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AA 737 Study > systest > Flashcards

systest Flashcards

1
Q

cowl anti?ice

A

overpressure in duct between engine cowl anti?ice valve and cowl lip

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2
Q

hyd OVERHEAT

A

electric pump has overheated

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3
Q

overwing exit

A

not closed and locked. related flight lock failed to engage (inhibited from t/off to 30 sec after landing)

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4
Q

engine control

A

not dispatchable

condition: eng operating, on ground, won’t indicate after 80 kts till 30 sec after ldg

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5
Q

PSEU

A

a ground only light

fault in pseu or overwing exit flight lock failed to disengage

inhibited: throttle advance for takeoff till 30 sec after landing

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6
Q

lav SMOKE

A

smoke OR

test being conducted

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7
Q

ZONE TEMP ? control cabin

A

duct overheat or failure of flt deck primary & secondary temp control

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8
Q

ZONE TEMP ? control cabin during recall

A

failure of flight deck primary and stby temp controller

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9
Q

ZONE TEMP ? fwd or aft cabin

A

duct overheat

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10
Q

ZONE TEMP ?fwd or aft cabin during recall

A

failure of zone temp control

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11
Q

PACK

A

pack trip off or failure of both primary and stby pack controllers

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12
Q

PACK during recall

A

failure of either primary or secondary controller

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13
Q

WING BODY OVERHEAT ?left

A

bleed air leak in one of:

  1. lt eng strut
  2. lt inbd wing leading edge
  3. lt a/c bay
  4. keel beem
  5. APU bleed air duct
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14
Q

WING BODY OVERHEAT ? rt

A

leak in:

  1. rt eng strut
  2. rt. inbd wing leading edge
  3. rt a/c bay
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15
Q

BLEED TRIP OFF

A

high temp or press

bleed air valve closes

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16
Q

AUTO FAIL

A

auto press sys fail
1. w/ ALTN light: single controller fault

  1. on alone: dual controller failure
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17
Q

STAB OUT OF TRIM

A

autopilot not trimming stab properly

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18
Q

DC FAIL

A

dc pwr for irs not normal. if no other lights on, irs ops normal

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19
Q

GPS

A

failure of both gps’s

failure of one when recall pushed

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20
Q

idg DRIVE

A

low oil pressure due to:

  1. idg failure
  2. eng shutdown
  3. idg autodisconnect due to high oil temp
  4. idg disconnected
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21
Q

STANDBY PWR OFF

A

one of following not powered:

  1. a/c stby bus
  2. d/c stby bus
  3. battery bus
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22
Q

SOURCE OFF

A

transfer bus is not powered by source selected by related generator swithch

  1. selected source has failed and auto bus transfer has closed BTB to power transfer bus from another source
  2. no source selected to power transfer bus
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23
Q

TR UNIT

  1. on ground
  2. airborne
A

on ground: any TR has failed

airborne: TR1 or TR2 & TR3 have failed

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24
Q

ELEC

A

ground ONLY

fault exists in DC or standby power system

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25
Q

apu LOW OIL PRESSURE

A

auto shutdown due to low press

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26
Q

apu FAULT

A

causes auto shutdown

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27
Q

apu OVERSPEED

A

causes auto shutdown

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28
Q

apu MAINT

A

can use if req, maint req

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29
Q

TWIP

A

terminal weather information for pilots

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30
Q

ACARS

A

airborne comm and reporting sys

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31
Q

ACP

A

audio control panel

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32
Q

ADIRS

A

air data inertial rreference sys

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33
Q

AFDS

A

auto flt director sys

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34
Q

CDS

A

common display sys

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35
Q

CDU

A

control display unit

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36
Q

CVR

A

cockpit voice recorder

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37
Q

DCP

A

display control panel

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38
Q

DEU

A

display electronic unit

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39
Q

ECU

A

electronic control unit

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40
Q

FDD

A

flight director display

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41
Q

FMA

A

flight mode annunciators

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42
Q

FMC

A

flight management computer

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43
Q

FMS

A

flight management system

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44
Q

GPWS

A

ground prox warning sys

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45
Q

IDG

A

integrated drive generator

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46
Q

MCP

A

mode control panel

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47
Q

MFD

A

multi?function display

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48
Q

N1

A

low prressure compressor and turbine on N1 shaft

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49
Q

N2

A

high pressure comprressor and turbine of engine on N2 shaft

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50
Q

PACK

A

air conditioning package

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51
Q

PFD

A

primary flight display

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52
Q

PSU

A

passenger service unit

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53
Q

PTU

A

power transfer unit

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54
Q

SMYD

A

stall mgmt and yaw damper computer

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55
Q

TCAS

A

traffic alert and collision aviodance system

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56
Q

VOR

A

very high frequency omni directional radio

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57
Q

WATRS

A

west atlantic route system

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58
Q

PANS OPS

A

ICAO ? procedures for air navigational services ? aircraft operations

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59
Q

TERPS

A

U.S. ? standard for terminal instrument approach procedures

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60
Q

<4000 RVR / 3/4m considerations

A
  1. capt ldg
  2. max x wind 15 kts
  3. ldg wt = wet r/w
  4. autobrakes (if operable)
  5. autopilot recommended
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61
Q

flaps 40 recommended

A
  1. wet/contaminated
  2. tailwind
  3. braking action < good
  4. R/W < 6000’
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62
Q

autobrakes armed

A
  1. r/w < 7000’

2. < good

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63
Q

configuration STRONGLY recommended for r/w 6000’ or less

A

flaps 40, brakes 3 or max

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64
Q

what r/w length do you enter in HUD

A

landing beyond threshold

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65
Q

when need gear down / flap 15 on non precision app

A

prior to FAF

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66
Q

what does PM select to monitor on non?precision app?

lateral limits

vertical limits

A
  1. Progress pg 4
  2. in lnav, max xtk error = RNP value from IAF inbd
  3. in VNAV, max vert dev = 75’ from FAF inbd
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67
Q

deviation callout on localizer app ? when?

A

diamond touches rectangle on expanded scale OR > 1/3 dot, airplane symbol on 10 mile scale not touching LNAV track

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68
Q

procedure if have coded GP to MAXX, EPXX or coded missed app point

A

expect VNAV disconnect & A/T ARM at these points. Throttles must be manually controlled for remainder of app 7 ldg flare. selecting V/S will keep A/T engaged

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69
Q

what do at FAF?

