T-1A MQF 27 Jan 2015 Flashcards
An operating procedure or technique which is considered essential to emphasize is a ______?
Note
If either electronic fuel control fails, the synchronization system is still operative.
False
Once TCAS announces “clear of conflict,” the pilot should:
Expeditiously return to the applicable ATC clearance unless otherwise directed by ATC.
Failure to properly set the decision height properly could result in __________.
nuisance warnings from the GPWS.
If the ARC format is selected on the DSP, the EHSI will present an expanded 70° (approximate) compass segment.
True
The weather radar system detects ____________ along the flight path ahead of the aircraft. The radar antenna sweeps _____ to paint a full screen radar picture of the precipitation pattern along the flight path.
wet precipitation, ±60°
Due to weather radar system limitations, ________.
do not rely on the system as the only means to avoid or circumnavigate adverse weather
If the left engine fails while the synchronization system is on, there will be a maximum of 1.5% rpm spool down of the right engine. For this reason, the engine synchronization system should be off during takeoff and landing. (
True
Avoid fingerlift actuation to preclude inadvertent engine shutdown when retarding throttle toward IDLE.
True
The weather radar system provides radar data up to _______ NM.
300
If the WX radar antenna is tilted down too far and GCS mode is selected, a phenomenon known as a GCS wedge may occur. The wedge is displayed as a black area located within approximately ______ of aircraft heading.
± 10°
Binding throttles may indicate an impending throttle linkage cable break with subsequent loss of throttle authority. Throttle linkage cable failure usually results in an uncommanded engine shutdown; however, it is possible for the engine to remain at the power setting at time of failure, or retard to idle. If the throttle linkage cable breaks and the engine flames out, or if necessary to control the aircraft due to an engine stuck at a high power setting, shut down the engine using the Fuel/Hydraulic valve close switch, then accomplish the Engine Shutdown During Flight checklist in Section III.
True
As oxygen cylinders become chilled the pressure is reduced, sometimes quite rapidly. A temperature drop of 100°F will reduce pressure 20%. However, if the pressure begins to drop while the aircraft is in level flight or descending, __________.
an oxygen leak should be suspected
In the event of a hung start, advance the throttle beyond IDLE. Increased fuel flow could result in engine cooling.
False
After flushing the lavatory, __________ to prevent contents from overflowing.
leave the knife valve open at least ¼ inch
If an engine is experiencing mechanical difficulty during flight and is being shutdown, stabilizing ITT at IDLE thrust for 1 minute is required.
False
Resetting a popped circuit breaker in the fuel system is allowable.
False
When using cross-side attitude information, pilots should cross-check ________ with other reliable instruments.
All of the above:
position
attitude
altitude
Asterisk (*) items in the checklist:
need not be accomplished on subsequent flights by the same crew flying the same aircraft on the same day
While using the exterior inspection checklist, specific attention should be given to detect fluid leakage.
True
The exterior door handle will stow by activation of the interior handle.
False
Failure to stow the exterior door handle can result in damage to the door during flight.
True
During the walk around, support the main landing gear door if releasing by the manual system.
True
During the Exterior Inspection, how many aft compartment circuit breaker panels are required to be checked?
3
When the nose wheel mechanical disconnect pin is disconnected, nose wheel steering is still available.
False
Failure to check all _______ door locking pins showing white can result in the door opening in flight.
8
If pilot valves are inoperative, single point pressure refueling should not be attempted and the aircraft should not be flown.
True
An improperly installed escape hatch can result in loss of cabin pressure in flight.
True
Failure to remove the escape hatch lock pin and push button retainer bar will:
All of the above:
make hatch inoperable from the outside.
make hatch inoperable from the inside the aircraft.
delay emergency ground egress from the escape hatch.
Repeated tests of the AHRS battery are acceptable and will validate AHRS battery performance.
False
When the cabin pressure controller is set, set the altitude to _____ feet above the highest anticipated cruise altitude or according to mission requirements.
