Systems & Limitations Flashcards
1
Q
What is /the basic operating weight of a B727-200
A
104,500 lbs
2
Q
What does ‘certificated’ mean in the phrase certificated weight?
A
Structural
3
Q
What is ‘zero fuel’?
A
Weight of plane with no usable fuel.
When over limit, reducing payload is the only fix
4
Q
What is the standard landing degree setting for flaps on a B727-200?
A
Flaps at 30º
5
Q
What is the fuel capacity?
A
51,500 lbs
6
Q
What are the dimensions of a B727?
A
Length - 153’2”
Wingspan - 108’
7
Q
What does the APU provide?
A
- Electricity
- Air for engine start
- Air for air conditioning
8
Q
Can you dispatch aircraft with APU inoperative?
A
Yes, provided external power cars are available at ALL airports
9
Q
Can you dispatch aircraft with APU missing?
A
Yes. Weight and balance must be adjusted
10
Q
How are you alerted of a APU fire?
A
- Bell/light in the Flight Deck
- Warning horn in nose wheel well
- Flashing red light in left wheel well
11
Q
What is the altitude limitation with both air conditioning packs inoperative (unpressurized)?
A
≤ 10,000’ MSL
12
Q
What is ‘CPD’?
A
Cabin Pressure Differential
Cabin Pressure - Ambient Pressure = CPD
13
Q
What is the max normal CPD?
A
8.6 PSI
14
Q
What is the max pressure differential for takeoff/landing?
A
.125 PSI
15
Q
What is the typical flight length?
A
150-1800nm
16
Q
What is the max cruise speed?
A
Mach .90
17
Q
What is the max cruise altitude?
A
42,000’
18
Q
What is the max payload?
A
31,500 lbs
19
Q
What is the max pax capacity?
A
136 (14 First Class, 122 coach)
20
Q
What is the max cargo capacity?
A
21,000 lbs
21
Q
What is an “APU’?
A
Auxiliary Power Unit. Designed to be used on the ground only.
22
Q
The gas turbine engine for the APU is located in the _____ wheel well.
A
Main
23
Q
APU provides _____, _____, and _____ .
A
Electricity, Air for engine start, air for air conditioning
24
Q
APU power start comes from _____.
A
NICAD Battery
25
APU fuel flow is _____ lbs/hr.
270
26
The air conditioning has _____ units (packs).
Two separate, identical
27
The left pack controls the _____.
Cockpit
28
The right pack controls _____.
Everything else
29
An aircraft may be dispatched with ______ air conditioning pack inoperative with _____.
1, altitude limitations
30
An aircraft may be dispatched with both air conditioning packs _____ at or below 10,000' MSL
unpressurized/inoperative
31
The _____ valve controls the temperature coming into the cabin
Air mix
32
How is pressure regulated?
Two outflow valves
33
What happens when the CPD > 8.6 psi (lbs/sq. in.)
The outflow valves open automatically
34
Two _____ safety valves open automatically when/if CPD = 9.6 psi
Positive pressure
35
Electricity is provided by _____
Three engine-driven generators
36
Transformer rectifier converts _____ AC to _____ DC
115v AC to 28v DC
37
Stepdown transformer converts _____ AC to _____AC
115v AC to 28v AC
38
_____ power is required for safe flight
Essential
39
How many vent-surge tanks are there and where are they located?
2, located in wing tips
40
What are vent-surge tanks used for?
Prevention of internal damage due to fuel expansion or over-fueling
41
What is the purpose of crossfeeding?
To correct balance problems, and reroute fuel
42
What is the dump rate?
2400lbs/min (2500 including burnoff)
43
How many hydraulics and flight control systems are there?
3
44
System A has two _____ pumps
Engine-driven
45
System B has two _____ pumps
Electric
46
System A controls _____
Lower rudder, ground spoilers, leading edge flats, trailing edge flats, ailerons
47
System B controls _____
Brakes, Inboard flight spoilers, Upper rudders, air stairs, elevators
48
The standby system has _____ electric pump
one
49
What are the primary flight controls
Rudders, ailerons, and elevators
50
What are the sections of the compressor called?
N1 and N2
51
How many stages does the compressor have?
N1 has 6 stages
N2 has 7 stages
52
How many burner cans are in the combustion section?
9
53
Which turbine wheel drives N2?
First
54
Which turbine wheel(s) drive N1?
The last three
55
The exhaust from the powerplant produces _____
Thrust
56
What are 6 emergency items that can be found?
1. Mega phones
2. Crash axe
3. First aid kit
4. Smoke goggles
5. Gloves
6. Life vests
57
How many emergency doors and exit windows are there?
5 emergency exit doors
6 emergency exit windows
58
What areas does the thermal bleed heat up?
