q

USAF aircraft flying VFR in FAA Class C, D, E (below 10,000’) or G (below 10,000’) airspace must have a prevailing or flight visibility of ______ statute miles and be _____ feet below clouds, _____ feet above clouds and _____ feet horizontal.

A

3; 500; 1,000; 2,000

193
Q

Class B airspace is generally from the surface to _____ feet MSL surrounding the busiest (primary) airports in the NAS. Pilots ______ obtain an ATC clearance to enter Class B airspace even when operating VFR. When departing VFFR from an airport within Class B airspace, _____ a VFR clearance from clearance delivery or ATC

A

10,000; must; obtain

194
Q

T F For frost to form, the dew point of the surrounding air must be colder than freezing

A

True

195
Q

For unusual attitude recoveries, initiate recoveries above _____ KIAS and below ______ KIAS

A

130, 270

196
Q

When conducting practice instrument approaches under VFR, OG/CC or equivalent is the approval authority to allow units to practice instrument approaches under VFR. Which of the following apply?

A

All of the above (Maintain VFR cloud clearances and visibilities, terminal radar service shall be used when available, aircrews must make all position reports IAW AFMAN 11-217 Vol 2, pilots must request ATC authorization to fly the published missed approach)

197
Q

USAF aircraft flying in FAA class C and D airspace must have a prevailing or flight viability of _____ statute miles and be _____ feet below clouds, _____ feet above clouds, and _____ feet horizontal.

A

3; 500; 1,000; 2,000

198
Q

Operation system checks will only be performed during student training sorties on a non-interference basis

A

True

199
Q

Do not taxi with less than _____ feet of wingtip obstacle clearance unless using a marshaller in injunction with a wing walker at the affected wingtip. Never taxi within ____ feet of any obstacle.

A

25, 10

200
Q

The minimum runway length for T-1A takeoffs is _________

A

6,000 feet, critical field length, or distance required to reach reference zero, whichever is greater

201
Q

What will cause the speed brakes to automatically retract?

A

A or B above (Flap extension beyond the 10 degree position, either throttle advance to approximately the “NORM T.O.” position)

202
Q

The minimum runway length for full-stop landings is _____

A

6,0000 feet or computed landing distance, whichever is greater

203
Q

Single engine and no-flap tactical overheads are prohibited

A

True

204
Q

Minimum runway length restrictions and operations where runway available is less than critical field length may be waived by the

A

Operations Group Commander

205
Q

Declare minimum fuel as soon as it can be determined that your fuel at touchdown will be less than _____ pounds

A

500

206
Q

For student syllabus sorties, minimum briefing times are determined IAW the syllabus. For all other sorties, the minimum brief time will be _____ prior to scheduled takeoff. The aircraft command will determine briefing requirements for off-station sorties.

A

1 hour and 30 minutes

207
Q

Electronic flight bags are authorized

A

False

208
Q

Failure to set the proper AOA value

A

may cause erroneous on-speed indications

209
Q

T F Liquid water droplets can be observed in the atmosphere at temperatures much lower than the freezing point

A

True

210
Q

The secondary flight controls are

A

All of the above (flaps, speed brakes, all trim systems, A and C above)

211
Q

Maintain a minimum of ____ feet behind other aircraft while taxiing in daytime

A

150

212
Q

Simulated single engine and no-flap approaches and patterns, as well as, circling approaches may be flown at night if the ceiling and visibility is at least _____ feet and _____ statute miles (SM) or circling minimums, whichever is greater. Visual or instrument glide path guidance (including global positions system (GPS) vertical navigation received from a published area navigation (RNAV) instrument approach) must be available and used for all off-station night landings

A

2,000; 3

213
Q

Aircrew will fly a minimum of _____ feet above the highest unseen obstacle within _____ NM of the aircraft. Once the obstacle is visually acquired, aircrews will fly a minimum of _____ feet above, or laterally void the obstacle by a minimum of _____ feet.

A

500; 2; 500; 2000

214
Q

Aircrews will obtain required flight weather support from one of the following sources (in priority order):

A

Local military weather unit, Servicing Air Force OWS, another military weather unit, FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency, nearest flight service station.

215
Q

When reading a METAR, AUTO refers to an observation taken from

A

an unattended Automated Surface Observation System (ASOS)

216
Q

Reported wind direction is in magnetic north because runways and aircraft instruments are oriented toward magnetic north

A

True

217
Q

If winds are gusting, the next two or three digits immediately rolling the letter “G” (on the METAR line) will be the gust speed or ______ speed

A

peak eind

218
Q

USAF aircraft flying VFR in FAA class B airspace must have a prevailing or flight visibility of _____ statute miles and be ______ below clouds, _____ above clouds and _____ horizontal

A

3 miles vis, clear of clouds

219
Q

Class E Airspace (controlled) exists at _____ AGL unless designated otherwise. The lateral and vertical limits of Class E Airspace up to but not including 18,000 are shown by ______ on sectionals and TACs, magenta for 700’ and blue for 1200’ or other altitudes

