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E175 Systems > Systems Oral > Flashcards

Systems Oral Flashcards

1
Q

What components power the DC electrical system

A

2 NiCad batteries (24VDC, 27 AH)
3 Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU) 28VDC, 300 A
DC GPU Receptacle

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2
Q

How does the IDG maintain a stable power supply?

A

A constant speed drive (CSD) attaches the IDG to the Accessory Gear Box

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3
Q

What will cause the amber IDG light on the overhead panel to illuminate?

A

High Oil Temperature

Low Oil Pressure

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4
Q

What is the purpose of the Transformer Rectifier Units?

A

Converts 115VAC to 28VDC

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5
Q

Can the APU replace a failed IDG?

A

Yes, up to 33,000’

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6
Q

How is it known that an AC GPU is hooked up to the airplane and ready to provide electricity?

A

GPU Button Displays AVAIL and the GPU icon is presented on the electrical synoptic page.
Once the GPU button is pushed in, the button will display IN USE provided another AC power source is not available.

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7
Q

GPU plugged in and outside GPU panel displays IN USE means:

A

Ground service bus is in use

Cockpit GPU button will display AVAIL even though the ground service bus is in use.

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8
Q

GPU in use and APU started. Next pilot action:

A

Deselect the GPU button before the next GPU connection

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9
Q

Batteries charge source

A

Any AC Power Source

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10
Q

Aircraft Batteries endurance (without charging)

A

10 Minutes

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11
Q

Purpose of the DC GPU receptacle

A

APU start when batteries

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12
Q

Minimum Battery Temp for APU Start

A

-20 C

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13
Q

Minimum battery voltage to close battery bus-ties

A

18 Volts

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14
Q

During APU Start, Battery usage

A

BATT 1 powers the APU FADEC & EICAS for monitoring

BATT 2 powers the APU Start Bus (including DC Fuel Pump)

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15
Q

What is the purpose of the Inverter?

A

Converts 28 VDC from batteries to 115 VAC to power the AC STANDBY BUS when an AC source is not available

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16
Q

AC STANDBY BUS powers:

A

Engine exciters 1A and 2A

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17
Q

When will the RAT deploy?

A

Automatically if AC BUSSES are not powered

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18
Q

How long after deployment before RAT provides power?

A

8 Seconds

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19
Q

What prevents total power failure during RAT deployment?

A

Batteries supply power to the DC ESS BUSSES and AC STANDBY BUS

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20
Q

RAT provides power to:

A

ESS BUSSES

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21
Q

Minimum RAT airspeed

A

130 KIAS. Below that speed results in load shedding

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22
Q

What manages the electrical system?

A

4 Integrated Control Centers (ICC) provides power distribution and protection.
2 Secondary Power Distribution Assemblies (SPDA) distributes electrical loads to aircraft systems according to distribution logic

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23
Q

Can the flight crew reset the ICC and SPDA remote CB’s?

A

ICC - No, can only be reset my maintenance

SPDA - Yes, via the MCDU

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24
Q

Electrical System Fault Logic

A
  1. Onside (Dedicated IDG)
  2. Inside (APU)
  3. Outside (GPU)
  4. Cross Side (Opposite IDG)
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25
Q

Aircraft Dimensions

A

Height 32’ 3”
Length 103’ 11’
Wingspan 98’ 2”

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26
Q

Turn Radius

A

53’ 8” Wheels

54’ 4” Tail Clearance

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27
Q

Flight Deck Emergency Equipment

A 
PBE (2)
Halon Fire Extinguisher (1)
Flashlight (1)
Life Vests (3)
02 Masks (3)
Crash Axe
Escape Ropes (2)
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28
Q

Cabin Emergency Equipment

A 
PBE (2)
Halon Fire Extinguishers (3)
Water Fire Extinguisher (1)
Flashlights (2)
Megaphone (1)
Live Vests (2)
MRTs (2)
Portable O2 Bottles (2)
First Aid Kits (2)
Grab & Go Kit (1)
EEMK (1)
AED (1)
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29
Q

ORIGINATING/RECEIVING Checklist Required Pubs

A 
Maintenance log can
MEL
QRH
Honeywell FMS guide
Airworthiness & Registration
2 Checklists
TOLD Cards
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30
Q

How to power on cockpit dome light on an unpowered airplane

A

Flight Attendant Panel “COURTESY LIGHTS” switch to AUTO

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31
Q

What charges the emergency lights

A

4 Emergency Light Power Units (ELPU) charged off the DC BUS 1

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32
Q

Emergency Lights duration

A

10 Minutes

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33
Q

When will the Emergency Lights illuminate?

A

Emergency Lights switch in AUTO, and DC BUSSES lose power or the airplane’s electrical power is turned off

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34
Q

Where can you check the potable water quantity and waste service tank systems?

A

Aft Flight Attendant panel

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35
Q

What does a fault light mean on the aft flight attendant’s panel?

A

A fault in the forward or aft drain valve

Water level indication is not available

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36
Q

Where is door information presented?

A

MFD “Status” page

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37
Q

What happens when EMER on the audio panel is selected?

A

A red light on the Cabin Light rainbow illuminates

3 hi-lo chimes sound in cabin

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38
Q

When is the emergency escape slide automatically disarmed?

A

When the main cabin or service doors are opened from outside the aircraft

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39
Q

How to tell if escape slides are armed

A

Armed - Red “ARMED” appears above the respective door handle

Disarmed - Green “DISARMED” appears above the respective door handle

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40
Q

Reinforced Cockpit Door “INHIBIT” button causes

A

automatic open function is inhibited for 500 seconds (8 minutes)

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41
Q

How is the DVDR activated?

