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ERJ 175 > Systems Review > Flashcards

Systems Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage required for normal operations?

A

22.5V

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2
Q

After turning BATT 1 & 2 to ON and AUTO in the Safety and Power Up Checklist, you notice that display unit 1, 2 and 3 are powered. What should you do?

A

Call Maintenance

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3
Q

You arrive to the airplane for an early morning departure. After establishing AC power, you see that the ATIS is reporting an OAT of -20 degrees Celsius. You notice that your PFDs are displaying airspeed information and you have an AFCS FAULT message on EICAS. Should you immediately call maintenance?

A

No, follow the ADSP procedure in the SOPM for frozen contamination removal.

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4
Q

What visual indications signify an acceptable fire system test?

A

6 red overhead lights (2 engine fire handles, Fwd and Aft Cargo Smoke
Buttons, APU Fire Button, APU Emergency Stop)
5 red EICAS messages (“ENG 1/2 FIRE”,” APU FIRE”, “CRG FWD/AFT
SMOKE”).
2 glareshield warning lights, and 2 “FIRE” icons on the ITT gauges
2 audible warnings (Master Warning Triple Chime, Fire Bell)

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5
Q

While performing the external inspection, the APU suddenly shuts down and you notice smoke coming out of the tail cone. It takes you 60 seconds to get from the rear of the aircraft, up the jet bridge, and back to the flight deck. Once in the flight deck, what do you expect to see?

A

The APU Fire Extinguishing button illuminated red.

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6
Q

You are sitting at the gate with a GPU powering the aircraft. The GPU suddenly comes unplugged, what should you do?

A

Power down the aircraft using the Leaving the Airplane Checklist then power back up using the Safety and Power Up Checklist.

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7
Q

On the Safety and Power Up Checklist, what does the SOPM say to check prior to initiating the fire system test?

A

No fire protection fail messages are displayed on the EICAS

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8
Q

What will you do if the electrical portion of the flight control PBIT is interrupted?

A

You may continue as long as “FLT CTRL BIT EXPIRED” message is not displayed

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9
Q

What will interrupt the hydraulic portion of the flight control PBIT

A

Flight Control Movement

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10
Q

On a winter morning in Calgary, you arrive in a cold soaked airplane. The hydraulic resrvior temp is -19C. What are your options to get home?

A

Accomplish a Hydraulic System Warm-Up

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11
Q

On the Status Page, if the crew oxygen indicator is _____, sufficient oxygen is available for up to 3 flight deck members. If the crew oxygen indicator is ______, sufficient oxygen is available for ONLY 2 flight deck members.

A

Green, Cyan

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12
Q

Where does a passenger with an infant in arms need to be seated?

A

Either Side

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13
Q

The CLR indicates there is a live animal in the cargo. Where does it have to go?

A

The animal must be placed in the forward cargo compartment.

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14
Q

What are the Cargo Limitations?

A

FWD 3,306 lbs and AFT 2535 lbs

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15
Q

Can a DC GPU be used as a substitute for both batteries to start the APU?

A

NO

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16
Q

The Engine Abnormal Engine Start woudl be found in what section of the QRH?

A

Non-Annunciated

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17
Q

What would cause a red light for the tug driver prior to pushback?

A

The external steering disengage switch in the engaged position

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18
Q

While the First Officer is performing a cross-bleed start, what is the minimum duct pressure required?

A

40PSI

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19
Q

During cold weather operations if no oil pressure indication is displayed by the time idle RPM is achieved, what is the appropriate response?

A

Perform and immediate shutdown

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20
Q

According to the QRH, what consideration must be made in regards to a singe engine taxi with Engine #2?

A

Trun HYD ELEC PUMP 1 ON

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21
Q

During an engine start with a tailwind there is no positive N1 increase before starter cutout. What is the appropriate action?

A

Perform the ENGINE ABNORMAL START memory item

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22
Q

If you decide to dry motor an engine after abnormal start, how long must you wait between the dry motor and the second start attempt?

A

5 min

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23
Q

After starting Engine #1 with the APU still running what source is powering the electrical system?

A

Both IDG 1 and the APU generator

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24
Q

What is the AC electrical priority?

A

Onside > Inside > Outside > Cross Side

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25
Q

After engine start you turn the APU knob to OFF only to realize that you need it for takeoff performance. Do you need to wait for the 1 min cool down period to restart the APU.

