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MC-12 > Systems Review > Flashcards

Systems Review Flashcards

1
Q

At what altitude range does the Radio Altimeter System display RADAR altitude?

A

0-2500 feet AGL

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2
Q

Are the Primary Flight Displays interchangeable with the Multifunction Display?

A

No, the PFDs are not interchangeable with the MFD

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3
Q

Does the LSC/ISS pre-warn and warn for Stall based on the actual weight of the aircraft?

A

No, pre-warning and warning logic is based on MGW & flap setting.

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4
Q

How quickly will menus and pages controlled by the Display Control Panel time out?

A

After 10 Seconds

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5
Q

What does a yellow underline of the Altimeter Setting indicate?

A

There is a difference between the Pilot’s and Co-Pilot’s PFD Altimeter Setting of > .02”Hg or 1 hPa

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6
Q

What color is displayed for the #1 Bearing Needle?

A

Magenta

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7
Q

What is the normal MFD Map Display format for flight?

A

Present Position (PPOS) Map Format

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8
Q

Where does the ESIS ADC (Air Data Computer) receive Pitot-Static inputs from?

A

Co-Pilot pitot static system

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9
Q

In the event of an MFD failure, which switch should the pilot toggle, and to which position?

A

The pilot should toggle the Pilot Display Switch on the Reversionary Panel to the “PFD” position

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10
Q

What Does De-Clutter Mode do and when does it activate?

A
  • Pitch exceeds +30º or -20º
  • Roll exceeds 65º
  • De-clutters all bugs, carets, needles, menus and other
    references
  • Leaves behind only aircraft sky/ground, aircraft display and FD guidance chevrons which display guidance to correct excursion
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11
Q

When using the VNAV system, the ______ ________ must be used as the primary altitude reference for all operations.

A

Barometric Altimeters

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12
Q

Use of VNAV guidance for a V-MDA approach that includes a step-down fix between the final approach fix and missed approach point is _______.

A

Prohibited

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13
Q

VNAV altitudes ___________ on the MFD map page or CDU legs page when utilizing VNAV for flight guidance.

A

must be displayed

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14
Q

Use of VNAV while conducting a missed approach procedure is ________.

A

Prohibited

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15
Q

How long will the IAS readout flash RED when a LSC/ISS warning or Overspeed alert occurs?

A

5 seconds

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16
Q

How is the Aural Warning cancelled, if the Autopilot was disconnected automatically?

A

By pressing the AP/YD TRIM Disconnect Button on the Yoke

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17
Q

When does the Pre-Select Altitude readout stop flashing when approaching the level-off altitude?

A

As altitude closes within ± 200 feet of the Pre-Select Altitude

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18
Q

Which has priority, the AFX message or the FIRE message?

A

The FIRE message

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19
Q

How is the detection of Traffic Advisory (TA) traffic by TCAS (regardless of whether or not a TCAS format is selected for display) indicated?

A

The normally-cyan TA ONLY TCAS mode legend next to Line Select Key R3 changes color to flashing yellow.

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20
Q

When is a PROP comparator warning triggered?

A

When the two sources of engine data (engine DCUs) disagree by more than 50 rpm

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21
Q

The color of the TO waypoint on the Control Display Unit is?

A

Green

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22
Q

Proper pre-flight of the FMS Status page includes?

A

Ensuring current data base

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23
Q

Magenta color text on the CDU LEGs page indicates _______ data?

A

FMS or VNAV Airspeed, VPA and altitude

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24
Q

What are some acceptable reference points to use to initialize POS INIT?

A

Use the most accurate of AIRPORT, PILOT/REF WPT, GNSS, or FMS

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25
Q

When is the message RESET INITIAL POS displayed on the message line?

A

If initialized position is greater than 40 miles from previous FMS position.

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26
Q

When will the FMS generate a NOT ON AIRWAY message?

A

When an entry or exit waypoint is entered that is not on the airway.

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27
Q

Simple Performance initialization requires what two entry items?

A

Total fuel weight and cruise altitude

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28
Q

What are route discontinuities used for?

A

To show a break in flight plan sequence, or to isolate portions of the flight plan while edits or changes are made.