A

Turned on through the MCDU
Automatically turns on when an engine is running
Automatically turns off with weight-on-wheels and engines not running

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42
Q

How many DVDRs are installed?

A

2

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43
Q

How long will the DVDR record?

A

2 hours of voice and radio communications

25 hours of flight data in GMT

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44
Q

How many displays and instruments are on during initial aircraft power-up?

A

DU 2 & 3
IESS & Clock
MCDU 2
CCD 1

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45
Q

What is the purpose of the collector box?

A

Keeps the fuel pumps submerged

Ensures constant fuel flow to the respective engine

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46
Q

What is the surge/vent tank?

A

Collects fuel during wing-down maneuvers and returns it to the main tanks once the wings are level.
Equalizes tank pressure with atmosphere in flight and during refueling

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47
Q

Can fuel be transferred or dumped overboard?

A

No

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48
Q

What happens when the crossfeed switch is selected to LOW 1?

A

Crossfeed valve is opened

ACMP 2 pump turned on, provides fuel to both engines from right tank

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49
Q

What is the only way to close the engine fuel SOV?

A

Pull the associated engine fire extinguishing handle

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50
Q

When will the FUEL 1 (2) LO LEVEL EICAS be presented?

A

660 lbs of fuel remaining in the associated tank

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51
Q

What airplane systems have fire detection and protection?

A

Engines
APU
Cargo Compartments
Lavatories

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52
Q

Are the cockpit and cabin protected from fire?

A

Cockpit has one Halon fire extinguisher

Cabin has 4 Halon fire extinguishers

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53
Q

How are the engines and APU protected from fire?

A

Engines - 2 Halon fire bottles

APU - 1 Halon fire bottle

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54
Q

Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed?

A

Yes

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55
Q

What are the Engine and APU fire detection/protection power sources?

A

Engine Detection - DC ESS
Engine Protection - HOT BATT
APU Detection - DC ESS
APU Protection - DC ESS

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56
Q

Describe the engine and APU fire detection system

A

Engine 8 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops) per engine

APU 2 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops)

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57
Q

Explain the 6-2-7 Rule (Fire Detection System Test)

A

6 Visual Warning Indicators on Overhead Panel
2 Visual Warning Indicators on Glareshield
5 EICAS messages/2 Engine fire warnings
(2 Aural Indicators, Fire Bell and Triple Chime)

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58
Q

What happens when an engine fire handle is pulled?

A

Closes respective engine fuel SOV
Closes respective engine hydraulic SOV
Closes respective engine bleed SOV
(closes fuel transfer valve)

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59
Q

What is the indication of an APU fire?

A

Fire Bell
Red stripe on the EMER STOP button
APU FIRE is displayed on the EICAS
(triple chime Master Warning aural)

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60
Q

Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?

A

Only on the ground

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61
Q

What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is pushed after a fire has been detected?

A

APU shuts off immediately (no cool down period)
APU fuel SOV closes
APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates

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62
Q

What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is NOT pushed after a fire has been detected?

A

After one minute the APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates

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63
Q

Will the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge?

A

No

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64
Q

How many smoke detectors are installed the cargo compartments?

A

3 detectors in the forward compartment

2 detectors in the aft compartment

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65
Q

What happens to the forward cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected?

A

Recirculation fan shuts off

Ventilation outflow valve closes

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66
Q

Why are the recirculation fans shut down when cargo compartment fire is detected?

A

Prevents oxygen from entering the compartment

Prevents Halon agent from escaping into the aircraft’s cabin

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67
Q

How many extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartment?

A

2 Bottles used for both compartments

1 High Rate bottle and 1 Low Rate bottle

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68
Q

Difference between the high rate bottle and the low rate bottle?

A

High rate bottle saturates the compartment immediately

Low rate bottle maintains saturation over a duration of time (60 Minutes)

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69
Q

How long will the low rate bottle remain active the compartment?

A

60 Minutes

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70
Q

Can one bottle be used for one cargo compartment and the other bottle used for the other cargo compartment?

A

No, only one compartment can be selected

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71
Q

What happens when a cargo extinguishing button is pushed if smoke has been detected?

A

High Rate bottle discharges immediately
Low Rate bottle discharges after 1 minute (if airborne)
If WOW then low rate does not automatically discharge

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72
Q

During flight, can the low rate bottle be discharged before the minute is up?

A

Yes, by pushing the extinguishing button again

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73
Q

How is the low rate bottle discharged if the airplane is on the ground?

A

The extinguishing button must be pushed again (2 pushes total)

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74
Q

Can the cargo compartment extinguisher be used if no smoke is detected?

A

Yes, the high rate bottle extinguisher button must be pushed twice, once to arm the bottle and once to discharge the bottle.
The low rate bottle automatically discharges after one minute if in flight.

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75
Q

How are the lavs protected from fire?

A

Heat sensitive extinguishers in the lav waste bins automatically discharge if a predetermined temperature is reached.

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76
Q

What kind of APU is the aircraft?

A

Sundstrand APS 2300

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77
Q

Describe the APU

A

Constant speed
Single stage impeller with a 2 stage axial flow turbine
Independent oil system

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78
Q

What controls the APU?

A

A dedicated FADEC

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79
Q

What battery is used for the APU start?

A

BATT 1 powers FADEC and EICAS for monitoring

BATT 2 powers the starter (and APU Starting Bus)

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80
Q

What is the fuel source for the APU?