A

NO

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26
Q

If there is no ITT indication within _____ after engine start, the start should be manually aborted.

A

30 sec

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27
Q

After starting engine #1, the Captain calls “Flaps 2, APU off, Flight Control Check”. What EICAS message should you be aware of before completing the After Start Checklist flow?

A

FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG

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28
Q

If performing the flight controls check with one engine operating, checking one surface at a time will avoid what message?

A

FLT CONTROL NO DISPATCH

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29
Q

A “FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG” message will appear after starting engine #1 and after the parking brake is released. What does it indicate?

A

The hydraulic portion of the flight control PBIT is in progress

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30
Q

If deicing is anticipated, what do you do after start?

A

The after start checklist will be deferred until after deicing is complete.

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31
Q

The APU shutdown can only be performed after the confirmation of power transfer. What are two ways to confirm this transfer.

A

1) View the Electrical Synoptic Page

2) Wait 30 sec after N2 stabilizes

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32
Q

Which engine is recommended to be started for a single engine taxi and why?

A

Engine #1. Hydraulic ACMP 2 will automatically come on with the left engine running, parking brake off, and the knob in AUTO

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33
Q

When should you not single engine taxi?

A

1) Ramp/Taxiway Surface Contamination
2) Taxi time to/from a runway is <5 min
3) Airport-specific regulations prohibit single engine taxi

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34
Q

During a cross-bleed engine start where do you verify duct pressrue?

A

Status Page

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35
Q

How long do you have to start the engine after moving the START/STOP selector from STOP to RUN?

A

30sec or you have to reset the system (STOP>RUN>START)

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36
Q

What is an operational difference with carbon brakes?

A

Carbon brakes wear less than steel brakes when operated at high temperatures and fewer applications

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37
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the nosewheel steering?

A

2

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38
Q

What system configurations does the “TAKEOFF OK” aural not verify?

A

Parking Brake, Flaps, Spoilers, Pitch Trim

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39
Q

If the Ice Protection switch is in AUTO and the system is selected OFF in the MCDU, when is the earliest the ice protection system will come on?

A

1,700ft AGL or 2 min after liftoff, whichever occurs first

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40
Q

After runway heading verification while in position, the Captain arms the auto throttles and both pilots should silently verify the correct modes are displayed in the FMA. What should be displayed?

A

White TO (bottom left A/T field), Green ROLL (upper lateral filed) and Green TO (upper vertical field)

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41
Q

During the Before Takeoff Checklist below the line, the FO notices the brake temps are amber. Can you depart?

A

No, we cannot depart with amber brake temp indications.

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42
Q

With the thrust levers at TOGA when will ATTCS command RSV thrust?

A

1) Difference between both engine N1 values are greater than 15%
2) One engine failure during takeoff or go-around
3) Windshear Detection

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43
Q

What is the job of the PTU?

A

The PTU assists landing gear retraction and extension, should the right engine or right EDP fail.

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44
Q

On takeoff, when do the auto-throttles engage?

A

When thrust levers are beyond 50 degrees TLA

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45
Q

On takeoff you encounter windshear and the thrust raging has changed to TOx-RSV. Is the PF required to move the thrust levers to the MAX position?

A

YES to get GA RSV

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46
Q

During takeoff, you exprience an engine failure at V1. You accomplish the actions and callouts per the SOPM. At acceleration altitude (1000ft AFE) and reaching VFS you call “Continuous, Bank Off”. How do you set singe engine thrust to continuous?

A

Press the TRS button on the MCDU, select CON.

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47
Q

LNAV may be armed on the ground prior to takeoff?

A

TRUE

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48
Q

After takeoff you are unable to move the gear handle? When should you use the “DN LOCK REL” button?

A

When needed to retract the landing gear for obstacle clearance

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49
Q

In response to the PF saying “Check Thrust” what should the PM verify prior to saying “Thrust Checked”?

A

1) N1 has reached N1 target
2) ATTCS is Green
3) Engine parameter are normal

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50
Q

While hand flying a departure, you feel an unusual amount of nose up pressure and suspect runaway trim. What should you do?

