Systems Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of Total Air Temperature

A

The temperature of the air corrected for compressibility and friction caused by high speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

On the ground with probe heat ON which probes are heated?

A

All pitot tubes are heated half way, all others are heated fully except for the TAT probe which is not heated on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In flight which probes are heated?

A

All probes are heated in flight regardless of probe heat switch position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Max altitude for APU start?

A

37,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Max altitude for APU operation?

A

41,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Max permissible load on APU generator?

A

40 Kva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Max altitude for APU bleed air extraction?

A

25,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Max speed for APU door open or unknown?

A

220 Knots if APU is not operating and no speed limit if it is operating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What battery voltage is required before starting APU?

A

22 Volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the main battery power during APU start?

A

APU ECU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the APU battery power during APU start?

A

Cranking of the 28 volt DC Motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When will the AVAIL switchlight illuminate?

A

99% plus 2 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the thrust rating without APR?

A

13,560 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the thrust rating with APR?

A

14,750 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the max ambient temperature for takeoff and landing?

A

ISA + 35 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the min ambient temperature for takeoff and landing?

A

-40 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the max altitude for windmill start?

A

21,000 feet msl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Max engine to engine N2 split at ground idle power?

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How much thrust is produced by core air

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How much thrust is produced by bypass air?

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many stages of compression do we have?

A

The engine is equipped with a 10 stage axial flow compressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What accessories are driven off the N2 accessory gear box? (Fish oil plus)

A
Fuel pump (engine driven)
IDG
Starter (air turbine starter)
Hydraulic Pump (engine driven)
Oil pump 
Fadec Alternator (+)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the engine bleed air used for?

A

Engine start
Air conditioning
Pressurization
Wing and Cowl Anti-ice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What stages of bleed air are used?

A

Normally 6th, and 10th stage is used when demand exceeds capability of 6th stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What allows 10th stage bleed air availability?

A

Air conditioning system controller (ACSC) automatically opens the high pressure valve (HPV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How many igniters are installed on each engine?

A

2, igniter A and igniter B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the Parameters required before fuel can be introduced on a ground engine start?

A

20% or greater N2

ITT less than 120 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the air pressure requirement provided by the operating engine to initiate a cross bleed start?

A

42 PSI to a maximum of 80% N2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When will APR arm on takeoff?

A

Engine speed within 8% of scheduled takeoff power (normal or flex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When will the APR system activate?

A

Thrust levers in TOGA
Normal or flex thrust scheduled
And N1’s differ by 15% or more or when thrust levers are set in the MAX Power detent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What occurs when the APR system activates?

A

FADEC commands an N1 increase dependent on thrust lever position

32
Q

What indication will we have of APR activation?

A

Green APR icon on operable engine gauge

33
Q

If an engine fails on a go-around will the APR system activate?

A

Yes

34
Q

What is used to deploy and stow the thrust reversers?

A

Hydraulics
L thrust reverser uses hydraulic system 1
R thrust reverser uses hydraulic system 2

35
Q

In MAG mode how long does it take the AHRS system to initialize ?

A

30-70 seconds

36
Q

In DG mode how long does it take the AHRS system to initialize?

A

10-11 minutes

37
Q

What happens when TOGA is pushed on the ground?

A

TO Lateral mode
TO vertical mode
FMS aligns the aircraft at the end of the runway indicated on legs page
Autopilot disconnects

38
Q

What is occurring during thrust reverser deployment?

A

The translating cowls move aft and bypass air is redirected through cascade vanes which redirect air forward

39
Q

What happens when thrust reverser inadvertently deploys?

A

FADEC commands reverser to close and thrust set to idle on affected engine

40
Q

Min oil temp for engine starting?

A

-40 degrees C

41
Q

Max continuous oil temp

A

155 degrees C

42
Q

Engine starter cranking limits (ground)

A

Attempts 1-2 are 90 seconds on and 10 seconds off

Attempts 3-5 are 90 seconds on and 5 minutes off

43
Q

How is the oil cooled?

A

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

44
Q

What is the max fuel imbalance

A

300 lbs for takeoff and 600 lbs for all other phases

45
Q

Max differential pressure is

A

8.7 psi

46
Q

Normal differential pressure is

A

8.5 psi

47
Q

What are the APU starter limits?

A

No more than 3 start attempts in one hour, 2 minute delay required between start attempts

48
Q

What are the dry motor limits?

A

Attempt 1 - 90 seconds on and 5 min off

Attempt 2 thru 5 - 30 seconds on and 5 min off

49
Q

Max permissible oil temp?

A

165 degrees C (15 min max)

50
Q

What are the fuel quantities for pressure refueling?

A

Total - 19,594 lbs

Mains - 7,492 lbs

Center - 4,610 lbs

51
Q

What are the fuel quantities for gravity refueling?

A

Total - 14,810 lbs

Mains - 7,405 lbs

Center - N/A

52
Q

How is the fuel moved from the center tank to the main tank?

A

Transfer ejectors

53
Q

How is the fuel moved from the main tanks to collector tanks?

A

Scavenge ejectors and gravity fuel feed as backup

54
Q

How is the fuel moved from the collector tanks to the engine driven high pressure fuel pump?

A

Main ejectors (backed up by boost pumps)

55
Q

What is the function of the electric boost pumps?

A

To provide initial fuel for engine start and to back up the main ejectors

56
Q

What is the flight deck indication of high pressure fuel pump failure?

A

Engine flameout

57
Q

When will the fuel system automatically begin transferring fuel?

A

200 lb imbalance

58
Q

When are the boost pumps automatically energized?

A

Low pressure from the main ejectors (if the pumps are armed)

59
Q

Where is bulk fuel temperature taken?

A

Right main tank

60
Q

What is the minimum bulk fuel temp for takeoff?

A

-30 degrees C

61
Q

What is the minimum bulk fuel temp for flight

A

-40 degrees C

62
Q

How is engine fuel heated?

A

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

63
Q

What is the minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff?

A

5 degrees C

64
Q

What is the takeoff limitation if the center tank has more than 500 lbs?

A

Then each main tank must have over 4,400 lbs

65
Q

Which bus powers the refuel/defuel panel and refuel/defuel SOVs?

A

APU battery direct bus

66
Q

Max pressure differential during taxi, landing, takeoff?

A

0.1 psi

67
Q

Max negative pressure differential?

A

-0.5 psi

68
Q

Max altitude for single pack operations?

A

FL 250

69
Q

What does the DISPLAY COOL or ARINC COOL caution messages mean?

A

Low airflow behind the screens or within the avionics rack

70
Q

How many pressurization controllers are installed on the CRJ 900?

A

2

PC 1 and PC 2

71
Q

When do pressurization controllers swap?

A

Weight on wheels plus 3 minutes or,

If one PC fails the redundant controller takes over

72
Q

When operating in auto mode, what is the cabin rate of climb and descent?

A

500 ft climb

300 ft descent

73
Q

When operating in manual mode, what range is controlled by the MAN RATE knob?

A

50 fpm to 3,000 fpm

+/- 1,000 fpm

74
Q

When will we get a CABIN ALT caution message?

A

Cabin altitude between 8,500 to 10,000 feet

75
Q

When will we get a CABIN ALT warning message?

A

Cabin altitude over 10,000 feet

76
Q

When will CPAM automatically deploy the passenger oxygen masks?

A

Cabin altitude above 14,000 feet

77
Q

How many smoke detectors in aft cargo bay?

A

2