A
  1. CA: final approach fix
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70
Q

when select MAA on non?precision app/

A
  1. inside FAF
  2. at least 300’ below MAA
  3. NLT 1000’ AFL
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71
Q

when disengage autopilot on non?precision app?

A

DA/DDA

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72
Q

when descending using App Lights, what do you need to see to go below 100’

A

r/w environment

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73
Q

what do when APPROACHING FAF?

A
  1. set mins
  2. verify VNAV path on FMA
  3. gear down, fl 15
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74
Q

for non?ils approaches, do 4 things

A
  1. VOR updating off
  2. Enter RNP value as req
  3. PM monitors Prog pg 4
  4. passing FAF, x altimeters +/? 100’
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75
Q

not authorized approaches

A

LPV, WAAS

lpv = Localizer Performance with Vertical guidance

waas = wide area augmentation system

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76
Q

is vnav req for RNAV RNP app?

A

yes

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77
Q

is vnav req for RNAV GPS/GNSS approaches

A

yes, if available

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78
Q

can we shoot RNAV GPS approaches?

A

yes

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79
Q

can we shoot GNSS approaches

A

yes

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80
Q

what do if want to shoot app that’s not in database?

A

use raw data instrument approach procedures in QRH

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81
Q

what can u check if coded GP on legs page is missing?

A

check VNAV cruise alt

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82
Q

does VNAV GP protect intermediate step down altitudes?

A

yes

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83
Q

what does it mean when stepdown fix on Jepps is not shown on legs page?

A

the VNAV flt path will satisfy the crossing altitude

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84
Q

if shooting an ILS w/ GS inop & there is a coded GP angle on legs page, can you modify the FAF crossing altitude?

A

no

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85
Q

on vor or ndb approaches, when can you add named waypoints?

A
  1. outside FAF or

2. after MAP

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86
Q

if no GP angle on legs page, how control descent?

A

vertical speed

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87
Q

minimum RNP value

A

0.11

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88
Q

requirements if RNP is less or equal to .3, what need

A

ANP included w/ flight plan

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89
Q

when is autopilot required for RNP approach?

A

less than .3 RNP

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90
Q

max airspeed for final app segment for RNP app?

A

180

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91
Q

accept vectors to RNP RF leg?

A

no

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92
Q

for RNP app & are outside temp limits, can you shoot app?

A

no

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93
Q

when autobrakes?

A
  1. < 4000/ 3/4m
  2. contaminated r/w
  3. braking action < good
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94
Q

what see w/ 3000’ r/w remaining?

A

red/white centerline lights

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95
Q

what see w/ 2000’ r/w remaining?

A

amber edge lights

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96
Q

what see w/ 1000’ r/w remaining?

A

red centerline lights

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97
Q

what ILS cat 3 is 737, a,b or c?

A

none of them, comply with lowest mins
600 rvr
50’ DH radio

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98
Q

cat 3 winds max

  1. headwind
  2. tailwind
  3. x?wind
A
  1. 25
  2. 10
  3. 15
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99
Q
  1. min alt for selecting A111?
  2. alt that flare guidance appears
  3. alt throttles retard
A
  1. 500
  2. 90
  3. 27
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100
Q

dev calls on app:

  1. localizer
  2. glideslope
  3. go around
  4. centerline
A
  1. diamond touches rectangle or 1/3 dot
  2. 1/2 dot
  3. anthing amber or red caution or warning annunciated on hud annunciator panel below 1000’
  4. after ldg, if grd path diverges from loc
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101
Q

what do is tailstrike” annunciates?”

A

go around RECOMMENDED

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102
Q

when can descend below 100’ using ALS as reference?

A

red terminating bars or red side row bars are visible OR BETTER

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103
Q

CA’s callouts

A

loc capture
gs capture
OM crossing alt
Flare armed (at 500)”

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104
Q

when have to go around on cat 2/3 prior to DH?

A

any of the req a/c or grd equip fails OR eng fails and are unable to maintain a stable app

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105
Q

when go around at DH?

A

requirements to continue below DH have not been met

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106
Q

when go around inside DH?

A
  1. reduction in visibility makes it unsafe to land

2. captain determined that ldg cannot be safely made in touchdown zone

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107
Q

flap 15 landing speed additives ? where found?

A

on paper checklist

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108
Q

PM callouts

A 
trans lvl, altimeters
11000 ft
2500'
1000
500
plus hundred
minimums
50,40,30,20,10
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109
Q

deviation callouts

  1. airspeed
  2. rate of descent
  3. glideslope
  4. loc
A
  1. ? 5 .. +10
  2. 2000’ ? 2000 fpm
    1000’ ? 1000 fpm
    inside FAF ? 1000 fpm
  3. 1/2 dot
  4. diamond touches rectangle or 1/3 dot
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110
Q

go around requirements

  1. a/s
  2. rate of descent
  3. distance down r/w
A
  1. ?5 +10 without correction
  2. > 1000 fpm below 1000’ w/out correction
  3. > 3000’ down r/w
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111
Q

are ceiling limits required on approach?

A

only when specified on the inst procedure

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112
Q

if airport temp is lower or higher than the vnav temp limits on RNAV GPS app, can you shoot the approach?

A

yes, use the boro?vnav to the published lnav mda + 50’, not the lnav/vnav da

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113
Q

if airport temp is lower or higher than the van temp limits for a RNAV RNP app, can you shoot the approach?

A

no

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114
Q

what course do you set in the mode control panel for a back course app?

A

front course

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115
Q

when do you have to do timing for an approach?

A

when UNABLE REQU NAV PERF?RNP is displayed

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116
Q

shooting VNAV app to a MAXX or coded MAP, what can you do to prevent loss of vertical guidance & allow the autothrottles to stay connected?

A

select V/S just prior to MAXX or MAP

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117
Q

special authorization CAT 1 (SACAT 1) approaches

  1. who flies it?
  2. what airplanes
  3. what procedures
  4. HUD fails?
  5. xwind max
  6. what RVR is controlling?
  7. wx mins
A
  1. captain
  2. cat 2 capable w/ HUD
  3. cat 2/3
  4. go around unless vfr
  5. 15
  6. TDZ
  7. 1400 RVR w/ 150’ DH
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118
Q

when disengage autopilot on CAT 1 ILS

A

nlt 50’ agl

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119
Q

loc dev for cat 2 go around

A

2 1/2 dots (loc diamond goes hollow)

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120
Q

are cat 2 or cat 3 procedures the same?

A

yes

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121
Q

what is purpose of LMP (lower minimums program)?