A

AP/Disc Button - PRESS AND HOLD

Pitch Trim Systems 1 and 2 Cutout Button - PUSH IN

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51
Q

After takeoff you observe “AI WING VLV OPEN” status message. What does this likely mean?

A

This is a normal test after every takeoff 10 min or 10,000ft

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52
Q

Someone is attempting to gain access to the cockpit using the EMERG ENTRY pushbutton on the door control panel in the cabin. How much time do you have to press the INHIB button before the door unlocks? How long would it lock out if pushed?

A

30sec

500 sec

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53
Q

In the event of an engine fire or other sever malfunction, the only way to shut off the engine shutoff valve is using the

A

Engine fire extinguishing handels

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54
Q

During the “Climb Sequence” what is the flap retraction schedule for a flaps 2 takeoff?

A

Retract flaps using the F-Bug

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55
Q

What is the most likely meaning of an EICAS message with a chevron next to it?

A

Addressing this item first will likely clear other related messages

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56
Q

What is the Reversion Logic for the Captain? FO?

A

CP - 1 / 3 / 2

FO - 2 / 3 / 1

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57
Q

Is it possible to have a “Fuel 1(2) Low Level” EICAS warning message with more than 660 lbs in the tank?

A

YES collector tank be partially empty

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58
Q

If you change your cruise altitude what do you need to do?

A

Enter new cruise altitude in the MCDU for the pressurization to work properly

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59
Q

If you have a dual ice detector failure, you will lose anti-ice protection

A

False - Manual Activation Still Works

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60
Q

What is the active autothrottle mode in cruise?

A

SPDe

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61
Q

While cruising at FL410 you get a master caution light and “PACK 1 FAIL” EICAS message. The associated QRH procedure was unsuccessful in restoring the pack. What is the maximum altitude you may cruise at?

A

FL310

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62
Q

Under what conditions will the FADEC shut down the APU in flight?

A

Underspeed
FADEC critical fault
Overspeed

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63
Q

In the manual pressurization mode which statement is true when you push the DUMP button?

A

Recirculation Fans OFF

PACKS OFF

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64
Q

In an electrical emergency with the RAT deployed, which electric fuel pumps are operational?

A

1) Engine Driven Pumps
2) AC Pump 2
3) DC Pump

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65
Q

In a dual engine failure situation in the QRH will direct you to select the XFEED to LOW 1. Why?

A

To ensure that AC Pump 2 is on the fuel can be supplied to either engine.

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66
Q

What is the Stabilizer Trim Priority logic?

A

Backup, Captain, FO, FCM

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67
Q

When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy and how long will they provide oxygen?

A

Cabin Altitude between 14,000 and 14,750 ft

12 min

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68
Q

If a fuel imbalance develops, how should you correct the abnormality?

A

Cross-feed fuel by selecting the low side with the XFEED knob

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69
Q

If you believe you have a non-annunciated cargo fire in flight how many time will you need to push the button for both bottles? Ground?

A

2 Flight

3 Ground

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70
Q

What is the max APU start altitude?

A

FL300

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71
Q

With APU off, what happens if both IDGs fail?

A

1) The batteries power the DC ESS BUSES and the STANDBY AC BUS visa the inverter druing the 8 second RAT deployment
2) RAT auto deploys and after 8 seconds supplies power to the AC ESS BUS
3) Once the RAT deploys, DC ESS BUSES are powered through the ESS TRU

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72
Q

What is the max turbulence penetration speed?

A

270/.76 above 10,000ft

250 below 10,000ft

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73
Q

What does DES NOW do on the MCDU

A

1000FPM down until intercepting the desired path

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74
Q

What does the green dot on the PFD airspeed tape represent

A

Indicates the drift down speed when flaps are up, and the ideal flap extension speed for the current aircraft weight

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75
Q

In an electrical emergency, how long are the batteries capable of supplying essential systems to the airplane?

A

10 min

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76
Q

What consideration should be given during an approach with the EICAS message “STALL PROT ICE SPEED” displayed?

A

Reference Green Dot, It automatically adjusts for icing conditions

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77
Q

How do you calculate Vap

A

Ref + 1/2 wind + gust factor

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78
Q

How do you get to the backup radio.

A

MCDU 2, MENU button, LSK 4L

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79
Q

Which vertical modes use SPD E

A

FLCH and OVSPD

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80
Q

What needs to be selected to automatically transition from FMS to ILS with preview needles selected?