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29
Q

How many ways can a discontinuity be deleted?

A

Two. 1) A delete command from the scratchpad. 2) By insertion of the next applicable waypoint (preferred).

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30
Q

What is one example of a discontinuity that cannot be deleted with the CLR DEL function key?

A

A discontinuity at the end of a search pattern.

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31
Q

What are the four types of fixes?

A
  1. Abeam Fix
  2. Radial Crossing Fix
  3. Distance Crossing Fix
  4. Latitude or Longitude Fix
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32
Q

DIR TO nearest airports provides access to how many airports?

A

5

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33
Q

The Offset Parallel Course entry is accessed from what page?

A

FPLN Page

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34
Q

What are the “outputs” of the Trip Calculator?

A

Estimated Time En Route (ETE) and Fuel Required (FUEL REQ)

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35
Q

IFR enroute and terminal navigation is prohibited unless ___________________________________________.

A

the pilot verifies either the currency of the database or the accuracy of each selected waypoint and Navaid by reference to current approved data.

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36
Q

The FMS position must be _______________ prior to use as a means of navigation

A

checked for accuracy

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37
Q

During periods of dead reckoning, the FMS _____ be used for navigation.

A

shall not

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38
Q

GPS instrument approaches must be conducted with __________ and must be available by the Final Approach Fix.

A

GPS integrity monitoring (RAIM)

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39
Q

During FMS instrument approaches, the FMS annunciator APPR (green) or the FMS annunciator GPS APPR (green) must be displayed on the PFD at the FAF to indicate that the FMS is ______________.

A

in the Approach Mode

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40
Q

Use of FMS guidance for conducting instrument approach procedures is ________ with the FMS annunciator NO APPR (white or amber) displayed on the PFD.

A

prohibited

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41
Q

Can you legally build and execute an approach to a runway if its not in the FMS-3000 database?

A

No

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42
Q

What must be selected as the NAV source on localizer based approaches after the FAF?

A

LOC must be selected from the FAF to the runway.

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43
Q

Two Pratt & Whitney _____ SHP, _____ Turbine, _____ Flow engines

A

1050, Free, Reverse

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44
Q

Power plants may be divided into three major sections:

A

Compressor Section, Combustion Section, Power Section

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45
Q

The air that the compressor brings into the engine, uses approximately ____ for combustion.

A

25%

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46
Q

The remaining ____ is for cooling, centering the combustion fireball, and P3 users.

A

75%

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47
Q

What are the four stages of compression on the PT6A-60 engine?

A

Three axial and one centrifugal

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48
Q

What is the device that compensates for excess air flow at low N1 settings by bleeding axial compressed air to reduce back pressure in the engine compressor section?

A

Compressor Bleed Valve

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49
Q

What is the indication that the Bleed Valve has stuck in the open position?

A

Low torque with High ITT and N1

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50
Q

True or False

The Primary Governor is part of the Accessory Gear Box?

A

False

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51
Q

What are the components mounted on the N1 accessory section at the rear of the engine?

A

F.R.O.S.T.

  • Fuel Pumps/Control
  • Refrigerant
  • Oil Pumps
  • Starter/Generators
  • N1Tach
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52
Q

How many igniter plugs are used to light the fuel/air mixture when the engine is started?

A

Two. However, only one is required

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53
Q

What are the components driven by the Reduction Gearbox?

A

T.O.P

  • Tachometer (N2)
  • Overspeed Governor
  • Primary Governor
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54
Q

Where is the chip detector located?

A

bottom of Reduction Gearbox

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55
Q

What action should be taken inflight with oil pressure reading 80psi?

A

Limit torque to 62% with oil pressure between 60-90psi.

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56
Q

If oil pressure drops to 57psi what are the indications on the MFD and what action should be taken?

A

EIS oil display will be displayed in red (<60) and consider performing ENGINE SHUTDOWN IN FLIGHT.

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57
Q

If a bleed air valve fails to ______ as static take-off power is set, torque will indicate _____ than normal and ITT will indicate ______ than normal

A

close, lower, higher

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58
Q

In the event of an engine fire, how many visual warnings are present on the flight-deck?