A

govern ops below cat 1 mins

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122
Q

what rvr mins is the 737 capable of

A

TDZ 600
MID 400
R/O RPT

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123
Q

general rule regarding CAT 3 mins:

A

the min RVR value shown on the far left column of the app plate mins box is the controlling RVR for the app and must be applied to all the controlling transmissometers

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124
Q

what if cat 3 app plate say 3 on left side of plate, what mins do i need?

A

TDZE 600
MID 400
R/O advisory

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125
Q

what if cat 3 app plate says 6 on left side of plate, what wx do i need?

A

TDZE 600
MID 600
R/O ADVISORY

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126
Q

if cat 3 app plate says 7 on lt side of plate, what wx do i need?

A

TDZE 700
MID 700
R/O advisory

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127
Q

at what altitude can HUD begin TAILSTRIKE warnings?

A

300’

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128
Q

can we land with >50 kts wind?

A

only in emergency

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129
Q

max xwind B.A. fair

A

20 kts

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130
Q

max xwind B.A. poor

A

10 kts

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131
Q

max xwind cat 2 or 3 OR < 4000/ 3/4

A

15

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132
Q

which is stronger braking, max autobrakes or full manual

A

full manual

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133
Q

what flaps do you set for F15 go around?

A

flaps 1

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134
Q

max thrust required when?

A 
1. wet r/w (not pfc or grooved)
     reduce V1 5 pfc/grooved
     reduce 8 or 9 non pfc/grv
2. MEL/CDL not in tps
3. anti?ice not in tps
4. t.o. wt > ATOW
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135
Q

when use low vis t/off procedures

A

<500 rvr down to 300 rvr

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136
Q

when use 26K Max thrust?

A
  1. improved performance
  2. contaminated r/w
  3. windshear
  4. gust>10 / 15 kt x/wind
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137
Q

distance behind heavy?

A

2 minutes or 5 miles

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138
Q

min turn altitude

A

400’ (100’ if ops advisory page says so)

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139
Q

distance between ctr line lights

A

50’

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140
Q

distance between r/w edge lights

A

200’

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141
Q

wet r/w considerations

A
  1. max thrust (unless PFC/grooved
  2. improved perf not auth
  3. anti?skid req
  4. reduce V1
  5. r/w limited t/off wt reduced (if not pfc or grooved
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142
Q

damp r/w defined

A

no shiny appearance, is considered dry

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143
Q

V1 reductions for wet r/w

  1. pfc or grooved
  2. F1 non?pfc/grooved
  3. F5 non?pfc/grooved
  4. F15 non?pfc/grooved
A
  1. 5
  2. 8
  3. 9
  4. 8
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144
Q

contaminated r/w definition

A
  1. standing water, slush, wet snow >1/8
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145
Q

contaminated r/w limitations

A
  1. no tailwind t/off

2. NGT 1/2 wet snow, slush or standing water or >4”dry snow

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146
Q
  1. normal t/off pitch
  2. normal t/off tail clearance
  3. tailstrike at what pitch
A
  1. 8?9 degrees

2. 20 (at fl 1 & 5)

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147
Q

max tailwind for t/off

A

15 kts

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148
Q

when atl does lnav become active

A

50’

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149
Q

t/off with greater than 20 Kts, what is recommended

A

rolling takeoff

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150
Q

t/off w/ gusts > 10 kts or x/wind > 15 kts, what is recommended?

A

26K max

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151
Q

when does ldg gear transfer unit work?

A
  1. airborne
  2. # 1 engine fails
  3. gear lever up
  4. either main not up & locked
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152
Q

what does PTU power?

A
  1. autoslats

2. LED

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153
Q

when does PTU work?

A
  1. B hyd sys press low
  2. airborne
  3. flaps 1?10
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154
Q

of sys that power brakes

A
  1. normal
  2. alternate
  3. accumulator
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155
Q

PSEU checks?

A
  1. t/off config
  2. ldg config
  3. ldg gear
  4. air/ground sensing
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156
Q

how do autoslats work?

A

extend slats from extend to full extend

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157
Q

what can power autoslats?

A
  1. B hyd

2. PTU

158
Q

A hyd sys powers?

A 
a real giant p
aileron
rudder
elevator
autopilot A
ldg gear
grd spoilers
inbd flt spoilers
alt brakes
nose wheel steering
thrust reversers
ptu
159
Q

b hyd sys powers

A 
a real toy baatl
aileron
rudder
elevator
autopilot b
ldg gear transfer unit
t.e. flaps
outboard spoilers
yaw damper
brakes normal
autoslats
alt nws
thrust reversers
l.e. devices
160
Q

stby hyd powers?

A 
l s t s
l e flaps & slats
stby rud ptu
thrust reversers
stby yaw damper
161
Q

flight controls #s

  1. l.e.d.
  2. spoilers
  3. flaps
A

L.E.D. ? 12 .. look at overhead ? 8 slats, 4 flaps

spoilers ? 12 ? 8 airborne, 4 on ground

flaps ? 2 per wing

162
Q

reversers ? # of detent

A

there are 2 beyold idle reverse

163
Q

when use trans lvl?

when use trans alt

A
  1. on descent

2. on climbout

164
Q

how do autoslats work?

A

extend slats from extend to full extend

165
Q

what can power autoslats?

A
  1. B hyd

2. PTU

166
Q

A hyd sys powers?

A 
a real giant p
aileron
rudder
elevator
autopilot A
ldg gear
grd spoilers
inbd flt spoilers
alt brakes
nose wheel steering
thrust reversers
ptu
167
Q

b hyd sys powers

A 
a real toy baatl
aileron
rudder
elevator
autopilot b
ldg gear transfer unit
t.e. flaps
outboard spoilers
yaw damper
brakes normal
autoslats
alt nws
thrust reversers
l.e. devices
168
Q

stby hyd powers?

A 
l s t s
l e flaps & slats
stby rud ptu
thrust reversers
stby yaw damper
169
Q

flight controls #s

  1. l.e.d.
  2. spoilers
  3. flaps
A

L.E.D. ? 12 .. look at overhead ? 8 slats, 4 flaps

spoilers ? 12 ? 8 airborne, 4 on ground

flaps ? 2 per wing

170
Q

reversers ? # of detent

A

there are 2 beyold idle reverse

171
Q

when use trans lvl?

when use trans alt

A
  1. on descent

2. on climbout

172
Q

what sys use bleed air?