A

Right Fuel Tank

Left Fuel Tank through the crossfeed valve

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81
Q

What fuel pump is used for APU start?

A

Batteries “ON” only: DC fuel pump in right tank.
AC powered airplane: ACMP2.
Right Engine running: Ejector fuel pump.

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82
Q

Will the APU shutdown automatically if speed and acceleration rate isn’t reached in starting cycle time?

A

Yes

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83
Q

What does moving the APU start switch to “OFF” do?

A 
Initiates normal APU shut down
1 Minute cool down
No pneumatics (electrics only for 1 minute)
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84
Q

Can the APU shutdown be cancelled?

A

Yes, by moving the START switch back to “ON” before the 1 minute cool down is over

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85
Q

How is the APU shutdown immediately?

A

APU Emergency stop button

No 1 minute cool down period

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86
Q

What will happen if batteries are turned OFF during the 1 minute APU cool down period?

A

APU will shut down immediately

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87
Q

What will cause an APU automatic shutdown

A 
Overspeed (Airborne and WOW)
Underspeed (Airborne and WOW)
FADEC critical fault (Airborne and WOW)
Fire (WOW)
Overheat (WOW)
Low Oil Pressure (WOW)
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88
Q

Can the APU be started after a critical fault?

A

No

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89
Q

How many hydraulic systems are on the aircraft?

A

3 independent systems (HYD 1, HYD 2, HYD 3)

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90
Q

What systems use hydraulic power?

A 
Flight Controls
Spoilers
Landing gear
Nose wheel steering
Wheel brakes
Thrust reversers
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91
Q

With one system low, can hydraulic fluid be transferred from one system to another?

A

No

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92
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are one the aircraft?

A 
6 total:
 2 EDPs (Engine Driven Pumps)
 4 ACMPs (AC Motor Pumps)
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93
Q

What are the basic components of the hydraulic systems?

A

Reservoir
Pumps
Accumulator

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94
Q

What is the purpose of the accumulator

A

Helps to maintain constant pressure by covering transient demands.
Helps to avoid pump cavitation.

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95
Q

When will ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate?

A

Ground: Flaps > 0 and TL set to T/O, or Groundspeed > 50 kts.
Flight: Engine failure or EDP failure, Flaps > 0

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96
Q

What are some important items controlled by HYD 2 system?

A 
Landing Gear
Nose Wheel Steering
Inboard brakes
L & R Inboard Ailerons
R & L Inboard Elevators
Engine 2 Thrust Reverser
Multi-function Spoilers (L & R Panels 5)
Ground Spoilers (L & R Panels 1)
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97
Q

What is the PTU?

A

Power Transfer Unit, mechanical pump that uses HYD 1 power to provide HYD 2 pressure.

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98
Q

What is the primary purpose of the PTU?

A

To allow landing gear retraction in the event of an engine 2 or EDP 2 failure

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99
Q

When will the PTU automatically activate?

A

During takeoff or landing with flaps > 0, if Engine 2 or EDP 2 fails

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100
Q

How is single engine taxi possible if nose wheel steering is on HYD 2?

A

Releasing the parking brake activates ACMP 2

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101
Q

What is the primary purpose of HYD 3 system?

A

Back-up for the Flight Controls (it’s the “save your butt” system)

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102
Q

Why are HYD ACMP 3A & B pump switch positions ON & AUTO respectively?

A

HYD ACMP 3A pump is primary and has no automation.

HYD ACMP 3B pump is a back-up and automatically activates if ACMP 3A fails.

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103
Q

What, if any, HYD ACMP will function if the RAT is the only power source?

A

HYD ACMP 3A only (through the ESS AC BUS)

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104
Q

In an electrical emergency what provides hydraulic pressure to flight controls until the RAT comes online?

A

HYD 3 Accumulator. After 8 seconds the RAT will power ACMP 3A

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105
Q

In an electrical emergency can HYD 3 system power requirements overload the RAT?

A

No. A flow limiter valve is used to reduce flow and limits pump electrical power draw to prevent a RAT stall

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106
Q

How many fuel tanks does the airplane have?

A

2 Integral tanks

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107
Q

Where is the fuel tank temperature taken?

A

Left Tank

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108
Q

What types of fuel pumps are in each wing?

A

Primary ejector pump
ACMP
DCMP (Right Wing Only)
3 scavenge ejector pumps

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109
Q

What is the Primary ejector pump?

A

Venturi pump with no moving parts and no electrical power used by the respective engine, powered by motive flow.

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110
Q

What is the purpose of the ACMP?

A

Backup pump in case of primary ejector pump failure.
Engine Start.
Crossfeed operations.

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111
Q

What is the purpose of the DCMP?

A

Used for APU or engine start if AC power or the ACMP is not available.

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112
Q

What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?

A

Maintains fuel level in the collector box

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113
Q

What pump(s) is used once an engine is started?

A

Associated primary ejector pump

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114
Q

Can fuel be transferred from tank-to-tank or be dumped overboard?

A

No

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115
Q

What does the AMS use bleed air for?

A 
ECS (heating & cooling)
Engine Start
Pressurization
Engine and wing anti-ice
Water pressure
Hot air leak detection
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116
Q

How many AMS controllers are installed?

A

One controller with 2 channels which control the respectivew onside system

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117
Q

What happens if a (AMS) channel fails?

A

The remaining channel is able to control the entire AMS

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118
Q

What provides air for the AMS?

A

Engine bleeds
APU bleed
External Pneumatic Source

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119
Q

What is bleed air used for?