A

1200’, narrow bands of vignette

220
Q

Regarding runway visual range (RVR), if reading a METAR reporting P5000FT, this means

A

RVR is greater than 5,000 feet

221
Q

Which of the following is true with an engine shutdown due to a failed turbine rotor shaft

A

A & C (A loud bang will be audible, engine restart is not possible)

222
Q

The aft fuselage door is designed such that the lower section must be opened prior to the upper section

A

True

223
Q

You should never clean a dry window surface without using water or a mild soap solution

A

True

224
Q

Discoloration or crazing will weaken the structural strength of the windows

A

False

225
Q

During _____, to avoid obscuring visibility, the sun visors must be in the stowed position

A

A & B (Takeoff, Landing)

226
Q

Cabin window shades are to be open for ________

A

Takeoff and landing

227
Q

For the instrument cockpit check, it is not necessary to check the heading system for the correct direction of turns during taxi and the proper heading displayed during runway alignment.

A

False

228
Q

All checklist items are to be read and the individual responsible for each item must reply with the appropriate response

A

True

229
Q

During critical phases of flight, direct reference to the checklist is not required

A

True

230
Q

Do not perform the after landing checklist until the aircraft is ____

A

clear of the active runway

231
Q

Before takeoff, the PNF sets the airspeed marker on ____, the PF sets ____ and they memorize ____ if different than S1

A

S1, Vco, Vrot

232
Q

Cross-check your ____ and ____ as the primary references for VFR recoveries, and general area orientation.

A

chart, area landmarks

233
Q

Because the TCAS will not be able to display all air traffic, the pilot is still responsible to clear for other aircraft

A

True

234
Q

Before starting traffic pattern stalls, set the yaw damper to off, set the AOA indexer to 1.3, set the proper approach speed on the airspeed indicator, compute and set the appropriate N1, and clear the area

A

True

235
Q

Actual traffic pattern stalls or approach to stall situations frequently result from improper aircraft handling, maneuvering or configuration

A

True

236
Q

When accomplishing rectangular patterns, fly the base turn to arrive at a ____ to _____ mile final

A

1, 1.5

237
Q

Unless airspace is otherwise classified, Class G aAirspace (uncontrolled) within the US extends up to _____ MSL. At and above this is class E Airspace, excluding the airspace less than _____ above the terrain and certain special use airspace areas.

A

14,500’; 1,500’

238
Q

Do not block air distribution system return air grates and openings int eh aircraft

A

True

239
Q

When receiving your clearance from clearance delivery, you are informed that you are cleared as filed. This means the routes and altitudes in your flight plan have been approved

A

False

240
Q

On final, tower clears you for the option. This means that you may

A

Any of the above (touch and go, full stop, low approach)

241
Q

Class A airspace extends from ______ MSL to FL _______

A

18,000, 600

242
Q

Height above airport (HAA) is associated with which of the following approaches?

A

Circling

243
Q

When cleared for a descent at the pilot’s discretion, you may temporarily level off at any intermediary altitude; however, once that altitude is vacated, you may not return to that altitude.

A

True

244
Q

When ATC requests a speed adjustment for spacing, pilots are expected to maintain that speed +/- ______ knots or +/- ______ Mach.

A

10, 0.02

245
Q

On a sectional or TAC, Class B airspace is depicted by _____ indicating radials and arcs of the sectors, with MSL ceiling and floor altitudes of each sector shown in _____ indicating hundreds of feet.

A

Solid blue lines, solid blue numbers

246
Q

On a Sectional or TAC, Class C Airspace is depicted by _____ indicating radials and arcs of the sectors, with MSL ceiling and floor altitudes of each sector shown in ______ indicating hundreds of feet

A

solid magenta lines; solid magenta numbers

247
Q

On a sectional or TAC, Class D Airspace is depicted by _____ indicating the lateral confines of the airspace, with the ceiling of the airspace depicted in ______

A

dashed blue lines, blue dashed-boxed numbers

248
Q

On a sectional or TAC, Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSA) are depicted by _______ indicating the various sectors within the area, with ceiling and floor altitudes of each sector shown in _____ indicating hundreds of feet.

A

screened black lines, solid black numbers

249
Q

Normally, students will not perform duties in excess of a 12-hour duty day

A

True

250
Q

CAP’s objective is to focus supervisory attention on a student’s progress in training, specific deficiencies, and potential to complete the program.