A 
a/c and press
aspirated TAT probe
wing and engine anti?ice
engine start
hyd reservoir press
water tank press
173
Q

why get bleed air trip

A

overtemp

overpressure

174
Q

what is req when using external air for bleed pressure?

A

batt switch on ?so that protective circuits are enabled

175
Q

how many packs can apu power

A

2 on ground

1 airborne

176
Q

pack high flow .

  1. when?
  2. when inhibited?
  3. when high flow w/ APU supplying air?
A
  1. either pack not operating
  2. a/c on ground OR airborne w/ flaps extended
  3. always (eng bleed air switches must be off)
177
Q

when do ram air doors go full open?

A

on the ground OR

airborne w/ flaps extended

178
Q

if all temp selectors are turned off, what temp do packs produce?

zone temp controllers temp range

A

lt pack = 75, rt pack = 65

65?85

179
Q

if both zone and primary pack controllers fail, what happens?

A

standby pack controller will command packs to produce air which will satisfy the avg temp demand of the 2 cabin zones

180
Q

trim air switch . what do?

A

opens/ closes trim air regulating & shutoff valve which allows hot bleed air to enter the zone supply ducts thru the trim air modulating valves

181
Q
  1. on following mstr caut recall”
A
  1. overheat

2. failure of temp controller

182
Q
  1. of following master caution recall”
A
  1. duct overheat or failure of primary & secondary temp controllers
  2. either primary or secondary controller failed
183
Q

what happens if turn off one of the 3 temp selector controls?

A

trim air mod valve closes and temp is governed by the output of the a/c packs

184
Q

recirc fans: when turn off automatically?

  1. on ground
  2. airborne
A
  1. lt fan off if both pack switch to high
    rt fan stays on even if both pack switches to high
  2. lt fan: off if either pack switch in high
    rt fan: off if both pack switches in high
185
Q

pack light

  1. why
  2. why if comes on at recall?
A
  1. overheat or both primary and secondary pack controllers have failed
  2. failure of one of the pack controllers
186
Q

APU bleed switch closes when?

A

fl200

187
Q

LEFT wing body overheat light

A 
lt engine pylon
left inboard wing leading edge
left side of a/c bay
keel beem
APU duct
188
Q

RIGHT wing body overheat light

A

right engine pylon
right inboard wing leading edge
right side of a/c bay

189
Q

when does overboard exhaust valve open?

A

both packs high flow AND

recirc fans off

190
Q

what powers manual press controller?

how long to go from full open to full closed/

A

battery

20 seconds

191
Q

what brings on AUTOFAIL light?

A
  1. loss of DC power
  2. cabin climb > 2000FPM
  3. controller failure
  4. high cabin altitude (>15,800’)
192
Q

can you use both APU air & external air to power packs?

A

yes … there’s a checklist in vol 2

193
Q

what happened when get ALTN & AUTO FAIL lights on?

A

single controller failure and auto switch to the other controller

194
Q

minimum pressure when using external high?pressure for air conditioning

A

20 psi

195
Q

when do l.e. slats go from extend to full extend?

A

flaps moved to 10

196
Q

what l.e. devices does wing anti?ice heat?

A

3 inboard l.e. slats only

197
Q

what lose if lose one of two irs’s?

A

lose autobrakes @ thus cat 2/3 capability

198
Q

what are 3 ground only” annunciator lights on ov’hd panel?”

A

engine control
elec
pseu

199
Q

how many gps’s?

A

2

200
Q

irs fault light .. what mean?

A

nav or attitude fault

201
Q

what also happens if get an irs on dc” light when on the ground?”

A

ground crew call horn sounds

202
Q

irs alignment times

fast alignment times

fast alignment requirement

what do if inadvertent sw to OFF or ATT?

A

5?17 min (7?10 at our latitudes)

30 sec

a/c must be stationary (procedure in vol 1 systems section)

must do full alignment

203
Q

what do?”

A

eec fault

no?go

204
Q

what happens when move alternate flaps switch to arm?

A
  1. stby elect pump on
  2. close t.e. flap bypass valve
  3. arms alt flap pos sw
  4. allows stby sys to pwr l.e. flaps, slats, thrust reversers
205
Q

speedbrakes extended light

A

speedbrake lvr is past arm position &
flaps >10 OR
below 800’

206
Q

what controls eng valve closed” & “spar valve closed” lights, meaning what can open/close those valves”

A

eecs

fire handle

207
Q

can wing tank pumps suction feed?
can ctr tank pumps suction feed?
total fuel

A

yes
no
8.6+8.6+28.8 = 46.0

208
Q

elec fault” light”

A

dc or stby bus fault

209
Q

depart w/ batt discharge, tr unit or elec light on?

A

no

210
Q

stby pwr off … wht mean?

A

loss of stby a/c, stby d/c or batt bus

211
Q

when will idg disconnect work?

A

elect pwr available AND

start lvr ? idle

212
Q

apu maint light ..

3 apu fault lights . what do

A

maint req, can still use apu

shut down apu

213
Q

eec’s powered at what n1?

A

15%

214
Q

fuel filter bypass” light”

A

impending fuel filter bypass

215
Q

a/c sys ‘OVHT TEST button”

A

tests wing/body overheat detectors

216
Q

a/c sys trip reset button resets

A

pack trip
bleed trip
zone temp trip

217
Q

wing body ovht light

A 
eng strut
engine strut
inbd wing leading edge
a/c bay
\+
lt .. keel beam
 ... apu bleed duct
218
Q

pack light

A

pack trip OR

primary & secondary pack controller failed

219
Q

flashing align light

A

nothing entered or position entered is > 4 nm off

220
Q

stab out of trim” light .. when work?”

A

autopilot on & autopilot not trimming stabilizer correctly

221
Q

will a/t work with eec’s in alt?

A

yes

222
Q
  1. when get climb power?”
A
  1. pitch to 15 degrees nose up
  2. throttle hold
  3. pitch to 15 degress till sufficient climb rate, then pitch to meet mcp speed, normally v2 + 20
  4. LNAV
  5. a/t in throttle hold till 800’, can now reduce to climb power
  6. when vnav, alt acq or alt hold are selected .. if engaging lvl chg or v/s, auto thrust reduction is inhibited for 2 1/2 min after t/off
223
Q

what happens when TO/GA?

what happens when TO/GA 2nd time?

A
  1. a.t. give 1000?2000 fpm climb

2. pitch to 15 degrees till get certain climb rate, then maneuvering speed for each flap setting is directed

224
Q

how terminate TO/GA?