A

ESC (heating & cooling)
Engine Start
Engine and wing anti-ice
Water pressurization

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120
Q

What is external pneumatic air used for?

A

ECS on the ground

Engine start on the ground

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121
Q

Where is the external ground source panel located?

A

Lower fairing between the wings

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122
Q

What is the primary use for APU bleed air?

A 
ECS on the ground
Engine starting on the ground
Electrical source (FL330)
Assist with engine start (FL210)
Bleed source for pressurization, heating, and cooling (,15,000' MSL)
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123
Q

Can engine bleed air flow back to the APU?

A

No, a check valve prevents flow-back

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124
Q

Where is bleed air tapped from the engines?

A

6th and 10th stage compressors (EBV and HSV respectively)

System alternates between valves to regulate an adequate and safe pressure.

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125
Q

What is the normal pressure for any engine operation?

A

45 psi

126
Q

What is the purpose of the pre-cooler?

A

Cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the AMS

127
Q

What cools the pre-cooler?

A

Ground N1 Fan

Flight N1 Fan or ram air

128
Q

What does the overheat detection system (ODS) observe?

A

Engine bleeds and packs
APU bleed
Plumbing for the wing and engine anti-ice system

129
Q

What components power the AC electrical system

A 
2 Integrated Drive Generators (IDG)
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
Inverter
Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
AC GPU Receptacle
130
Q

Do both ODS loops have to function in order to detect an overheat condition?

A

Yes, but if one fails the other will work alone to detect the overheat

131
Q

How many ESC packs are on the airplane? What provides air for the packs?

A

2 independent packs (left and right).

Each engine provides bleed air to it’s respective pack

132
Q

Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?

A

Yes, up to FL310

133
Q

Can a single bleed source power both packs?

A

Yes, through the crossbleed valve

134
Q

What is the ratio of fresh air to recirculated air?

A

52% fresh air to 48% recirculated air

135
Q

When are the recirculation fans commanded off?

A

Cockpit switch.
Smoke detected in the recirc bay.
DUMP button is pressed.
Respective pack is commanded off.

136
Q

What keeps the 3 avionic E-Bays cool?

A

RWD & CTR E-Bay have 3 fans each pull air from the cabin to bay.
Aft E-Bay has natural air-flow from cabin to bay.

137
Q

When is the Emergency Ram Air Ventilation activated?

A

Both packs commanded or failed OFF below 25,000’.

Ram air pressure greater than cabin pressure

138
Q

How many channels on the Cabin Pressure Control (CPC)?

A

2 channels, one active and one in standby

139
Q

Where does the CPC get Landing Field Elevation (LFE)?

A

FMS or can be manually selected

140
Q

What happens when the dump button is pressed?

A

Commands both ECS packs OFF

Opens OFV and raises the cabin to 12,400 ft at a rate of 2000 fpm

141
Q

Can the cabin altitude be raised higher than 12,400’ (with the pressurization dump button pressed in).

A

Yes, by using manual mode.

Cabin altitude will rise due to natural leaks.

142
Q

In manual mode will the cabin depressurize on landing?

A

No

143
Q

What is the bleed system priority in flight?

A

Onside Engine
Opposite Engine
APU (If Available)

144
Q

If engine and APU bleed air are available simultaneously, which has priority?

A

APU has priority IF: Aircraft is on the ground, wheel speed

145
Q

When will the crossbleed valve automatically open?

A

Only one side bleed source is available
Engine 2 start in the air
Engine 1 start in the air if APU is not available

146
Q

What are some things that will close the ECS packs?

A
  1. Any engine start if APU is the bleed source
  2. Engine start on the ground
  3. Respective bleed system duct leak
  4. Bleed air source not available for the pack
  5. TL set to MAX on takeoff
  6. REF A/I set to ALL on takeoff
  7. REF ECS set to OFF on MCDU (APU is OFF)
147
Q

Whe are ECS packs recovered?

A

TL not at MAX, and:

  1. Airplane is 500 AFE with both engines operating
  2. Airplane is > 9700 MSL with one engine operating
148
Q

What happens if smoke is detected in the recirculation bay?

A
  1. Both recirc fans deactivate
  2. Cargo recirc fan deactivates
  3. Cargo outflow valve closes
149
Q

Where does the CPCS get cruise flight level & landing elevation from?

A

FMS before takeoff or CPCS calculates using ambient pressure

LFE may be manually inputted

150
Q

What color is the LFE on the EICAS?

A

Green FMS input

Cyan Manual input (an M will be in front of LFE)

151
Q

What is the ABORT mode?

A

Cabin is scheduled back to the takeoff altitude if:
Airplane stops climbing and begins a descent, and
Airplane has not climbed >5000 AFE or > 10,000 MSL

152
Q

What sources are used for aircraft anti-icing and de-icing?

A

Bleed air heat, Electric heat

153
Q

What uses bleed air for ice protection?

A

Engine lips, 3 outboard slats

154
Q

What uses electric heat for ice protection?

A

Pitot-static system
Windshields
Water Lines
Pressurization Static Port

155
Q

If an engine fails, does the opposite wing and engine receive ice protection?

A

Yes, the crossbleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings. The failed engine does not receive heat to the engine lip

156
Q

How many ice detectors must be working to have icing detection?

A

One. There are two for redundancy

157
Q

How long will the deicing system remain on after icing is no longer detected?

A

5 Minutes

158
Q

If “ICING” on the MCDU is set to ‘OFF’ and on takeoff roll icing conditions are encountered, will the de-icing system turn on?

A

Not until 1700 ft or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)

159
Q

Can the APU be used to provide bleed air for de-icing?