1,000
Turning the manual pressure control knob past its normal range __________.
could damage the threads or needle valve seat
When the battery feed test button is pushed with the battery switch ON, check for:
a & b:
A. FDR FAIL annunciator illuminated
B. STBY PWR ON annunciator illuminated
After pushing the battery feed test button and the battery switch is placed to “EMER,” check for operation of __________.
RTU #1
Landing with brakes applied could result in_________ due to failure of the touchdown protection.
All of the above:
Blown tires
Potential runway departure
Damage to the aircraft
The H STAB DEICE TEST position will:
b & c:
B. check de-ice timer in the fast advance mode through the 12 segment positions
C. applies power to the heater elements for 0.6 seconds in sequence with a pause after each six
When checking the stall warning system _______________.
a & b:
A. the master test switch must remain in L or R STALL until stick shaker actuates twice
B. check that the indexer on the glare shield follows AOA gauge indication
When testing the indicator lights, the following lights do not illuminate:
All of the above:
red landing gear unlocked indicator
starter DISENGAGE button
ENG START buttons
When doing the stall warning test on the left or right side, the stick shaker should activate:
twice when the AOA pointer passes 0.4 to 0.5 and 0.7.
After selecting the left tank during the fuel crossfeed check, these lights will illuminate:
Left boost pump light, right jet pump light, XFEED in-transit operation light
When running the pitch or roll trim switch for _____ seconds continuously, the trim warning horn will activate.
5
During flight control checks, after the pilot checks the controls, the copilot must also physically check the flight controls.
True
If starting engines with battery power only, do not start the second engine until the first engine’s loadmeter reads below _____ amps
150
For generator assisted starts on the second engine, the operating engine must be at IDLE.
True
The stabilizer anti-ice fail annunciator will illuminate in _____ seconds once the anti-ice switch is set to the test position.
3
While accomplishing the horizontal stabilizer de-ice test, if one of the 12 elements is open, the operation lights will remain off for 1-2 seconds during the test.
True
Do not use the horizontal stabilizer anti-ice on the ground because a squat switch failure could cause damage to the ___________.
horizontal stabilizer
If not monitored properly, the VNAV function of the FMS may result in terrain impact.
True
Do not operate engine anti-ice during ground operations (except for preflight test) at temperatures above _____°C OAT/SAT.
10
An external power unit is required for engine start at ambient temperatures below_____.
5°F
When checking wing and engine anti-ice in the BEFORE TAKEOFF checklist, the throttles should be set at a minimum of _____ to ensure that the wing anti-ice valve is open.
70% N2
When taxiing for takeoff through ice and snow, leave the flaps _______ until approaching the runway to avoid accumulations of ice being cast off from the tires.
retracted
An operating procedure or technique which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed is a _____?
Caution
During a wake turbulence takeoff, allow a minimum of _____ minutes behind a large aircraft or helicopters. With an effective crosswind over _____ knots, this interval may be reduced.
2, 5
For a wake turbulence takeoff:
with an effective crosswind over 5 knots, the interval may be reduced
After the gear is retracted on a normal takeoff, with two engines operating, adjust the pitch to climb at a minimum of_____ until reaching _____ feet above field elevation.
Vco + 10; 400
When maneuvering at bank angles in excess of _____ degrees, add _____ knots to the appropriate speed for flap configuration. Maintaining this speed will ensure adequate margin above stall for bank angles up to _____ degrees.
15; 10; 30
During takeoff and landing, to avoid obscuring visibility, the visors must be in the stowed position.
True
For extended high altitude cruise, the windshield heat should be set at _____.
LOW
Ignition switches should be turned to the ON position when __________.
b and c:
B. when flying through turbulence and/or visible precipitation
C. for all takeoffs, approaches, and landings
During the cruise check, a temperature drop of _____°F will reduce the oxygen pressure by _____%.
100, 20
Manual damping of dutch roll may be required in takeoff and landing (when the yaw damper is off) or in the event of a yaw damper failure. Manual damping of dutch roll is best accomplished:
with the lateral controls utilizing approximately a control wheel input roughly equal to the degree of oscillation
Starting a descent at FL 200, maximum range descent is flown at _____, enroute descent is flown at _____, and rapid descent is flown at _____.