  1. below 400’
  2. above 400’
A
  1. both flight directors off

2. different pitch or roll mode selected

225
Q

what happens when select ALT on audio control panel

A
  1. can only control respective vhf radio
  2. speaker and volume control functions inop .. also inop interphone, hand mike and p.a. sys … can’t hear alt alerts, gpws and windshear
226
Q

eec protection

  1. airborne
  2. on ground
A
  1. n1 and n2 overspeed

2. overspeeds + wet and hot start

227
Q

thrust reverser pwr sourse

  1. # 1
  2. # 2
A
  1. sys A hyd w/ stby as backup

2. sys B hyd w/ stby as backup

228
Q

fire detection .. what pwr source?

fire protection .. what pwr source?

A
  1. battery bus

2. hot battery bus

229
Q

will APU auto?shutdown w/ fire?

where is apu fire handle?

A

yes

right wheel well

230
Q

how many cargo fire bottles?

power source

how many apu fire bottles

A

one halon bottle

hot battery bus

one

231
Q

lav fire detection:

  1. discharge nozzle appearance
  2. flight deck indication of discharge
  3. temperature indicator appearance
A
  1. flat black, turns gray if sys discharges
  2. none
  3. white dots turn black when exposed to heat
232
Q

horns that can be silenced

A
  1. fire warning (press fire warn light)
  2. landing gear horn
  3. cabin alt horn
    4.
233
Q

when do spoilers deploy during landing

A
  1. armed
  2. throttles idle
  3. radio alt < 10 ft
  4. mains touch & > 60 kts = flt spoilers
  5. rt main strut compresses = grd spoilers deploy
234
Q

during RTO, when do auto speedbrakes deploy?

A

both throttles to idle & reverser levers to reverse

235
Q

what does FSEU (flap/slat electronic unit) do?

A

protect TE flaps from excessive airload .. flaps 40 to 30 or 30 to 25

236
Q

autoslats …..

  1. what happens?
  2. pwr source?
A
  1. w/ flaps 1?5 & approach stall, LE slats go to full extend

2. sys B w/ PTU as backup

237
Q

CDS FAULT or CDS MAINT ?

A

non?dispatchable fault, ground only

238
Q

AOA green band

A

for any flap setting, the 3 o’clock position, green band provides safe speed

239
Q

VNAV speed … ensure altitude restriction will be met?

A

no

240
Q

which fuel tank pumps have higher pressure

A

center tank pumps are higher

241
Q

which tank has a scavenge pump

A

center tank, which ops automatically when fuel in #1 tank reaches around 4500# and the #1 main tank fwd pump is operating. pump ports fuel into the #1 tnk at approx 177 lb/hr

242
Q

cowl anti?ice light .. what mean?

A

excessive pressure has built up in the duct between the engine cowl anti?ice valve and the cowl lip

243
Q

when do wing anti?ice valves auto?close?

what happens when turn switch on/

A
  1. overtemp
  2. t/off pwr selected

bleed air to l.e. devices
sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions

244
Q

which windows are heated?

A

all but rear most side windows

245
Q

do autobrakes work w/ alt brakes?

anti?skid with alt brakes?

A

no

yes, but for wheel pairs only, not individual wheel

246
Q

what happens if raise ldg gear & have damaged main gear tire is detected?

A

the individual main gear will free fall down

247
Q

how do you deactivate autobrakes

A

switch off
grd spoilers/speed brake to down detent

thrust lvrs past 11 degrees

manual brakes

248
Q

how detect parking brake fault?

A

ANTI SKID INOP light on when brake is being set

249
Q

tcas:

  1. red RA
  2. amber TA
  3. fully white rectangle
  4. reverse video rectangle
A
  1. threat within 25 seconds
  2. 40 seconds
  3. . 6 miles & +/? 1200’ vertical
  4. +/? 8700’ vertical
250
Q

predictive windshear

  1. warning
  2. caution
  3. when active on ground
  4. ceiling limit for warnings
A
  1. 1.5 nm ahead of a/c
  2. 3 nm ahead of a/c
  3. thrust lever to takeoff pwr
  4. 1200’
251
Q

sys a standpipe protects what?

A

elect pump

252
Q

sys b standpipe protects what?

A

ptu

253
Q

what does ptu power

A

l.e. flaps and slats and autoslats

254
Q

when does ptu come on

A
  1. sys b eng pump low press
  2. airborne
  3. flaps 1?10
255
Q

stby hyd uses what fluid

A

fluid from b res

256
Q

stby hyd .. when come on automatically?

A
  1. sys a or b lost
  2. airborne or wheel spinup >60 kts
  3. flaps extended
257
Q

stby hyd .. why does it come on automatically

A
  1. pwr rudder if airborne

2. pwr thrust reversers if abort

258
Q

what systems does stby hyd pwr?

A

LSTS

  1. l.e. flaps and slats (extend only)
  2. stby rudder
  3. thrust reversers
  4. stby yaw damper
259
Q

landing gear transfer unit ..
1.when powered?

  1. what fluid does it use?
A
  1. airborne
  2. raise gear and one of mains is not up and locked
  3. # 1 engine drops below limits
  4. sys B
260
Q

a hyd sys powers:

size of reservoir

cooled by:

A

a real giant p

  1. ailerons
  2. rudder
  3. elevators
  4. autopilot A
  5. landing gear
  6. ground spoilers
  7. inboard flight spoilers
  8. alt brakes
  9. nose wheel steering
  10. thrust reversers
  11. ptu

5.7 gallons

fuel tank 1

261
Q

lose a hyd sys and lose what sys:

A

a giant p

  1. alt braks
  2. ground spoilers
  3. inbd flt spoilers
  4. autopilot a
  5. normal nose wheel steering
  6. thrust reverser
  7. ptu
262
Q

b hyd sys powers:

size of reservoir

cooled by:

A

a real toy baatl

  1. ailerons
  2. rudder
  3. elevators
  4. autopilot b
  5. landing gear transfer unit
  6. trailing edge flaps
  7. outboard spoilers
  8. yaw damper
  9. brakes (normal)
  10. autoslats
  11. alt nose wheel steering
  12. thrust reversers
  13. leading edge devices

8.2 gallons

fuel tank 2

263
Q

b hyd sys loss and lose what sys:

A

a toy baat

  1. autoslats
  2. trailing edge flaps
  3. outboard spoilers
  4. yaw damper
  5. brakes (normal)
  6. autopilot B
  7. thrust reverser
264
Q

force flight monitor: what does it do?