A

No

160
Q

What is protected from ice & rain?

A 
Engine inlets
Wing leading edge
Smart probes
Windshields
Water & Waste drain systems
161
Q

Is the ice protection system automatic?

A

Yes, under normal conditions

162
Q

Can the pilot override the automatic system?

A

Yes

163
Q

How is ice detected in flight?

A

2 Ice detectors
Vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it.
Once ice is detected, the sensor element heats, the ice melts, the normal vibrating characteristics are restored, and the heating process stops. The cycle repeats as ice rebuilds on the probes.

164
Q

What compressor stage is bleed air tapped for anti-icing operations?

A

10th High Stage Valve (HSV)

165
Q

How is bleed air directed for pneumatic anti-ice?

A

Engines - Independent

Wings - Onside bleed

166
Q

What happens if there is a single bleed source failure?

A

The crossbleed automatically opens

167
Q

How should the MCDU be set if there are icing conditions present on the ground?

A

ALL

168
Q

What does selecting ‘ALL’ on the MCDU provide?

A

Engine anti-ice ON when engines are running

Wing anti-ice ON at 40 kts wheel speed

169
Q

If ‘ALL’ is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become automatic?

A

1700’ AGL or 5 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)

170
Q

If ‘OFF’ is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become automatic?

A

1700’ or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)

171
Q

How does the failure of one of the two power sources affect the windshield heating system?

A

On ground inhibited

In Flight Left side is heated (right heats if left has failed)

172
Q

What does the ‘TIMER’ selection on the windshield wiper switch do?

A

Activates the associated wiper in 8 second intervals

173
Q

What happens if the wiper is operated on a dry windshield?

A

The wiper will stop

To reset wiper move switch to ‘OFF’

174
Q

When do the smart probes heat?

A

When an engine is running

175
Q

Is there a test for the anti-ice system?

A

Yes, but maintenance performs this test

176
Q

How should the aircraft be configured for de-icing?

A

Bleeds - OFF
Stab Trim - Full nose down
Flaps - UP
Engines and APU - ON or OFF

177
Q

What types of engines are on the aircraft?

A

Two General Electric CF-34-8E5

Hi-bypass 2 spool, axial-flow, turbo-fan

178
Q

How much thrust do the engines produce?

A

13,800-14,200 lbs (ISA)

179
Q

Describe N1 Spool

A

Single stage fan, 4 stage LP turbine

180
Q

Describe the N2 Spool

A

10 stage compressor, 2 stage HP turbine

181
Q

How many igniters per engine?

A

2 per engine

182
Q

How many igniters activate for engine starts?

A

Ground - 1 igniter (Switch in AUTO)

Flight - 2 igniters (Switch in AUTO)

183
Q

What happens when the ignition switch is selected to OVRD?

A

Activates both igniters on the ground or in flight

184
Q

Can the igniters be turned off during flight?

A

The switch may be moved to the OFF position but the FADEC disregards the command. The OFF position is used for dry motoring on the ground only.

185
Q

What controls the engine?

A

A two channel FADEC

One channel is active and the other channel remains in standby as a backup.

186
Q

Is only one FADEC channel used every flight?

A

No, they automatically alternate with each engine start

187
Q

What does the cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during approach? When does it appear?

A

The minimum N1 for bleed requirements in icing conditions.

Configured for landing

188
Q

What sources are available for engine starting?

A
  1. APU
  2. Ground source (huffer cart or air bottle)
  3. Opposite engine
  4. Windmill start
189
Q

Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?

A

Only on the ground for a hot start, hung start, or no light off

190
Q

What will the FADEC automatically do in case of a Hot start?

A

FADEC will not allow FF if ITT >120 C.

FADEC will automatically dry motor engine and introduce fuel when ITT

191
Q

Describe the engine start sequence

A 
START switch momentarily to START
7% N2 Ignition
20% N2 Fuel Flow
20% + 5 sec Light Off
50% N2 Ignition Off
192
Q

Stabilized Engine readings after start

A 
N1 27%
ITT 460C
N2 62%
FF 550 lbs/hr
Oil Pressure > 25 psi
193
Q

What does WML mean on the engine indications?

A

Windmilling engine
The FADEC has detected a flame-out and is attempting an auto re-light, or
An assisted start has been commanded

194
Q

What provides underspeed and overspeed protection?

A

The FADEC via the FMU

Approximately 52% N2 and 102% respectively

195
Q

What happens after 3 overspeed detection events?

A

FADEC will not re-light the engine

196
Q

What heats the fuel and cools the engine oil?

A

Fuel/Oil heat exchanger

197
Q

What is ATTCS? What controls it?

A

Automatic Take-off Thrust Control System
Provides max thrust reserve (RSV) according to current rate previously selected via the MCDU.
FADEC controlled.

198
Q

What will trigger an ATTCS event?

A

N1 difference > 15% between engines
Engine failure during TOGA
Windshear detected

199
Q

When is thrust reverse available?

A

Weight on wheels (ground use only)

200
Q

What happens if a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys?

A

FADEC limits respective engine thrust to IDLE

201
Q

What engine thrust rating(s) may only be used for 5 minutes?

A

TO-1
TO-RSV (TL beyond TOGA)
GA (two engine go-around
GA-RSV (one engine go-around or windshear)

202
Q

What is FLEX?

A

Reduced takeoff thrust based on assumed temperature (telling the FADEC that is is warmer than it actually is so it will reduce the thrust)

203
Q

Can the FLEX thrust be reduced lower than CLB thrust?