Edge of wings, engine inlets, and top VHF antenna
59
The B727 can de-ice but is designed to _____.
Prevent ice
60
True or False:
Wind components and runway contamination have no effect on Climb and Structural limits
True
61
Anti-ice ON has an effect on _____ limits
Climb
62
BOW + PAYLOAD (PL) = _____
ZERO FUEL WEIGHT (ZFW)
63
How do you calculate LANDING WEIGHT AT ALTERNATE (LWA)?
ZFW + Reserve + Contingency + Holding + Extra fuel
64
LANDING WEIGHT AT DESINATION (LWD) is
LWA + Alternate fuel
65
LWD + _____ = TOGW
Burnoff
66
What is the benefit of long range cruise (LRC)?
Saves fuel
67
How do you calculate fuel flow for LRC?
FF = 8300/60 x Time
68
Characteristics of maximum speed cruise (MSC)?
Saves time, M .90, usually FL180 - FL250
69
Characteristics of LRC?
Saves fuel, M.78 , Flown at higher altitudes
70
What is NSC (normal speed)?
Constant and Indicated Mach Cruise
M .79 - M .89
71
Define 'optimum altitude'
The altitude that yields the highest specific range
72
What is the 1.5G Buffet Line used for?
To find altitude that is safe when moderate or greater turbulence is forcest along route
73
What effect does temperature have on the optimum altitude?
Higher/warmer temperatures reduce the optimum altitude
74
How does trip distance effect optimum altitude?
Optimum altitude may not be practical on shorter flights of ~300nm because of the time it takes to climb and decend
75
Define 'Accelerate-Stop Distance Available'
Runway + stopway length available and suitable
76
What is V1?
Takeoff decision speed. Speed below which takeoff must be aborted
77
When is anti-ice on?
1. OAT ≤ 8℃
AND
2. Spread ≤ 3℃ OR visible moisture is present
78
For performance takeoff adjustments, wet penalties begin at _____ inch and dry penalties begin at _____ inches
Wet penalties begin at 1/4 inch and dry penalties begin at 2 inches
79
What is the takeoff penalty for slippery/wet runways?
1,500 lbs
80
When is takeoff with anti-skid inoperative prohibited?
1. On runways with standing water, slush, or wet/dry snow of sufficient depth to require an adjustment.
2. With a tailwind
81
What are some factors that effect takeoff runway limits?
Runway length, wind component, temperature, flaps
82
What does the climb limit reflect?
Climb performace and engine out criteria
83
What factors may impact the climb limit?
Temperature, elevation, sea level pressure
84
What is the structural limit of the B727?
172,700 lbs unless reduced by CDL or if pressure altitude > 5,500-
85
The Maximum Operational Landing Weight is the lowest of which limits?
Field limit, approach and landing climb limit, structural limit
86
What is the field limit?
Max landing weight limited by the length of the runway and elevation. Based on stopping within 60% of ERL
87
What is the typical range for C.G?
20-25%
88
What is the typical range for Stab Trim?
5's and 6's
89
How much extra fuel is needed when you have a fuel pump inoperative in Tank 1 or 3?
12,900 lbs
(5300 in affected tank, 4300 in opposite wing tank, 3300 in tank 2
90
How much extra fuel is needed when you have one AFT boost pump inoperative in Tank 2?
12,000 lbs
Must also reduce ZFW by 12,000. New max ZFW = 124,000. New max payload = 19, 500
91
How much extra fuel is needed when you have one FORWARD boost pump inoperative in Tank 2?
If ZFW ≤ 133,700, just add 2,300
If ZFW ≥ 133,700 find tolerance, that is the amount you use to calculate amount for balance.
92
What does the code 'S' mean on the ATC flight plan?
Standard equipment
* ILS capability
* VHF communication
* VOR
93
What kind of transponder is the B727 equipped with?
Mode S
94
What does 'EB1' mean on the ATC flight plan?
* 1090 extended squitter
* 1090 ADS-B Out
95
Where can you find more information on the codes in the ATC flight plan?
ATC section of the AIM
96
When do IFR flight plans need to be filed?
At least 30 min prior to departure
97
Define 'positive slope' (driftdown method)
Aircraft is climbing faster than the terrain is rising or terrain is sloping away at a faster rate than our descent rate.
98
For one-engine inoprative driftdown performance, the aircraft needs to clear all obstacles within _____ by _____ with a POSITIVE slope (Method 1)
Obstacles within 5sm by 1,000'
99
For two-engine out driftdown performance the aircraft must use Method 2 or remain _____.
Within 90 minutes of an adequate airport
100
For one-engine inoperative driftdown performance, the aircraft needs to clear all obstacles to a driftdown alternate by _____ with a positive slope (Method 2)
2000'