A

detects opposing pressure from a & b sys to rudder which could happen if a or b input is jammed or disconnected from rudder. will auto turn on stby hyd and pwr rudder.

265
Q

autoslats:

when work?

A

move slats from extend to full extend prior to stick shaker … when t.e. flaps are at 1?5 degrees

266
Q

what powers autoslats?

A

sys B unless sys B pressure is low, then PTU

note: slat/flap skew detection is inop during autoslat deployment

267
Q

what is powered when you move flt control switches to STBY?

A

rudder & thrust reversers

268
Q

if both flt control switches are moved to STBY, what happens to aileron and elevator control?

A

manual reversion

269
Q

what happens when alt flap master switch is moved to down pos?

A
  1. T.E. flaps electrically move down (can be moved back up)

2. Leading edge devices moved to full down pos hydraulically (cannot be moved back up)

270
Q

when is hyd q RF indication valid?

A
  1. a/c on ground w/ both engines shutdown OR

2. after ldg w/ flaps up during taxi?in

271
Q

sys a & b pressures
normal
max
min

A

3000
3500
2800

272
Q

electric hyd pump overheat” light: what means?”

A

pump overheated and has shut down

273
Q

3 ways to turn stby hyd pump on

A

3 switches on flight controls overhead

274
Q

3 ways stby hid pump get turned on automatically

A

force fight monitor
thrust reversers
autoslats

275
Q

when abort engine start

  1. n1
  2. lightoff
  3. no/slow n1 or n2
  4. oil pressure
A
  1. need before raise start lvr to idle
  2. within 10 sec (30 sec airborne)
  3. after EGT rising
  4. need it by stable idle
276
Q

what do braking advisorys mean?

A

continue the approach: poor or nil have been reported or conditions are deteriorating rapidly

277
Q

can you t/off and land with:

  1. windshear alert
  2. microburst advisory
  3. microburst alert
A
  1. yes
  2. yes
  3. no
278
Q

wet r/w takeoff:

  1. power
  2. speeds
  3. req equip
  4. additional notes
A
  1. not grooved or pfc: max pwr
  2. reduce v1
  3. anti?skid
  4. improved perf not auth .. r/w limited t/off reduced for non grooved or pfc r/w’s
279
Q

when is max pwr req?

  1. wind
  2. r/w conditon
  3. weight
  4. engine anti?ice
A
  1. tailwind
  2. wet r/w
  3. closeout > ATOW
  4. eng anti?ice used and tps doesn’t show it
280
Q

max pwr 26k req

  1. r/w condition
  2. wind
  3. performance
  4. other
A
  1. contaminated
  2. windshear
  3. improved performance
  4. fm?2 airport advisory requires it
281
Q

r n p notes

A
  1. temp ngt rnav/rnp temp
  2. x min equip
  3. rnp< 0.3 .. autopilot req
  4. vor update off
    if rnp specified on app plate, manually enter in prog 4/4
  5. pm = in lnav, monitor xtk error on app ngt app rnp from iaf inbd
  6. in vnav path , pm monitor vert dev on prog 4/4 ngt 75’ from iaf inbd
    anp prediction req for rnp values < 0.3
282
Q

flaps 40 recommended

A
  1. r/w slippery
  2. b.a. < good
  3. tailwind
283
Q

autobrakes req

A
  1. r/w < 7000’
  2. wx < 4000 3/4
  3. b.a. < good
  4. contaminated r/w
  5. recommended: gusty winds
284
Q

flaps 15 req when?

A

high density airports when climb limited max ldg wt is exceeded for f30 & f40

285
Q

how determine 3 degree glideslope?

A

1/2 airspeed x 10 = ft / minute descent required

286
Q

holding speeds

  1. 6000’ or less
  2. 6000?14000
  3. > 140000
  4. timing
A
  1. 200
  2. 230 (210 dca & ny)
  3. 265
  4. 1 min inbd 14K
287
Q

max landing distance down r/w

A

3000’

288
Q

737 category

A

C

289
Q

when get ground crew call horn?

A
  1. battery discharging
  2. equip cooling fan fail & get overheat
  3. button pushed
  4. irs on battery pwr
290
Q

takeoff and don’t to/ga?

A

wwill get tailstrike annunciation

291
Q

when can inhibit glideslope?

A
  1. ils on 1 r/w and landing on another

2. following g/s prrecludes landing on 1st 1000’

292
Q

best cabin cooling?

A

both engine bleeds off, apu bleed on

293
Q

r/w contamination factors

  1. snow
  2. ice
  3. wet
  4. hydroplane
A
  1. 2 x dry
  2. 4?16 x
    • 60%
  4. 2?3 x
294
Q

allowable overweight landing weight

A

lesser of r/w limited and clib limited land weight

295
Q

zero cost index .. what does it give u?

A

max range cruise

296
Q

select deny” on flt deck door control”

A

disables auto unlock function, cancels alerts and prevents keypad entry for 5 minutes

297
Q

dual generator failure prior to v1 .. what do?

A

captain takes a/c and continues t/off

298
Q

do g/a and come back for another app. what have to do?

A
  1. vnav cruise pg; select altitude that you climbed to on m.a.
  2. reselect cat 3 if you are doing a cat 3 approach
  3. note: x usable r/w length on pg 9B if doing a cat 3 and put in cat 3 page
299
Q

when don’t you have to use wind corrections for ldg

A
  1. hud

2. autothrottles

300
Q

last minute bags?

A

shutdown #2

301
Q

engine fails on final, what mins can you use?

A

cat 1

302
Q

speed brake load alleviation sys

  1. when
  2. what happens
A
  1. flaps up, >155k #, >320 kts
  2. if spd brake > 50%, will retract to 50%
  3. if < 50%, will limit use to 50%
  4. note: can be overridden
303
Q

when do autospeed brakes work

A
  1. armed
  2. 60kts (flt spoilers
  3. rt strut compresses (grd spoilers)
304
Q

force fight monitor: what does it do?

A

senses imbalance in pressure from sys A & B and will add stby pump to that side of rudder

305
Q

what is the NGS?

A

nitrogen generating sys, converts bleed air to nitrogen enriched air & delivers to the center fuel tank to reduce flammability of the tank. dispatch w/ sys inop is OK

306
Q

abort .. why?