A

Two. L or R ENGINE FIRE and a red FIRE in the ITT/TORQUE gauge

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59
Q

How do we know the F/W valve closed when the switch was depressed?

A

The lens in the firewall fuel shutoff valve push button will illuminate

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60
Q

The normal indicated operating oil level is ____ to ____ quarts low

A

1-2 (hot) 3 (cold)

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61
Q

How is a secure radio asset displayed on the MCAP?

A

An “S” after the radio designator on all MCAPS with the secure radio selected on their respective TRS .

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62
Q

When is Rx mode automatically selected?

A

Rx mode is automatically selected with the radio asset selected by the TRS switch

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63
Q

How is Rx volume manually controlled?

A

Master volume (MVOL) selects a baseline volume. The user has 3 seconds to select an IVOL before MCAP defaults to MVOL level. Use the arrow up/dn keys to personalize.

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64
Q

What is the blade angle when the props are at the Ground Idle Gate?

A

2 degrees

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65
Q

As the blade angle ______, rotational drag increases, and the blade speed will _____?

A

Increases, Decreases

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66
Q

State the component(s) that cause(s) the blades to seek a feathered position due to centrifugal force.

A

Counter Weights

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67
Q

What controls the props pitch when not in the governing range?

A

The Beta Valve in conjunction with the PLPS nuts and the prop pitch solenoids.

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68
Q

Are there any exceptions to be less than 1050 RPM?

A

while in feather

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69
Q

How does the primary governor slow the propeller RPM down in an over-speed condition?

A

The pilot valve raises, allowing oil to drain, causing the blade angle to increase (drag) and slows down the propeller.

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70
Q

When the overspeed governor test switch is placed in the test position, it provides _______ power to the N.C. solenoid and opens it allowing _______ to reset the speeder spring tension to _____ - _______ RPM?

A

Electrical, Oil pressure

1500-1610

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71
Q

What components feather the propeller?

A

centrifugal counterweights and feathering springs

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72
Q

What would be an indication of a primary governor failure during flight?

A

propeller above 1700 RPM

73
Q

Which governor reduces fuel flow to the engine to limit propeller RPM?

A

The Fuel Topping Governor

74
Q

What is the governing range of the Fuel Topping Governor?

A

106% of selected RPM

95% of selected RPM in reverse

75
Q

What are the two functions of a Fuel Topping Governor?

A

Limits propeller RPM during stuck/sluggish prop situations, and aids during reversing operations.

76
Q

What do the Fuel Topping Governor and the Primary Governor share with regard to components?

A

speeder springs and fly weights

77
Q

In the event of an engine failure at what percent torque will the opposite auto feather light extinguish?

A

17%

78
Q

At what percent torque does the auto feather dump valve open allowing the prop to feather?

A

10%

79
Q

What two functions does the synchrophaser perform?

A

The system automatically matches the RPM of both propellers and positions the propellers at a preset phase relationship in order to reduce cabin noise.

80
Q

Can the PROP SYNC be used for all operations?

A

Yes. PROP SYNC is certified for all operations including takeoff and landing.

81
Q

What are the sources of electrical power?

A

Battery, 2 Generators, and the Ground Power Unit.

82
Q

What are the volts and amperage of each source of power?

A 
Battery = 24VDC / 42 amps.  
Generators = 28VDC / 400 amps (300 amps W-model).  
GPU = 28VDC, 1000 amps for 5 seconds, 500 amps for 2 minutes, and 300 amps continuously.
83
Q

What are the two functions of the battery?

A

Engine start and final redundant power source

84
Q

How many BUSs are there?

A

7, Battery, L Gen, R Gen, Center, Triple Fed, Dual Fed and ESIS Battery Bus.

4 Mission Gear related buses too

85
Q

What is the significance of the colored circles around each circuit breaker?

A

It designates which BUS is the source of power for that circuit.

86
Q

What are the two purposes of the Generators?

A

Start the engines, provide electrical power

87
Q

What are the functions of the GCU?

A

Voltage regulation, Reverse current protection, Paralleling, and Cross start current limiting

88
Q

What is the fail safe feature of the AVIONICS MASTER Circuit Breaker?

