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ADX/Aircraft Dispatch Course > AIM > Flashcards

AIM Flashcards

1
Q

Dispatcher must be vigilant of any NOTAMs regarding _____ navigational aids.

A

Inoperative

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2
Q

What is an NBD?

A

Non-directional beacon, non-precision approach aid, normally usable < 18,000’

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3
Q

What are some characteristics of the VHF Omni-Directional Range (VOR)?

A

360 usable radials, non-precision approach aid

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4
Q

What is a VORTAC?

A

A VOR combined with a TACAN (Tactical Air Navigation). Behaves in the same was as a VOR

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5
Q

What is DME?

A

Distance measuring equipment. It allows the pilot to determine position. Can be collocated with VORs, ILSs, or LOCs

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6
Q

What is an ILS?

A

Instrument Landing System. Provides exact alignment and decent information for an aircraft on final approach to a runway

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7
Q

What is a Straight-In (S-IN) Landing?

A

A landing made on a runway aligned within 30º of the final approach course following an instrument approach.

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8
Q

What is a Circling Maneuver?

A

A maneuver to align the aircraft with a landing runway when a S-IN landing is neighter possible nor desirable

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9
Q

What is a Precision Approach Procedure?

A

An instrument approach which utilizes an electronic glide scope.

Ex: ILS, ILS/DME, and PAR

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10
Q

True or False:
Non-Precision Approach Procedures use electronic glidepaths

A

False

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11
Q

Define Touchdown Zone (TDZ)

A

The first 3,000’ beyond the threshold

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12
Q

Define touchdown zone elevation (TDZE)

A

The highest elevation within the touchdown zone

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13
Q

What is Decision Altitude (DA)?

A

The MSL altitude in the precision approach at which a missed approach much be initiated if required visual reference has not been established.

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14
Q

What is Decision Height (DH)?

A

Height of the decision altitude above the ground (TDZE or threshold).

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15
Q

What information does a Localizer provide?

A

Azimuth (direcitonal) guidance

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16
Q

What information does the glidescope (GS)/glidepath (GP) provide?

A

Decent (vertical) guidance. Cannot operate without the LOC

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17
Q

What is Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA)?

A

The lowest authorized MSL altitude in the non-precision approach without visual reference established

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18
Q

What is Minimum Descent Height (MDH)?

A

Height of the MDA above ground (TDZE or threshold).

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19
Q

What does Height Above Touchdown apply to?

A

Applies to Straight-In minumums only

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20
Q

Define Height Above Airport

A

Height of the MDA above airport elevation. Used in conjunction with circling minimums only

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21
Q

What does the acronym WAAS stand for?

A

Wide Area Augmentation System. An enhancement to GPS systems

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22
Q

Define waypoint

A

Predetermined geographical position defined in latitude/longitude coordinates

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23
Q

Describe RNAV

A

Area Navigation - Reduces dependence on radar vectoring, altitude, and speed assignments. More efficient use of airspace

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24
Q

What is a Fly-By Waypoint?