A

APP

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81
Q

What not considered stabilized approach?

A

Non-transient deviations below 500ft

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82
Q

VOR approaches using vertical guidance require

A

Add 50ft to the MDA

83
Q

FMS speeds during single-engine configuration are ________.

A

Prohibited

84
Q

What hydraulic system powers landing gear extension and retraction?

A

2

85
Q

The proper flap setting for a single-engine approach and landing is:

A

Flaps 5

86
Q

Minimum Fuel and Emergency Fuel?

A

2,250lbs and 1,500lbs

87
Q

Flaps 4 is only used for what?

A

Takeoff

88
Q

According to SOPM, if performance considerations dictate, you may conduct a CAT II approach with flaps selected full.

A

FALSE

89
Q

What is the Max Landing Weight?

A

74,957 lbs

90
Q

When does GA Thrust mode become active?

A

When the landing gear is extended

91
Q

How many ways are there to effectively lower the gear?

A

3

92
Q

How do you achieve maximum performance braking?

A

Auto brakes OFF
Apply Maximum Brake Pedals
Use Maximum Reverse Thrust

93
Q

The After Landing Sequence is:

A

A silent flow performed by the FO

94
Q

How do you turn on engine anti-ice while operating on contaminated taxiways and ramps?

A

Manually Setting the Ice Protection Mode Selector to ON

95
Q

When can you shut down engine #2? What might happen?

A

After 2 minuite cool-down period

Nose wheel Steering could be temporarily unavailable

96
Q

How long do you need to wait between APU start attempts?

A

1st and 2nd 60 sec

3rd 5 min

97
Q

Setting the Emerg/Parking brake requires stepping on the brake pedals to pressurize the system

A

FALSE

98
Q

How long should you wait after connecting GPU before shutting down engine #1

A

10sec

99
Q

What do you have to do if the GPU button was left pushed in?

A

Cycle the button out and in once power is established

100
Q

Post flight external inspection may be waived by the inbound crew under what circumstances?

A

The outbound crew arrives before the inbound crew leaves

101
Q

Can you fight a fire in the engine after the aircraft is powered down

A

YES on extinguishing is on the hot battery bus but not detection

102
Q

What does a successful test look like on the CVR/FDR?

A

No EICAS Messages

103
Q

What is the AC power priority

A

Onside/Inside/Outside/Cross Side

104
Q

What triggers the EPBIT to run

A

Establishing AC POWER

105
Q

We are not required to let the EPBIT to run when

A

Successful test within the previous 50 hours no EICAS message

106
Q

Temperature Limitations on the EPBIT

A

NO

107
Q

What do we do if we have ADS/ACS EICAS messages

A

Use the ADS Heater

108
Q

What is the EPBIT Testing

A

Electrical Components of the FBW systems such as the FCMs, ACEs

109
Q

Can we start the APU with just the DC ground cart

A

NO you must also have Battery 1

110
Q

When we turn the battery’s on what screens come on

A

DCU 2 and 3

IESS

111
Q

What else is being powered when we turn the Battery ON

A

IESS, Clock, FO MCDU, CP CCD, Both Comms - KNOW FOR ORAL

112
Q

When are the annunciatiors tested

A

captains originating flow

113
Q

What EICAS messages are we looking for prior to pressing the Fire Test Button

A

NO fire protection fail messages

114
Q

What happens when we pull the fire handle

A

Fuel SOV, Hyd SOV, Bleed SOV, X Bleed Close, Arm Bottles

115
Q

Non Annunciated Cargo Fire on the Ground

A

2 for high rate and 1 additional for low rate

116
Q

How are the emergency lights powered

A

Dedicated battery pack (10 min), Charged with any AC power source

117
Q

What will the APU auto shutdown on the ground

A 
o	Underspeed
o	FADEC Critical Fault
o	Overspeed
o	Sensor Fail
o	High Oil Temp
o	EGT Overtemp
o	Low Oil Press
o	Fire
118
Q

If the APU caught fire in the air what would happen?

A

APU Keeps Running

APU Fire Warning

119
Q

After landing when should we start the APU?