A

If the avionics buses become disconnected as a result of a control circuit fault, the AVIONICS MASTER circuit breaker can be pulled to restore power.

89
Q

What is the significance of the white circle around individual switches?

A

Equipment with a WHITE CIRCLE around the control switch remains operable during dual generator failure and automatic load shed conditions.

90
Q

What does a flashing EXT PWR caution annunciator indicate?

A

Voltage is low or electrically disconnected

91
Q

What is the fuel capacity of the Nacelle Tank?

A

54 gallons

92
Q

If fuel vents become clogged,

A

Fuel can become trapped in the system causing a flame-out.

93
Q

The Jet Pump in the ER and Aux Tanks are:

A

Operating when fuel flows through them

94
Q

The Auxiliary fuel transfer system is fully ________ and is only __________ by the pilot.

A

automatic, monitored

95
Q

What is the consideration concerning Manual Transfer Override with the ER system?

A

The pilot must place the switch back to AUTO or AUX when the ER tank is empty.

96
Q

How many fuel pumps are there on each side of the aircraft?

A

5

  • Engine Driven Boost Pump
  • Standby Boost Pump
  • High Pressure Pump
  • Jet Transfer Pump (ER)
  • Jet Transfer Pump (AUX)
97
Q

Which sequence of components correctly defines the flow of the fuel from the Firewall Shutoff Valve to the Fuel Manifold?

A

Engine Driven Boost Pump, Fuel Filter, Oil-to-Fuel Heat Exchanger - High Pressure Pump - Fuel Control Unit - Fuel Flow Transmitter

98
Q

How many fuel nozzles are there on the engine?

A

14

99
Q

Are they simplex or dualplex?

A

Simplex

100
Q

Which component in the fuel system shares the same drive shaft as the oil scavenge pumps?

A

Engine Driven Boost Pump

101
Q

What is the purpose of the Oil-to-Fuel Heat Exchanger?

A

The Oil-to-Fuel Heat Exchanger allows hot oil into the unit when the fuel temperature is too cold.

102
Q

The Left or Right FUEL PRESS warning light is designed to tell you when:

A

The Engine Driven Fuel Boost Pump has failed

103
Q

What does the fuel ER/AUX XFR override switch do?

A

Provides electrical power directly to the respective motive flow valve.

104
Q

What four things happen when the FUEL CROSSFEED switch is activated?

A
  • Fuel Crossfeed light illuminates
  • Crossfeed valve opens
  • Supply side standby boost pump turns on.
  • Receiving side motive flow valve closes
105
Q

How long can you operate with the red FUEL PRESS warning light illuminated?

A

10 hours

106
Q

If the High Pressure Pump fails, what will happen?

A

The engine will fail

107
Q

How many Standby Pumps are required for takeoff?

A

One STANDBY PUMP can be inoperative for takeoff

108
Q

What limitations are placed on operations with AVGAS?

A
  • Limited to 150 hours.

- Requires standby boost pumps to be used above 20,000 feet.

109
Q

The flow control unit regulates ______ into the pressure vessel.

A

Inflow Air

110
Q

The pressure controller uses _______ to open the outflow valve for scheduled pressurization.

A

Vaccum

111
Q

From the list below, which is NOT a function of the outflow valve?

  • positive relief
  • negative relief
  • dump operations
  • pressure modulation
A

dump operations

112
Q

During the pressurization test what valve closes when we place the switch to test?

A

Safety Valve

113
Q

What prevents “pressure bumps” from occurring after takeoff?

A

The left landing gear safety switch and a 6-8 second delay that opens up the right FCU ambient air valve.

114
Q

Which valve modules to maintain scheduled pressurization in flight?

A

outflow valve

115
Q

When will the CABIN ALT warning light illuminate?

A

When the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet MSL

116
Q

You are flying along and you experience a complete electrical failure. What will happen with regards to pressurization?

A

The aircraft will depressurize at the cabin leak rate.