A

No

204
Q

What is the only primary flight control that is not FBW (Fly By Wire)?

A

Ailerons

205
Q

What is the difference between normal mode and direct mode?

A

There are no higher level functions available in direct mode

206
Q

What are the higher level functions associated with pitch?

A

Gain on airspeed
Elevator Thrust Compensation
AOA limiting

207
Q

What are the higher level functions associated with yaw?

A

Yaw damp
Turn Coordination
Thrust Asymmetry
Gain on airspeed - as airspeed increases, rudder deflection decreases

208
Q

What is the priority for the trim system?

A

Backup
Captain
First Officer
Autopilot

209
Q

How is roll controlled?

A

Ailerons and multi-function spoilers (outer 3 spoilers on each wing)

210
Q

How many multi-fuction spoilers are on each wing? What are their functions?

A

5 per wing
3 outboard spoilers are used to assist in roll control and for ground spoilers.
2 inboard spoilers are only used for ground spoilers.

211
Q

When will the speed brakes automatically close even if the lover shows deployed?

A

Flaps > 2

Airspeed 70

212
Q

What is the flap/slat extension/retraction sequence?

A

Slats extend first, flaps retract first

213
Q

Will loss of airspeed data cause the flight controls to go into ‘DIRECT” mode?

A

Yes

214
Q

Can a FCM override pilot input?

A

No, the pilot always has supreme control

215
Q

What happens to artificial feel if flight controls are disconnected?

A

Artificial feel is felt at 1/2 the normal load.

216
Q

How are the flight controls trimmed?

A

Roll & Yaw Ailerons and Rudder surface repositioned to a new ‘neutral position’, Pitch Horizontal Stabilizer

217
Q

Will the mulit-function spoilers function in ‘DIRECT’ mode?

A

Yes, for roll only and at a default fixed gain.

218
Q

Will the speed brakes/ground spoilers function in ‘DIRECT’ mode?

A

No

219
Q

What happens to the flight control system when the RAT is the only AC power source?

A

Horizontal stab trim operates at 1/2 speed.
Slat/Flap system operates at 1/2 speed.
Slat/Flap position is limited to ‘3’ to allow adequate airspeed for the RAT

220
Q

How is the landing gear extended and retracted?

A

Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated

221
Q

When will the aural warning for the landing gear sound?

A

IF the gear is not donw and locked, and 700’ RA and low TLA, or ANY altitude with flaps set > 5

222
Q

Can the landing gear aural warning be silenced by pushing the ‘LG WRN INHIB’ button?

A

Only if both radio altimeters have failed.

223
Q

What are three landing gear extension modes?

A

Normal - LG lever DOWN
Electric Override - Bypasses PSEM to directly command selector valve
Alternate gear extension - Manual uplock release opens free-fall sequencing valve

224
Q

That is the purpose of the DN LOCK RLS button on the landing gear lever?

A

Mechanically releases the landing gear lever lock. Lock protects against inadvertent landing gear retraction when weight-on-wheels

225
Q

What keeps the gear locked in position?

A

Extended Downlock springs

Retracted Uplock hooks

226
Q

Describe the landing gear indications?

A

Green - Down & Locked
White Up & Locked
Amber - In Transit
Red - gear position and lever disagreement (20 Sec grace)

227
Q

How do the landing gear doors actuate?

A

Mechanically, during landing gear extension or retraction

228
Q

How are the brakes commanded?

A

Brake by Wire, Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated. Pedal position transducers send brake requests to the BCM (Brake Control Module).

229
Q

What hydraulic system(s) provide brake pressure?

A

HYD 1 Outboard brakes
HYD 2 Inboard brakes
HYD 1 & HYD 2 Parking/Emergency brakes

230
Q

What protections are provided for braking?

A

Touchdown - no braking until 3 seconds or > 50 kts wheel speed
Anti-skid - Compares wheel speeds and releases pressure (inop

231
Q

How many applications will the parking/emergency brake provide?

A

6 applications

232
Q

What stops the wheels from spinning during retractions

A

Main gear - BCM applies brakes after weight-off-wheels

Nose gear - Snubbers in the nose bay stop the wheels

233
Q

Which hydraulic system controls the nosewheel steering

A

HYD 2

234
Q

What are the limits for the nosewheel steering?

A

Angle varies with ground speed.
Up to 40 Kts +76
41 to 100 Kts - Decreases linearly from 76 degrees to 7 degrees

235
Q

Where can O2 pressure be read?

A

MFD ‘STATUS’ page (corrected for temperature)

At the O2 cylinder panel (un-corrected for temperature)

236
Q

Do the cockpit crew and passengers share the same emergency oxygen?

A

No, the cockpit crew uses an O2 cylinder and the cabin passengers use O2 chemical generators.

237
Q

Once the chemical O2 generators are started can they be shut off?

A

No

238
Q

What is the minimum 02 for a cockpit crew?

A

2 crew - “Blue for Two” - 842 psi

3 crew - “Green for Three” - 1150 psi

239
Q

What activates when the flight deck O2 masks are removed from their storage unit?

A

Flow of O2
Mask microphone
Flight deck speaker

240
Q

What happens if the TEST//RESET button is pressed while the flight deck O2 masks are removed from their storage unit?

A

Flow of O2
Deactivates mask microphone
Deactivates flight deck speakers

241
Q

What type of oxygen will the quick-donning cockpit crew masks provide?

A

Emergency - Pure oxygen with positive pressure
100% - Pure oxygen at all altitudes
Normal - Oxygen/air mixture (ratio depends on cabin altitude)

242
Q

During preflight how would you know if the cockpit crew O2 has been over pressurized?