A

engine failure, fire, predictive windshear or anything that makes a/c unsafe or unable to fly

307
Q

abort .. considerations after stop a/c

A
  1. advise F/A’s & psgrs: stay seated or evac?
  2. alert fire equip?
  3. clear r/w
  4. set brakes?
  5. complete x/list for conditions causing RTO
  6. remote parking?
  7. wheel plugs melt?
  8. brake cooling sked
  9. inspect: >80 kts, hvy, max brakes
  10. when speed brakes deploy? select reverse thrust
308
Q

upset recovery .. nose high

A
  1. autopilot/autothrottle ? off
  2. nose down elevator / trim
  3. roll to get nose down pitch
  4. reduce thrust
  5. approaching horizon .. wings lvl
  6. x airspeed & adjust throttle
309
Q

upset recovery .. nose low

A
  1. autopilot/autothrottle . off
  2. recover from stall if req
  3. roll to wings lvl
  4. recover to lvl flight / nose up elevator / trim (as req), adjust thrust & drag as req
310
Q

windshear/microburst on takeoff

A
  1. rotate to 15 degrees
  2. airborne: escape maneuver
  3. if a/s decreases < rotate:
    a. if can’t stop, rotate by 2000’ remaining even if slow
    b. note: 3000’ = red/white ctr?line lites, 2000? = amber r/w edge lights, 1000’ = red ctr line lights
311
Q

windshear .. airborne

A
  1. escape”
312
Q

engine failure on t/off

A
  1. positive rate, gear up
  2. set speed ? at engine out alt
  3. lvl change, mct … checklist
    notes: 4 xlists, 14.5 ctr?line, v2?v2+20, a/p from good eng side, rudder trim = 1 unit/sec = amt of fuel flow, = 5 units @ s&lvl, fly the hud, marry up the throttles, hud no see eng out lvl?off, reduce 3% n1 at glide slope, select a/p at lvl?off
    SL, normal weight pattern = 72% N1 4.5 units trim
313
Q

engine failure at cruise

A
  1. disconnect a.t.
  2. adjust rudder
  3. select CON thrust in FMC
  4. manually select CON thrust
  5. select engine out cruise in vnav ..
  6. select engine out alt and speed on panel
  7. slow to eng out a/s
  8. select lvl chg & descend to alt
314
Q

pull up, terrain, terrain””

A
  1. a/p, a.t. .. off
  2. throttles ? max
  3. pitch ? 20 degrees nose up or >
  4. speed brakes ? retract
315
Q

tcas”

A
  1. autopilot ? off
  2. autothrottles ? off
  3. maneuver as req
316
Q

climb, climb now” when in ldg config”

A
  1. autopilot ? off
  2. autothrottle ? off
  3. throttles ? max
  4. flaps 15, positive rate, gear up
317
Q

go?around

A
  1. go around”
318
Q

1 engine go ? around

A
  1. to/go . (max pwr, max foot)
  2. flaps 1, pos rate, gear up
  3. approx 15 degrees nose up
  4. set m.a.a.
  5. lnav or hdg select
  6. 1000’ ? set speed
  7. flaps up
  8. level change . set mct
319
Q

when set altitudes during vnav app

  1. faf
  2. mda
  3. maa
A
  1. when cleared for app
  2. when faf is active waypoint
  3. when 300’ below maa, inside faf & > 1000’ afl
320
Q

engine failure on final 3 choices

A
  1. go around
  2. stay at fl 30 .. adjust rudder, add 1 knob width pwr (60% to 80%)
  3. select fl 15: adjust rudder, add 20 kts, grd prox flap o’ride ? inhibit
321
Q

circling approach #s

  1. airspeed
  2. weather mins
  3. mda
A
  1. 140 kts max
  2. 1000?3
  3. 1000’ or published mins if are higher
322
Q

vertical speed approach

  1. when use
  2. how descent prior and after faf
  3. dda = ?
A
  1. vnav won’t work or no coded gp angle on legs page

2. prior = lvl change , after ? vert spd

323
Q

engine failure during go?around

A
  1. perform normal go?around
  2. max thrust
  3. maintain f15, vref 30?40 and limit bank angle to 15 degrees till maneuvering complete and safe alt
324
Q

problems during engine start

A

engine start lever ? cutoff

325
Q

airspeed unreliable

A
  1. adjust attitude & thrust . maintain aircraft control
  2. probe heat switches ? check on
  3. crosscheck mach airspeed indications
326
Q

apu fire

A
  1. apu fire switch . confirm . pull and rotate . hold 1 second
  2. apu switch ? off
327
Q

cabin altitude warning .. cabin altitude exceedence and/or intermittent horn & cabin altitude lights

A
  1. o2 mask on @ 100 % o2
  2. crew comm establish
  3. pressurization mode selector ? manual
  4. outflow valve sw ? hold in close pos until valve indicates closed
  5. if cabin alt is not controllable
    a. fasten belt sw ? on
    b. if cab > or expected to be > 14k’
    psgr o2 sw on
    c. go to emergency descent xlist
328
Q

emergency descent

A
  1. announce emergency descent
    a. captain advises cabin crew
    b. f.o. tells atc and gets atlimenter
  2. fasten belt sw on
  3. engine start switches ? cont
  4. flt lvl change, vmo descent w/
    speedbrakes, autopilot on …stop
    descent at 10K or lowest safe,
    whichever is higher
329
Q

ENGINE FIRE or ENGINE SEVERE DAMAGE or SEPERATION

A
  1. autothrottles ? off
  2. thrust lever ? confirm ? close
  3. engine start lever ? confirm ? close
  4. engine fire sw ? confirm ? pull
    (to manually unlock, press
    override & pull)
  5. if engine fire switch or eng overheat light stays on
    a. engine fire sw ? rotate to stop & hold for 1 sec
    b. if after 30 sec & eng fire sw or overheat light still on, engine firre sw ? rotate to other stop & hold for 1 sec
330
Q

ENGINE LIMIT or SURGE or STALL

A
  1. autothrottle ? off

2. thrust lever ? confirm ? retard till indications stay within limits or thrust lvr is closed

331
Q

engine overheat

A
  1. auththrottle ? disengage
  2. thrust lvr ? confirm ? close
  3. if engine overheat stays illuminated ? go to engine fire or engine severe damage or separation xlist
332
Q

engine tailpipe fire

A
  1. engine start lvr ? cutoff

2. advise cabin

333
Q

landing configuration (steady horn)