117
Q

Unregulated 120 psi users:

A
  • Brake Deice (if installed)

- 18 psi regulator

118
Q

Regulated 18 psi users:

A
  • Flight hour meter
  • Bleed Air Warning
  • Hydraulic fill can
  • Ejector (creates vacuum)
  • Pressurization control
  • Deice boots
119
Q

After selecting the bleed air valve to pneumatic and environmental off after illumination of a single [L or R BLEED FAIL] red master warning light, the annunciator will?

A

Remain illuminated

120
Q

Is Brake Deice available during single engine operations?

A

No

121
Q

The BLEED AIR VALVES are necessary for environmental reasons however; leave them off for:

A
  • Throttle Push

- To make cooling on the ground more efficient

122
Q

What is a more efficient means of cooling the aircraft while on the ground?

A

Leave the Bleed Air Valves switches in the ENVIRO OFF position.

123
Q

True or False

The Air-to-Air Heat Exchangers have a bypass capability?

A

True

124
Q

True or False

The temperature of the air coming into the cabin when in the MAN mode is controlled by the floor sensors.

A

False

125
Q

What is the CAUTION associated with using the INCR / DECR in the MAN mode?

A

INCR / DECR switch activation longer than 2-3 second intervals or longer than 60 seconds can result in duct overheating and the illumination of the amber DUCT OVERTEMP annunciator.

126
Q

How are the flight control systems on the MC-12 controlled?

A

They are mechanically controlled through cables and bell cranks

127
Q

What are the 3 flap positions on the MC-12 aircraft?

A

UP, APPROACH, and DOWN

128
Q

What is the maximum allowable speed for flap extension?

A

Flaps approach, 202 KIAS. Flaps full down, 158 KIAS

129
Q

With a dual generator failure, the Load Management Table in the EP section of the HB POH states that if the use of the normal Landing Gear System is available it will reduce available battery power by _______.

A

1/2

130
Q

What is the sequence of switches that prevent the landing gear from being retracted while the airplane is on the ground?

A

When the struts of the main landing gear are compressed the WOW switch opens the control circuit which prevents the landing gear from being raised.

131
Q

When executing a landing with flaps “Approach” how has the Gear Warning System been compromised?

A

With the flaps at Approach, the Gear Warning System can be silenced.

132
Q

When the flaps are selected to “Full” and the landing gear is still retracted, how will the pilot silence the landing gear warning system?

A

To silence the landing gear warning system the pilot must lower the landing gear if the flaps are in the “Full” position

133
Q

With a dual generator failure what are your options for extending the landing gear?

A

The landing gear are powered from the Center and Triple Fed Bus, which can receive power from the battery.
Manual extension

134
Q

How many operating modes does the AN/ARC-231 radio set provide?

A

six

135
Q

What kind of built-in-tests (BIT) are performed?

A

There are 2: a power up BIT (PBIT) and a continuous BIT (CBIT)

136
Q

Where is the Honeywell Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System physically located?

A

Avionics bay in the nose of the aircraft

137
Q

Where is the EGPWS Circuit Breaker located?

A

Co-Pilot CB panel.

138
Q

From what electrical BUS does the EGPWS receive power?

A

Right Generator Avionics Bus

139
Q

Bank angle advisories are inhibited below ___ ft?

A

10

140
Q

Can the EGPWS terrain display be used as a primary means for navigation?

A

No. The display of terrain and obstacle information is intended to serve as a situational awareness tool.

141
Q

When is it permissible to deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

Crews are authorized to deviate from their ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with a TAWS warning. As soon as workload permits, report to ATC.

142
Q

What does the color magenta indicate on the MFD terrain display?

A

Terrain data is unavailable for that particular area.

143
Q

If traffic gets within _________ of the projected Closest Point of Approach (CPA), it is considered an intruder and a Traffic Advisory (TA) is issued ?

A

25 to 45 seconds (depending upon altitude).

144
Q

What does the visual alert for a TA consist of?

A

The visual alert consists of a solid yellow circle depicting the intruder on the traffic map and a yellow flashing TRAFFIC message on the PFDs.

145
Q

TA Aural alert consists of _____?

A

TRAFFIC, TRAFFIC

146
Q

A Resolution Advisory is issued if the intruder gets within ___________ of the CPA?