A

The green blow-out disc would be missing on the forward right side of the fuselage.

243
Q

What is the O2 duration for the Passengers, Flight Attendants, and PBE?

A

Passengers - 12 minutes
Flight Attendant cylinder - 30 minutes
PBE - 15 minutes

244
Q

When will the passenger O2 masks automatically deploy?

A

Cabin altitude of 14000 MSL

245
Q

Can the O2 door dispensing units be opened manually if it fails to automatically deploy?

A

Yes, via a Manual Release Tool located at each FA station

246
Q

What does the PBE provide?

A

Pressurized O2 and protection from smoke, fumes, and fire up to 40,000 ft for at least 15 minutes. Blue indication: Good. Pink indication: Bad. Vacuum loss : Bad, even with blue indication.

247
Q

How many portable O2 cyclinders are installed in the cabin?

A

2, one in the FWD section and 1 in the AFT section, 2 masks per cylinder.

248
Q

What emergency equipment is located on the flight deck?

A 
PBE
Halon fire extinguisher
Flashlight
Life Vests
O2 Masks
Crash axe
Escape Ropes
249
Q

What emergency equipment is located in the cabin?

A 
PBE
Halon fire extinguishers
Water fire extinguisher
Flashlights
Megaphone
Life vests
MRT
Portable O2 bottles
First Aid Kits
Grab & Go kit
EEMK
AED
250
Q

Checklist requires “Logbook, Forms & Manuals to be checked. What are you looking for?

A 
Maintenance log can
MEL
QRH
Honeywell FMS guide
Airworthiness & Registration
Two checklists
TOLD cards
251
Q

Will the cockpit dome light illuminate on an unpowered airplane?

A

Only if the flight attendant panel ‘COURTESY LIGHTS’ switch is in ‘AUTO’

252
Q

How are the emergency lights charged?

A

4 ELPUs (Emergency Light Power Units) charged off the DC BUS 1

253
Q

How long will the emergency lights last once illuminated?

A

10 Minutes

254
Q

When will the emergency lights automatically illuminate?

A

Provided the switch is in ‘AUTO’, if the DC BUSSES lose power or the airplane’s electrical power is turned off, the emergency lights will automatically illuminate

255
Q

Where does the flight attendant check the potable water quantity and waste service tank system?

A

Aft flight attendant panel

256
Q

What does a Wast Service Tank light mean on the aft flight attendant panel? Tank full light?

A

Tank is 75% full

Tank is Full

257
Q

What does a ‘fault’ light mean on the aft flight attendant panel?

A

A fault in the forward or aft drain valve.

Water level indication is not available.

258
Q

What is the purpose of a vent flap on the main cabin or service doors.

A

To relieve residual cabin pressure prior to opening the main cabin or service doors.

259
Q

What happens if a pilot selects ‘EMER’ on the audio panel?

A

A red light on the Cabin Light rainbow illuminates.

3 hi-lo chimes sound in the cabin.

260
Q

When will the reinforced cockpit door latch automatically open?

A

30 seconds after the flight attendant ‘EMER CALL’ button has been pushed if the ‘INHIBIT’ button has not been pushed by the flight crew.

261
Q

What happens if the flight crew pushes the ‘INHIBIT’ button?

A

The automatic open function is inhibited for 500 seconds (8 minutes)

262
Q

How is the DVDR activated?

A

Turned on through the MCDU
Automatically turns on when an engine is running
Automatically turns off with weight-on-wheels and engines not running.

263
Q

Which dispalys can be reverted? Which displays cannot be reverted?

A

MFDs can be reverted to either EICAS or PDF.

PFDs and EICAS cannot be reverted.

264
Q

Explain the ‘AUTO’ functions of the EDS REVERSIONARY panels

A

EICAS - failure Each MFD displays EICAS
PFD - failure Respective MFD displays associated side PFD
MFD - failure No auto reversion

265
Q

Explain the ‘PFD’, ‘MFD’, EICAS selections on the EDS REVERSIONARY panel

A

PFD - Respective PFD will display on associated MFD
MFD - MFD cannot be reverted
EICAS - EICAS displays on the associated MFD

266
Q

How many ADSs (Air Data Systems) are installed and how are they assigned?

A 
ADS 1 - Captain
ADS 2 - First Officer
ADS 3 - Standby
ADS 4 - IESS
ADS 5 - Flight Controls
267
Q

What happens if ADS 1 or 2 fails?

A

ADS 3 Automatically becomes the source

If ADS 3 fails, then the respective x-side ADS is used

268
Q

What happens if the ADS button is pushed?

A

The respective onside ADS reverts to ADS 3.
The respective onside ADS reverts to the x-side ADS if the button is pushed a second time.
The respective onside ADS returns if the button is pushed a third time unless the respective side is already failed.

269
Q

Is there an automatic reversion for an IRS failure?

A

No, it must be manually reverted.

270
Q

What happens if the IRS button is pushed?

A

The respective IRS to the x-side IRS source

271
Q

How would the pilot know if the ADS or IRS reversion button has been pushed?

A

An ADS or IRS flag would be displayed on the associated PFD

272
Q

What is the primary flight instrument if both IRS’s fail?

A

IESS

273
Q

What type of approach is prohibited using the IESS?

A

LOC BC

274
Q

When will the EICAS de-clutter?

A

30 seconds after gear and flaps are up and all system parameters are normal.

275
Q

What is the function of the EICAS FULL button?

A

Inhibits the automatic de-clutter of the EICAS

276
Q

When will the EICAS display all of its information?