A

A waypoint where the pilot should begin a turn PRIOR to reaching the waypoint

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25
What is a Fly-Over Waypoint?
A waypoint where the aircraft must FLY OVER the point before starting a turn
26
What does the acronym ALS stand for? What is the importance?
Approach Light Systems. The system makes the runway environment more apparent in low visibility conditions and assists with alignment guidance with the runway. Landing minimums change when the light system is inoperable.
27
What is SFL?
Sequenced flashing lights loss may affect the landing minimums
28
What does RAIL stand for?
Runway Alignment Indicator Lights loss may affect landing minimums
29
ALSF-II
Approach lighting system with sequenced flashing lights, category II configuration loss may affect landing minimums
30
ALSF-I
Approach lighting system with sequenced flashing lights, category I configuration loss may affect landing minimums
31
MALSR
Medium intensity approach lighting system with runway alignment indicator lights loss may affect landing minimums
32
What are VASI lights?
Visual Approach Slope Indicator lights. Rows of lights on the side of the runway that provide a visual reference for descent No effect on instrument landing minimums
33
What are PAPI lights?
Precision Approach Path Indicator lights. Similar to VASI lights, configued differently. Either red or white, adjacent to the side of the runway abeam the ideal touchdown point. No effect on instrument landing minimums
34
What are REIL lights?
Runway End Identifier Lights. Flashing white strobe lights on or near each side of the threshold No effect on instrument landing minimums
35
What are HIRLs?
High Intensity Runway Lights Outline the edge of the runway. RVR is based on these. Loss may affect takeoff or landing minimums
36
Describe touchdown zone lights
In-runway lighting used to assist with landing in poor weather Labeled as TDZL or TDZ
37
Describe Runway Centerline lights
In-runway lighting used to assist in poor weather. Labeled as RCLS in NOTAMs or CL in Aeronautical Charts Loss may affect takeoff minimums
38
Define threshold
Beginning of the runway that is available and suitable for landing
39
Do runway centerline markings affect both takeoff and landing minimums?
No, only takeoff
40
What is a displaced threshold?
A point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. Could be obstructions, pavement weakness, or noise abatement. Only affects landing and only in that direction (opposite end landing ok)
41
What is a stopway?
An extension of the runway used to support and aircract during extended landing or aborted takeoff
42
How is braking action reported?
1. Good 2. Good to medium 3. Medium 4. Medium to poor 5. Poor 6. Nil
43
What are 5 examples of flow control?
1. Gate holding (implemented when anticipated delays > 15 minutes) 2. En route holding 3. Rerouting traffic 4. Designated one-way routes 5. Cruise altitude/speed changes
44
What's the downside of ground stop programs?
No Excpected Departure Clearance Time (EDCT) issued, instead an "update time" given, making it difficult to plan for
45
What is ASR?
Airport Surveillance Radar. Serves as expeditious means of handling terminal area traffic
46
What is RVSM airspace?
Reduced Vertical Separation Minima. Opposite direction traffic is separated by 1,000'. In U.S. extends from FL290 to FL410
47
What is an ACARS system?
Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System. Primarily used for company communications. Can also be used to request pre-departure clearance (PDC) from ATC
48
What is CPDLC-DCL?
Controller Pilot Data Link Communication - Departure Clearance. Allows instructions, requests, and position reports to be sent by text. Also commonly used in oceanic operations for position reports and/or amended clearances
49
NAVAID/VOR high altitude range
≈ 130 NM
50
NAVAID/VOR low altitude range
<18,000' and/or ≈ 40 NM
51
NAVAID/VOR terminal range
<12,000' and/or ≈25 NM
52
What do marker beacons provide?
Distance information - Outer Marker (OM) - Middle Marker (MM) - Inner Marker (IM)
53
What is a localizer back course (LOC BC)?
The approach to opposite end of runway. Uses same antenna as the localizer (LOC)
54
What are the Category I ILS minimums?
-DH 200 ft -RVR 2,400 ft Can be made better with additional lighting, autopilot, flight director (FD), or heads up display (HUD)
55
What are the Category II ILS minimums?
-DH 100 ft -RVR 1,200 ft
56
Under what conditions are Category II ILS minimums raised to DH 150 ft, RVR 1,200 ft
When there is a newly authorized pilot or when the airline is in their first year of CAT II operations
57
Aircraft Approach Category
A grouping of aircraft based on 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing configuration (flaps and gear extended) at maximum gross landing weight
58
Describe compulsory reporting points