230, 250, 330
Maximum range descent is _________.
idle, clean, 0.70 IMN above 35,900 ft, 230 KIAS below 35,900 ft.
During preflight or postflight inspection, a drop of fuel hanging on the sniffle valve ______.
is acceptable
Steep idle power approaches, or approaches requiring late changes in pitch attitude during the landing flare are acceptable in the T-1A due to the stressed landing gear.
False
Use of stabilizer trim for round-out in the flare could induce a strong pitch up tendency that would be difficult to control in the event that a go-around is attempted.
True
In the event of a suspected hard landing:
a & b:
A. make an AFTO Form 781 write up with your gross weight, airspeed, and approximate vertical velocity at touchdown.
B. gear should remain down and the mission terminated.
Touchdown will normally be made at approximately Vapp minus ____ KIAS.
6
The wipers are functional at flight speeds up to _______ knots indicated airspeed. Higher speeds can cause damage to the wiper motor and possible blade separation.
200
The takeoff trim setting mark is small and can be hard to see under many conditions. Avoid fixating on this gage while resetting trim to maintain aircraft control.
True
Failure to properly reset the trim can result in _________________.
All of the above:
A. lower than normal yoke forces
B. over-rotation
C. higher than normal yoke forces
Which of the following is true concerning the stall characteristics of the T-1A?
B. The stick shaker activates at approximately 0.75 units on the AOA indicator below 20,000 feet, and as low as 0.45 at high altitudes.
Crossfeed will supply fuel to a single engine from both wing tanks simultaneously.
False
After landing on a snow or slush covered runway:
do not retract flaps beyond 10°.
If the parking brake is set from the copilot’s side:
a & c:
A. the binding could affect action from the pilot’s side at a later time.
C. temporary binding in the mixing valve could occur.
During crossfeed operation, the boost pump in the non-selected fuel feed chamber will not activate if the boost pump switch is in AUTO and the fuel feed line pressure drops below 5 psi.
False
If any system emergency affecting safety of flight is experienced prior to S1 speed, the takeoff should be aborted.
True
If an emergency is experienced at or after S1 speed, _____________.
the takeoff should be continued
If the aircraft is decelerated and engages the barrier perpendicular to the middle half, no damage to the aircraft should be expected.
False
Which statement(s) are true?
a & b:
A. Taxi over cables lying on the runway is acceptable at slow speeds (less than 5 knots).
B. Landing should be accomplished beyond arresting cables.
If engine shutdown or failure occurs in flight, consider the use of crossfeed to balance the fuel load, unless fuel system contamination is suspected.
True
Due to the fact that the base of the emergency escape hatch is 4.5 feet above the ground with the landing gear extended, personnel should use caution to avoid personal injury when using this exit.
True
With dual Remote Tuning Unit (RTU) failure, how can VHF guard (121.5 MHz) be tuned?
Pulling and resetting the VHF circuit breaker
If UHF guard mode was on when dual RTU failure occurred, guard reception is still available.
True
Using the engine fire switchlights to close the fuel valve also closes the hydraulic valve.
True
Pulling and resetting the UHF circuit breaker after dual RTU failure does what?
a & b:
A. Turns off the squelch.
B. Returns to the frequency tuned at the time of failure.
NAV auto-tuning is disabled when the RMT TUNE switch is in the DSABL position.
True
In the event of a fuel quantity indicator failure, which of the following are true?
Both gauges’ dial pointers move off scale to below the zero mark to indicate an inoperative condition
Securing the engine after a failure/fire on takeoff should not be accomplished prior to reaching _______.
a & c:
A. 400 ft AGL
C. clear of obstructions
If an engine fire occurs immediately after takeoff when using the ACM OFF procedure, the bleed air selector may be turned to NORM at any time.
False
Do not attempt to restart an engine that has been shut down due to obvious mechanical difficulties.
True
If a spin is entered:
simultaneously reduce power to idle, apply full rudder opposite spin direction, forward elevator control and neutral roll control.
During a starter assisted air start, a relight should normally be obtained within _____ seconds after the throttle is moved to idle.