A

assure proper landing configuration

334
Q

loss of thrust on both engines

A
  1. engine start switches ? flight
  2. engine start lvr’s ?cutoff
  3. when egt decreases ? engine start lvrs (both) ? idle
  4. if egt reaches 950 or no increase in 30 seconds ? eng start lvr ? confirm cutoff, then idle detent
  5. if egt again reaches 950 or no egt increase in 30 sec, repeat
335
Q

overspeed

A

reduce thrust & if needed, adjust attitude to reduce a/s to below vmo / mmo

336
Q

rapid depressurization

A

same as cabin altitude warning

337
Q

runaway stabilizer

A
  1. control column ? hold firmly
  2. autopilot ? disengage ? control pitch attitude manually w/ control column & main electric trim
  3. if runaway stops: end
  4. if runaway continues ? stab trim cutout switches (both) ? cutout
  5. if runaway continues: stab trim wheel ? grasp & hold
338
Q

takeoff config horn (intermittent) OR tafeoff config light

A

fix it … TE flaps, LED, stab trim, spoiler handle, parking brake

339
Q

inflight: intermittent horn or cabin altitude light above 10000’

A
  1. don o2 mask & set 100%
  2. establish crew comm
  3. CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING or RAPID DERESSSURISATION XLIST
340
Q

max altitude

A

410

341
Q

o2 required when other pilot leaves cockpit

A

fl250

342
Q

max t/off alt

A

8400

343
Q

max alt for a/p on t/off

A

500’

344
Q

max flaps alt

A

fl200

345
Q

min speedbrake alt

A

1000

346
Q

max fuel temp

why/

A

49 degrees .. fuel cools oil

347
Q

std r/w width min

A

148’

348
Q

a/c turning radius

A

79’

349
Q

dry r/w xwind

A

33

350
Q

rolling t/off recommended w/ winds

A

20 kts

351
Q

braking action fair max x/winds

A

20

352
Q

braking action poor max x/winds

A

10

353
Q

< 4000 rvr landing max x/wind

A

15 … captain’s landing

354
Q

<1800 rvr landing max x/wind

A

10

355
Q

cat 2 or 3 max x/wind

A

10

356
Q

max gust

A

50

357
Q

r/w less than std max x/wind

A

20

358
Q

contaminated r/w t/off not authorized

A

3 dry snow

359
Q 
apu max:
alt
start
bleed air
electric
bleed/elect
A

max 410
start 410 (250 recommended)
bleed 170 (bleeds auto close @ 200)
bleed/elect 100 (max demo 200)

360
Q

fuel quantity

A

8.6 +8.6 +26.6 = 46K = around 7K gal

361
Q

min fuel for ground ops of elect hyd pumps

A

1676

362
Q

low fuel lights

A

2000

363
Q

main tanks req full if center tank has ___?

A

1000

364
Q

quantities for ctr tank fuel pumps on:

a. ctr tank q at push
b. ctr tank at 10000’
c. cruise .. when turn 1 pump off
d. t.o.d. ? when turn 1 pump off

A

a. 5000

b. <3000

365
Q

fuel config light comes on when?

A

> 1600 in ctr tanks w/ ctr tank pumps off

366
Q

fuel Q used during g/around to vfr pattern & land

A

900 #

367
Q

min crew 02 for dispatch

A

1000 psi (not a hard #)

368
Q

psgr o2

  1. how long does it last?
  2. when does it auto?drop?
  3. when do you get cabin horn (intermittent)?
  4. when do you get auto?fail” light?”
A
  1. 12 minutes
  2. 14000’
  3. 10000’
  4. 15,800’
369
Q

weights

  1. max taxi
  2. max t/off
  3. max ldg
  4. max zfw
A
  1. 174.7
  2. 174.2
  3. 144
  4. 136
370
Q

min r/w width w/ snow or r/w

A

100’

371
Q

engine start times

  1. length of start
  2. time between starts
A
  1. 2 min

2. 10 seconds

372
Q

taxi n1 recommendations

  1. congested ramp
  2. elsewhere on ramp
  3. taxiway
A
  1. 35
  2. 40
  3. 45
373
Q

boom mike req below what alt?

A

180

374
Q

engine runups during bad cold wx?

  1. ground?
  2. airborne?
A
  1. 70% n1 every 10 minutes

2. 80% n1 every 15 min

375
Q

takeoff speeds

  1. 60 knots
  2. hot egt after 80 kts
  3. 84 kts
  4. 90 kts
  5. no throttle hold?
  6. want full thrust w/ thr hold” displayed?”
A
  1. final thrust adjustments
  2. don’t retard throttles yet, wait till 400’
  3. throttle hold .. a.t. can’t change throttle pos, but I can
  4. autobrakes now available
  5. no crew action req
  6. manually advance them
376
Q

min pavement for 180 degree turn

A

78’

377
Q

a/c

  1. length
  2. width
  3. height
A
  1. 129’6
378
Q

PBE

  1. time
  2. flashing green?
  3. flashing green/red?
  4. preflight down?
A
  1. 15 minutes
  2. good
  3. bad
  4. green tamper seal disturbed or humidity indicator pink
379
Q

captain t/off mins?

f/o takeoff mins?

A

300’ (sea, slc, mem, den

500’

380
Q

max speed rnp app final app segment

A

180

381
Q

a/p off

  1. non?ils
  2. cat 1
  3. cat 2/3
  4. takeoff
A
  1. da/dda
  2. 50’
  3. 1000’
  4. 500’
382
Q

max altitude that you can select go?around?

A

2000’

383
Q

windshear

  1. scans below what altitude?
  2. alerts below what altitude
A
  1. 2300’

2. 1200’

384
Q

distance from U.S. coast that you can go >250 kts below 10000’

A

12 nm

385
Q

weather <4000/ 3/4

  1. who can land?
  2. max x/wind?
  3. equipment req on?
A
  1. ca ldg only
  2. 15 kts
  3. autopilot & autobrakes
386
Q

how long does it take engines to spool up?

A

7?8 seconds

387
Q

no go takeoff contaminated r/w

  1. dry snow
  2. wet snow
  3. other
A
  1. 3
388
Q

cat 1, 2, 3 weather

A

1800, 1200, 600

389
Q

what do if wx goes below mins after final app segment?

define final app segment

A

continue

g/s intercept
non?precision: FAF or if no FAF, where procedure turn intercepts final app cus

390
Q

touchdown points

  1. preferred
  2. must land by distance
  3. must land by percentage
A
  1. 800?1500’
  2. 3000’
  3. first third
391
Q

time to allow APU to cool down before turning battery off

A

2 minutes ? allow APU to shutdown and doors to close

AA 737 Study (5 decks)

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