A

20 to 35 seconds (depending upon altitude)

147
Q

Altitude and vertical speed information is received from _______?

A

ADC1

148
Q

Aural alerts are sounded over the speakers, whether or not they are selected on, and also over the headsets, true or false?

A

True

149
Q

Which electric bus powers the TCAS II system ?

A

Left Generator Avionics Bus

150
Q

When is power applied to the TCAS II System ?

A

Power is applied to the system when the Avionics Master switch is turned on.

151
Q

How many levels of heat are provided for each windshield?

A

Two: Normal and High

152
Q

Does the MC-12 have advisory lights associated with the pitot mast heat system?

A

yes

153
Q

The stall transducer may not reflect the actual aerodynamic stall point of the aircraft for the specific ice accumulation True or False?

A

True

154
Q

The Oil to Fuel Heat Exchanger switch is located on the pilots sub panel True or False?

A

False; the Oil to Fuel Heat Exchanger is completely automatic.

155
Q

Is it acceptable to have brake deice on with the wheels retracted?

A

Yes, 10 minute timer.

156
Q

Which component of the oxygen system is located outside the pressure vessel?

A

The 115 ft3 oxygen bottle is located exterior of the aft pressure vessel.

157
Q

How many different types of oxygen mask are in the aircraft?

A

2 - Diluter Demand Pilot-type and Constant Flow Passenger-type

158
Q

Where is the First Aid Mask located?

A

In the aft of the aircraft in the air stair area.

159
Q

Should the oxygen system be charged if flight above 12,000 PA is not anticipated?

A

Yes, the system should be charged prior to every flight.

160
Q

What position on the pilot’s oxygen mask should be used during smoke and fuel elimination?

A

Emergency

161
Q

Is any action required to initiate oxygen flow if the passenger mask deploy?

A

Yes, the passenger must pull the mask to extract the lanyard pin from the valve to star the flow of oxygen.

162
Q

Unpressurized aircraft above 10,000 ft for no more than _____

A

1 hour

163
Q

Unpressurized aircraft above 12,000 ft for no more than _____

A

30 minutes

164
Q

Oxygen required above _______ ft

A

14,000

165
Q

Pressurized aircraft require a _____ supply of oxygen

A

10 minute

166
Q

If pressurization is lost above 14,000 feet, then ____

A

descend to 10,000 feet or below.

167
Q

What is the highest recommended cabin altitude for sustained flight while using the Oxygen System?

A

25,000 feet

168
Q

What is the TUC at FL250?

A

3-5 minutes

169
Q

The pilot’s airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed indications will change when the _______________ is activated.

A

alternate static air source (707 rule)

170
Q

Are the pilot and copilot pits static systems combined or independent?

A

Independent

171
Q

Standard GPS final approaches require accuracy of at least:

A

.3 nautical mile

172
Q

AR 95-1 weight and balance requirements for pilots?

A

Ensure accuracy of the computations, ensure a completed 365-4 is aboard the aircraft, verify weight and CG will remain within allowable limits for the entire flight.

173
Q

TC 3-04.350 requirements?

A
  • Verify that CG and gross weight remain within aircraft limits for the duration of the flight.
  • Identify all missions or flight limitations imposed by weight.
174
Q

The MC-12 aircraft is Class ___?

A

2

175
Q

When must 365-4s be reviewed?

A

Every 90 days AND annually.

176
Q

When must a Class 2 aircraft be weighed?

A
  • Anytime an overhaul/airframe repair, modification/component replacement & painting
  • every 24 months
177
Q

What is Throttle Push?

A

Single use Emergency Power available for SINGLE ENGINE OPERATIONS in High Density Altitude Conditions (ITT limit of 870 for 5 minutes, with a torque limit of 100%).

178
Q

Take-off Field Length (TOFL) defined:

A

The greatest distance of the following:

  • accelerate-stop distance
  • engine-out accelerate-go distance
  • V35 + 15%
179
Q

For operation with Engine Anti-Ice ON:

A
  • Increase the scheduled V1 speed obtained from the table by 2 knots.
  • Increase the take-off field length obtained from the table by 10%

MC-12 (4 decks)

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