A

When the gear is down, flaps are extended, or spoilers are deployed under normal conditions. APU running.

277
Q

What color is the course needle (CDI) when using the FMS, VOR/LOC, and x-side data?

A

FMS - Magenta
VOR/LOC - Green
X-side - Yellow

278
Q

What runways are included in the database of the EGPWS?

A

Runways > 3500ft with a published approach

279
Q

How long until impact with a terrain alert on EGPWS?

A

RED - 30 seconds

AMBER - 60 seconds

280
Q

When should the ‘GND PROX TERR INHIB’ button be pushed?

A

To cancel unwanted terrain alerts when operating at airports not in the EGPWS database

281
Q

What will generate a windshear caution? Warning?

A

Caution - Increasing headwind and/or updrafts

Warning - Decreasing headwind, increasing tailwind, and/or downdrafts

282
Q

What is our policy for windshear encounters?

A

Caution - Captain/crew discretion

Warning - Firewall thrust and climb in current configuration until warning ceases

283
Q

How is the pilot alerted during a windshear?

A

Caution - Amber windshear flag on PFD/aural “CAUTION WINDSHEAR”
Warning - Red windshear flag on PFD/aural “WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR”

284
Q

Will the autopilot deactivate during windshear guidance?

A

Yes

285
Q

How long will the windshear alerting last?

A

until 1,500 ft RA

286
Q

Will the windshear alerting system function if both radar altimeters and or EGPWS are inop?

A

No

287
Q

What is checked when the ‘TO CONFIG’ button is pushed?

A

Parking brake - OFF
Spoilers - Stowed (not deployed)
Flaps - Set for Takeoff (agreement with FMS)
Pitch Trim - Set for Takeoff (Green Range)

288
Q

What does a red ATT or HDG flag on the PFD indicate?

A

Attitude or Heading reference cannot be determined by the associated IRS

289
Q

What does a red ‘X’ on the ASI, altimeter, or VSI indicate?

A

Airspeed, altitude, or vertical speed cannot be determined by the ADS.

290
Q

What is the function of the ‘GND PROX GS INHIB’ button?

A

To cancel unwanted glideslope alerts below 2000 ft.

291
Q

When will the FGCS automatically select half-bank? What is the bank angle?

A

FL250, 17 degrees bank angle

292
Q

What is FPA?

A

Flight Path Angle is a pilot-selectable pitch attitude (in degrees) of climb or descent. FGCS adjusts thrust and pitch to maintain path angle and airspeed.

293
Q

What does the TOGA button do?

A

Ground - Activates takeoff guidance crossbars

In Flight - Activates Go-Around guidance

294
Q

What do the takeoff guidance crossbars do?

A

Maintain extended runway centerline, maintain pitch guidance according to slat/flap setting.

295
Q

Maintain extended runway centerline, maintain pitch guidance according to slat/flap setting.

A

Another vertical mode is selected
Autopilot is activated
TCS button is pressed

296
Q

When will the FD automatically display?

A

TOGA button is pressed
Autopilot is activated
Windshear detection

297
Q

What is the function of the TCS button?

A

Allows manual override of the autopilot.
When released, airplane maintains new altitude (provided ALT was the active vertical mode) but will return to previous lateral mode (except ILS, autopilot will recapture the LOC/GS)

298
Q

What will disengage the autopilot?

A 
AP button on GP is pushed
Any manual pitch trim is activated
Either AP/Trim DISC button is pushed
Stick shaker activated
Flight controls in DIRECT mode
Aileron or elevator controls disconnected
Overpowering the yoke
Internal system failures
299
Q

Can the yaw damp be deactivated if the autopilot is on?

A

Yes, it is independent of the autopilot

300
Q

When will the auto-throttles engage on the ground? In flight?

A

On Ground - AT TO(GP) is armed and TLA > 50%

In Flight - AT(GP) is armed and airplane > 400’ AGL

301
Q

Will the auto-throttles compensate for gusty wind conditions?

A

Yes, up to 5 kts

302
Q

What will disengage the auto-throttles?

A

AT (TL or GP) is pushed
TLA difference > 8 degrees
TL at idle with weight-on-wheels or wheels spinning
Internal system failures

303
Q

What is SPDe? What mode uses SPDe?

A

Speed on Elevator, thrust is fixed and pitch is adjusted to maintain airspeed (VS changes).
FLCH uses SPDe for climbs and descents.

304
Q

What is SPDt? What modes use SPDt?

A

Speed on Thrust, thrust id adjusted to maintain selected airpspeed.
FPA, VS, GS, ALT, ASEL

305
Q

What are the AT modes?

A

SPDe, SPDt, TO, GA, HOLD, RETARD (@ 30’ RA)

306
Q

What does LIM & OVRD mean on the FMA?

A

LIM - The selected vertical mode requires more or less engine thrust than is available.
OVRD - The TL are being manually moved (no AP disengagement)

307
Q

When is CRZ automatically selected?

A

When +100’ of selected altitude for 90 seconds.

Desired airspeed must be achieved or it will remain in CLB mode.

308
Q

What does the SRC button do?

A

Selects pilot or co-pilot as the data source for the AFCS

309
Q

What does the red AP/TRIM DISC button on the yoke do?

A

Disconnects the autopilot

Stops all trim actuation if button is pushed and held

310
Q

What does the PREV button do?

A

Allows the capture of the ILS/BC course while still using the FMS as the basic NAV source provided the AUTO TUNE fuction is enabled on the MCDU and the approach is loaded in the FMS.

E175 Systems (2 decks)

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