10
During a windmilling air start, should the temperature rise in such a manner as to indicate an imminent hot start, the throttle should be placed in CUTOFF, and windmill the engine for ____ seconds before attempting another start.
30
On V-MDA type approaches, the FMS does not recognize step-down fixes between the FAF and the MAP and will not try to comply with them. If a given approach has any step-down fixes between the FAF and arrival at MDA, VNAV should not be used for this portion of the approach.
True
During the flight control check of the rudder, ensure that both the PF and the PM independently observe a proportional displacement of their left and right rudder pedals and a proportional rudder control surface movement.
True
The switchlight in the fire protection group on the shroud panel is used to close the _____ on the respective engine.
a & b:
A. main fuel line shutoff valve
B. hydraulic valve
The autopilot is not capable of controlling the aircraft in the event of an engine failure.
False
Rudder boost is provided by the rudder servo of the autopilot.
True
In the event of electrical system failure, excluding the aircraft battery, placing the BATTERY switch to the EMER position causes the battery to power the _________________.
All of the above:
emergency bus
standby bus
standby battery
During the SMOKE AND FUMES IN AIRCRAFT checklist, the bleed air source selector must remain in each position long enough (approximately _______ seconds) to allow adequate system purging to determine the source of smoke.
20
With oil pressure below _____ psi, execute engine shutdown during flight checklist.
40
If high oil temperature is experienced, _______________.
throttle on the affected engine should be increased within N1 limits
While trying to eliminate smoke or fumes from inside the aircraft, turning the manual pressure controller fully counterclockwise will decrease the cabin pressure to the absolute pressure regulator setting of _______ feet.
12,500 ± 1,500
Under high temperature, low altitude, high throttle setting conditions, engine oil temperature may exceed ______ when the throttles are reduced due to a reduction in cooling fuel through the fuel/oil heat exchanger. The maximum transient limit is _____ and _____ should not be exceeded for more than _______ minutes.
121°C, 135°C, 121°C, 15
If you have an EFC failure:
matching the throttles using the engine with the EFC off may cause overboosting of the other engine.
If the fuel filter bypass annunciator is illuminated, the bypass filter is purifying the fuel to the engine.
False
Left or right fuel level low annunciator illumination indicates that approximately _____ pounds of usable fuel remain in the affected wing tank.
200
If acceptable takeoff performance can only be achieved by selecting 0 degrees flaps and/or ACM off, takeoff in the presence of potential windshear is not recommended. Windshear conditions will quickly negate these minor performance enhancements.
True
If automatic starter dropout has not occurred by _____ % N2, press the starter disengage button.
45
Autopilot engagement is not possible with the pitch trim selector in the EMER position.
True
An operating procedure or technique which could result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed is a ____?
Warning
Ground fault protection is provided by the ________.
battery protection circuits
Air entering the cabin for pressurization during air conditioning emergency operation will still be hot until the bleed air selector has been turned off.
True
In the event of a bleed air duct failure annunciator illumination, if the wing anti-ice switch was in use, subsequently turned OFF and the annunciator extinguishes, flight may be continued if icing conditions are avoided.
True
If the AIR COND FAIL annunciator illuminates, the system will switch from normal to emergency pressure mode automatically.
True
Upon landing, if a malfunction occurs with an associated loss of brakes, _______
immediately place the anti-skid switch to the off position and attempt braking from both the pilot’s and copilot’s position. If braking is not restored, use the emergency brake system.
The emergency descent procedure is a maximum rate descent to quickly escape the high altitude environment.
True
To execute an emergency descent:
All of the above:
you may use a moderate bank up to 45° to aid in lowering the nose
lower the nose approximately 20°
accelerate to 330 KIAS or .78 MACH whichever is slower
The maximum zero fuel weight is _______ pounds.
13,000
During a controllability check, the aircraft speed must be decreased to a point where full control deflection is required to maintain controlled flight in order to properly evaluate handling characteristics at slow speeds.
False
Do not attempt an actual single engine go-around after selecting flaps to 30°.
True
When executing a forced landing without power, if sufficient altitude remains after reaching a suitable landing area, a rectangular pattern will provide the best observation of surface condition, wind speed, and direction.
False