A

Only when needed approaching the gate with no ac power or environmental reasons

120
Q

What are we looking for after we shut the APU off before we shut the Batteries off

A

APU OFF

121
Q

What light do we turn on getting AC power established

A

Nav

122
Q

What light indicates that engine start is eminent

A

Beacon

123
Q

When does the strobe come on

A

Before Takeoff

124
Q

What triggers the HPBIT

A

Establishing PSI on all three hydraulic systems and previously below 250psi

125
Q

What temperature constraints for the HPBIT

A

All reservoirs must be above 10C for the HPBIT to run unless it is expired then it will always run

126
Q

When does ACHP #3B turn on?

A

Only when ACMP #3A fails IN FLIGHT

127
Q

3) What happened if I press the dump button in flight

A

Recirc Fans Off, PACS Off, ^2000FPM to 12,400ft in AUTO / NOTHING IN MANUAL

128
Q

With the Press in AUTO what must we do to ensure normal pressurization

A

Set the departure cruise altitude and destination altitude in the MCDU & Airport not in the database you have to manually set LFE Elevation

129
Q

When does the Wing Anti Ice Test Perform

A

10,000’ for 10min after departure

130
Q

IF we get a Stall Protection Ice Speed - EICAS message what must we do for the landing speeds

A

QRH ICE speeds

131
Q

What additional lights come on automatically when the masks deploy

A

fasten seatblets and no smokeing

132
Q

What is the minimum O2 pressure for dispatch

A

Green 3 Cyan 2

133
Q

What is the oxygen setting during preflight

A

100%

134
Q

How do we reconnect the nose wheel steering

A

Press the Tiller

135
Q

Do the IRSs auto revert

A

No 25.5

Yes 27.1

136
Q

When might we turn VANV off?

A

Clearance to climb unrestricted

Deselect VNAV and press FLCH

137
Q

When might we turn FMS speed off?

A

Slowing for an approach

ATC assigned speed

138
Q

What speed will the airplane pitch for on TO

A 
Pitch Angle (V2 + 10 AEO)
Some speed between V2 and V2+10 OEI
139
Q

If there is not F Bug for retraction

A

Use Green Dot +10

140
Q

Min holding speed

A

Green Dot

141
Q

What speed for drift down

A

Green Dot

142
Q

Max Taxi Speed

A

30 kts dry uncontaminated

143
Q

VNAV for descent what three things do we need

A

V VNAV
T TOD
A Altitude Set

144
Q

Descend Now becomes active at

A

50nm from TOD

145
Q

Descend Now past TOD

A

1.5 deg more than desired path to intercept

146
Q

Refueling on a single engine turn

A

ONLY CREW Members Onboard

147
Q

Max temp for brakes on T/O

A

Green

148
Q

What fuel pumps are on when the APU starts from the battery

A

DC Pump

149
Q

AC Power Avaliable what pump for APU start

A

AC Pump 2

150
Q

What are looking for during the flight control test

A

freedom of movement, no binding, no white dashed boxes

151
Q

Why are some actuators standby and others on

A

Only one in use and swap to allow for constant ware

152
Q

Fuel Trend Monitor

A

TOC Check and Every Hour

153
Q

Maximum Fuel Imbalance

A

794lbs

154
Q

When do we press the ADS probes heater

A

FFOD & -18C
0C & Visible Moisture
Erroneous IAS

155
Q

Setting up the TO Data Set when do we select Anti Ice

A

OFF > 10C
Engine 10C to 5 C
ALL < 5c

156
Q

When must we not use Flex

A

Windshear
Contaminated Runways
Airport Specific Reasons

157
Q

Normal Climb

A

250 below 10,000

270 to .74 above 10,000

158
Q

Normal Cruise

A

Econ

159
Q

Normal Descent

A

280 to .74 above 10,000

250 below 10,000

160
Q

No Speed Brake Deployment

A

Flaps 2
160
TLA

161
Q

When will the EICAS declutter

A

30 sec after flap retraction (Gear Up, Flaps Up, APU OFF)