Depicted as a solid triangle on aeronautical charts. When not in radar contact, must be used.
59
The VOR and L/MF Airway system refers to what?
Victor ("V") airways, low altitude, from 1,200 ft up to but NOT including 18,000 ft. Depicted on En Route Low Altitude Charts
60
Describe the jet route system
Routes established routes from 18,000' MSL to FL450 inclusive. Depicted on En Route High Altitude Charts. Identified by a "J"
61
What is a STAR?
Standard Terminal Arrival Procedure. Facilitates transition between en route and instrument approach procedures
62
Describe an MSA
Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude. Published for emergency use on IAP charts. Provides 1,000 ft of clearance over all obstacles. 25 nm radius unless otherwise noted
63
What is a procedure turn?
A 180º maneuver prescribed when necessary to reverse direction to establish the aircraft inbound on an intermediate or final approach course
64
What is SOIA?
Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approach. A procedure used to conduct simultaneous approaches to runways spaced less than 3,000 feet but at least 750 feet apart. Uses ILS approach on one runway, and LOC to/on another
65
What do you do when converting RVR values that fall between listed values?
Use the next higher RVR value. DO NOT INTERPOLATE
66
How can flow control be accomplished?
1. Gate Holding 2. En route holding 3. Rerouting 4. Designated one-way routes 5. Cruise altitude/speed changes
67
What is RVSM?
Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum. Within RVSM airspace, opposite direction traffic will be separated by 1,000'. Enhances ATC flexibility and mitigates conflict.
68
Domestic RVSM in the United States extends from _____ to _____.
FL290 to FL410
69
What are the equipment requirements for an aircraft to enter RVSM airspace?
1. Two independent altimeters 2. One autopilot altitude hold system which may be coupled to either altimeter 3. One autopilot altitude alert function
70
What is RNP?
Required Navigation Performance Airspace
71
What is RNAV 1?
Aircraft must maintain a total system error of not more than 1 NM for 95% of the total flight. Typically used for DP's and STARs
72
What is RNAV 2?
Aircraft must maintain a total system error of not more than 2 NM for 95% of the total flight. Typically used for en route operations
73
What are the TWO categories of airspace?
Regulatory and nonregulatory
74
What the FOUR types of airspace?
1. Controlled 2. Uncontrolled 3. Special Use 4. Other
75
Describe Class A airspace
-IFR only -18,000' up to and including FL600 -Airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles off the coast
76
Describe Class B airspace
-Generally surface to 10,000' MSL around the busiest airports -ATC clearance required for all aircraft
77
Describe Class C airspace
-Generally from the surface to 4,000' AGL around busy airports that provide radar services.
78
What is the purpose of a warning area?
To warn nonparticipating pilots of potential danger. Starts 3 NM off the coast and extends outward
79
What is ADS-B?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast Capabilities and Procedures Enables improved air-to-air and air-to-ground surveillance in areas where radar is ineffective
80
What is a WSP?
Weather System Processor. Enhances Airport Surveillance Radar. Provides warnings for hazardous wind shear and microbursts
81
What is MU used for?
Used to designate friction value for runway surface conditions. Values range for 0-100 where 0 is the lowest value
82
What is a transponder?
An airborne radar beacon transmitter-receiver automatically receives signals from the interrogator and replies with a specific code
83
What is a Charted Visual Flight Procedure?
Charts for visual approaches that are extablished for safety and noise considerations. Depict landmarks, courses, and recommended altitudes to specific runway
84
What does the acronym ADIZ mean?
Air Defense Identification Zone
85
What is fuel dumping and what is it used for?
Airborne release of fuel. Used to reduce aircraft weight to within safe landing limits
86
What is a "Minimum Fuel Advisory"?
The flight cannot accept any undue delay. It is NOT emergent.
87
What is an EWINS?
Enhanced Weather Information System. System for tracking, evaluating, reporting, and forecasting the presence or lack of adverse weather. Produces flight movement forecasts. CAN OVERRIDE other forecasts
88
What is TDWR?
Terminal Doppler Weather Radar. Advises of wind shear and microbursts events impacting all runways
89
What are the standard IFR alternate minimums for a localizer approach?
C= 800' V= 2SM
90
What are the standard IFR alternate minimums for an ILS approach?
C= 600' V= 2SM
91
CAT I ILS minimums
DH(HAT)= 200' RVR= 2,400'
92
CAT II ILS minimums
DH(HAT)= 100' RVR= 1,200'
93
What is a circling maneuver?
A maneuver to align the aircraft

ADX/Aircraft Dispatch Course (8 decks)

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