A

True

251
Q

Operation of the engines with the EFCs off has no effect on the engine, as long as TRT is not exceeded

A

False

252
Q

When throttles are advanced to _____ on he ground, the cabin is pressurized to a positive 80 o 120 foot differential

A

takeoff position

253
Q

On a Sectional or TAC, airports depicted in ____ have control towers, while all those depicted in _____ do not

A

blue, magenta

254
Q

Verbal coordination between the pilot flying the aircraft and the applicable crew member will be required when control of the aircraft is transferred, repositioning fuel control switches (other than preflight checks), a crew member leaves position or goes On or Off inter phone, a crew member goes On or Off oxygen, any electrical power source is changed (other than preflight checks), the autopilot is engaged or disengaged, the PF intends to perform any critical maneuver - takeoff or abort, landing, go-around or touch and go

A

True

255
Q

When using the manual pressurization control, you should raise agin pressure

A

slowly, to prevent injury to the ears

256
Q

PICS will ensure that the current copies of _____ are on board the aircraft

A

All of the above (FLIP en route supplement and enroute charts, FIH, Appropriate arrival, approach and departure procedures)

257
Q

For stopover flights, the PIC will

A

A & B (Ensure the entire flight is planned to its final destination in the greatest detail possible for the first leg of the flight, obtain the latest weather and NOTAM information available for the intended route, destination and alternate before departing each intermediate stop.

258
Q

When operating in FAA airspace, pilots will declare minimum/emergency fuel to the controlling agency when, in their judgment, the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the required/emergency fuel reserve.

A

True

259
Q

During night flight, each crew member must have an operable flashlight

A

True

260
Q

A PIC may make changes to a route or destination not shown on the original flight plan without re-filing provided:

A

All of the above (The change ors not penetrate an ADIZ, the controlling agency approves the change for an IFR flight, the PIC ensures the facility providing flight following is notified of the change, the chafe complies with applicable national rules in an overseas area)

261
Q

If departing from a nonmilitary installation, pilots will file a flight plan with

A

A or B (FSS, ATC facility)

262
Q

The PIC’s signature on the flight plan is evidence of approval and means of all of the following except

A

The aircraft has been inspected and is deemed suitable for flight

263
Q

The PIC will ensure compliance with ATC clearances or instructions unless

A

All of the above (An amended clearance is obtained, an emergency exists, deviation is required in response to a TCAS RA, Deviation is necessary to ensure safety of flight

264
Q

On AR614, traffic may be vetoed within 10 NM of the tankers squawk. Therefore, the tanker and receiver will remain within 1,000 feet vertically and 2 NM horizontally until Houston ARTCC establishes radar contact with both aircraft and authorizes the split up

A

True

265
Q

The T-1 may be flown in formation in the RAN 4 MOA

A

False

266
Q

At Randolph AFB, The T-1 low closed pattern altitude is 1,400 MSL

A

True

267
Q

At Randolph AFB, during restricted straight-in pattern status, entry from QUARRY/ZEUHL is not allowed

A

True

268
Q

12 FTW T-1 Takeoffs during bat procedures require 12 OG/CC approval. If approved for takeoff, T-1s will depart the pattern

A

True

269
Q

When taxiing out of parking at Randolph AFB, if a vehicle is parked between the yellow dashed lines immediately in front of one of the aircraft you are taxiing past, there is at least ______ feet clearance and a wing walker is not necessary

A

10

270
Q

If equipped, anti-collision lights must be on from takeoff to landing

A

True

271
Q

Bat procedures will automatically be implemented from

A

1 hour prior to sunset to 30 minutes after sunrise from 1 April to 31 October

272
Q

Photographing the exterior of the aircraft is authorized unless expressly prohibited

A

True

273
Q

Automatic termination of IFR at Randolph AFB terminates IFR service

A

5 NM from runway when pattern is RESTRICTED OVERHEAD

274
Q

A restricted low approach is defined as no lower than

A

500 feet or as directed by the controlling agency

275
Q

The following are prohibited maneuvers:

A

All of the above(Aerobatics maneuvers - bank angel exceeds 60 degrees or pitch attitude exceeds 30 degrees, spins, takeoff and landing on an unprepared surface)

276
Q

Additional training(AT) sorties may be graded as

A

Both A and B (Unsat , No Grade)

277
Q

T F The flight commander, operations officer, squadron commander or designated supervisor may approve a student’s removal from CAP

A

True

278
Q

The normal landing zone for the T-1 is _______ down the runway

A

500-2000 feet

279
Q

Do not execute practice single engine go-arounds __________________

A

after selecting 30 degree flaps

280
Q

The maximum planned ground speed on military training routes is ____ knots

A

270

281
Q

Approach to stalls, traffic pattern stalls, and slow flight must be completed above ______ feet AGL

A

5,000

282
Q

For formation air top sorties, the planned drop altitude is normally ____ feet AGL or _____ feet above the planned route altitude

A

1,000; 500

283
Q

During air refueling missions, do not fly pre contact or contact in conditions exceeding light turbulence

A

True

284
Q

If an engine is experiencing mechanical difficulty during flight and is being shutdown, stabilizing ITT at idle thrust for one minute is required.

A

False

285
Q

When maneuvering at bank angles in excess of ____ degrees, add ____ knots to the appropriate speed for flap configuration. Maintaining this speed will ensure adequate margin above stall for bank angles up to ___ degrees

A

15; 10; 30