162
Q

Do we have anti ice protection vert and horizontal stab

A

No

163
Q

Max Windshield Wiper Speed

A

250

164
Q

How long does it take the fadec to shut down the apu

A

10Sec

165
Q

Shooting an ILS approach min autopilot altitude

A

50ft

166
Q

Shooting an Non Precision approach min autopilot altitude

A

MDA

167
Q

Are we aloud to use TCS to respond to a break away maneuver on a PRM

A

YES, but no speed protection

168
Q

What defines a stabilized approach

A

within 5 deg of runway centerline and no more than 1000 fpm sink rate

169
Q

What limitations associated with a Cat 2 approach

A

tailwind 10 knots and crosswind less than 12 knots - Flap 5 special checklist

170
Q

Can the IRS align on the ground and in-flight

A

YES

171
Q

What does the FMS use to determine aircraft position

A

GPS, IRS, VOR DME

172
Q

Are back course approaches approved with the IESS

A

NO

173
Q

What is the primary source of navigation

A

FMS

174
Q

What is the name of the APU

A

Sunstrand

175
Q

What is the purpose of the AUTO function on the Battery 2 switch

A

System logic will automatically switch the battery from DC ESS 2 bus, to the APU start bus during an APU start

176
Q

Windshield Heat requires what to operate normally

A

2 AC electrical sources

177
Q

Pitch Higher Level Functions

A

AOA Limiting
Airspeed Scheduling
Auto Thrust Compensation
Configuration Change

178
Q

Roll Higher Level Functions

A

Airspeed Scheduling
Stroke Limiting
Turn Coordination
Speed Brake Deployment

179
Q

Yaw Higher Level Functions

A

Yaw Damper

Turn Coordinator

180
Q

When does ACHP #1 turn on automatically

A

Flaps > 0 & TL Takeoff Thrust or 50kts / Flaps > 1

181
Q

When does ACHP #2 turn on automatically

A

Engine 1 running, Break Released, unless parking brake set for 6 minutes

182
Q

The PTU will be automatically started when what conditions are met

A

1) Flaps not set to zero or gear not up and locked
2) EDP1 not failed
3) Hydraulic Reservoir 2 quantity above 12%

183
Q

Engine Start Malfunctions

A
  • No oil pressure within 10 seconds of N2
  • N1 not indicated before starter cutout (50% N2)
  • No ITT within 30 sec
  • ITT exceeds 815C
  • Oil Pressure Stabilizes below limits
  • N1 or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speed (hung start)
184
Q

Engine

A

CF34-8E5

185
Q

How long does anti ice stay on after ice is no longer detected

A

2 minutes

186
Q

Single AC electrical source in-flight what part of the windshield heat works properly

A

Left windshield unless it fails then the right becomes available

187
Q

Time to align the IRS

A

Up to 17min

188
Q

Maximum Admissible Altitude (Tailstrike)

A

11.9deg

189
Q

Ground Spoiler Deployment

A

Simultaneously:

  • WOW
  • Wheel Speed>45kts or IAS>60 kts
  • TLA < 26deg
190
Q

Ground Spoiler Retract

A

Wheel speed < 45kts > 5 sec
or
TLA > 35 deg

191
Q

The E-175 has what types of circuit breakers?

A

Thermal and Electric

192
Q

PACKs are automatically turned off during engine start (if the button is in the AUTO position)

A

True

193
Q

Can the APU can supply bleed air for engine and wing anti-ice?

A

NO

194
Q

Max Altitude that APU can be use for engine start

A

21,000ft

195
Q

Max Altitude that APU can be used for bleed air

A

15,000ft

196
Q

The primary hydraulic pumps for system 1 and 2 are the

A

EDPs (Engine Driven Pumps)

197
Q

Autobrakes release when

A

When the brake pedals are pressed (more than 20%)

198
Q

Once steering engaged, the aircraft can be steered

A

With the rudder pedals or the handwheel steering (tiller) but not both at the same time

199
Q

The ______ provides higher level functions to the flight controls.

A

FCM (Flight Control Module)

200
Q

The primary pump used to transport fuel from the tank to the engine is the

A

Main Ejector Pump

201
Q
  1. To perform a crossfeed, set the crossfeed switch to
A

the low side

202
Q

When the crossfeed selector is set to LOW 1

A

The AC Fuel Pump on the high side (2) turns on, and both engines are supplied fuel from the high tank (2)

203
Q

Green dot (on the airspeed indicator) shows

A
  • driftdown speed
  • ideal flap extension speed
  • at least 1.3g over shaker speed (40 degree bank)
204
Q

When must a fire detection system test be performed?

A

The crew’s first flight of the day in a particular airplane

ERJ 175 (3 decks)

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