Systems, Ideologies Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three levels that drive world politics, according to systems analysis?
A. Economy, culture, and religion
B. System (nature of the world), state, and individual
C. State, technology, and ideology
D. Military power, alliances, and resources

A

B. System (nature of the world), state, and individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the primary focus of systems theories in International Relations?
A. Examining only the behavior of non-state actors
B. Focusing on the structure of the international system to explain the behavior of its units
C. Understanding the historical events that led to major wars
D. Promoting economic collaboration between states

A

B. Focusing on the structure of the international system to explain the behavior of its units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the primary “units” in a system of states according to systems analysis?
A. Corporations
B. States
C. International organizations
D. Non-governmental organizations

A

B. States

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What approach does systems analysis use to study world politics?
A. Bottom-up
B. Lateral
C. Top-down
D. Circular

A

C. Top-down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What assumption does systems analysis make about the behavior of actors within a system?
A. Behavior is completely random and unpredictable
B. There are behavioral tendencies that actor countries usually follow, making the system somewhat predictable
C. Actors follow religious beliefs exclusively
D. Only non-state actors influence the behavior of states

A

B. There are behavioral tendencies that actor countries usually follow, making the system somewhat predictable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the purpose of systems analysis in International Relations?
A. To identify and control specific individual actors
B. To understand the operation of the entire political system through conceptual frameworks and methodologies
C. To promote cultural interactions between different nations
D. To focus solely on economic factors

A

B. To understand the operation of the entire political system through conceptual frameworks and methodologies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does systems analysis assume about the interactions within any given international system?
A. Interactions are completely random
B. The system operates in a somewhat predictable way
C. There is no structure or pattern to interactions
D. Systems change rapidly without any behavioral patterns

A

B. The system operates in a somewhat predictable way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What might a system of complete anarchy look like in international relations?
A. A system with highly structured alliances and international agreements
B. A system where there are no overarching authorities, and states act solely in their self-interest
C. A system dominated by a single global government
D. A system with complete economic cooperation and stability

A

B. A system where there are no overarching authorities, and states act solely in their self-interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does the system level of analysis differ from the individual level of analysis?
A. The system level focuses on specific leaders, while the individual level examines states collectively
B. The system level looks at global structures, while the individual level focuses on the personal actions and decisions of specific leaders
C. The system level examines only non-state actors, while the individual level focuses on military alliances
D. The system level is concerned with cultural exchanges, while the individual level studies economic trends

A

B. The system level looks at global structures, while the individual level focuses on the personal actions and decisions of specific leaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are “global political factors” in systems analysis?
A. Local cultural traditions that impact only one state
B. Economic policies of individual states
C. Factors that determine the pattern of interaction among actors in an international system
D. Domestic policies that influence only regional politics

A

C. Factors that determine the pattern of interaction among actors in an international system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the purpose of systems analysis in International Relations?
A. To study economic growth in developing countries
B. To create a global government for managing state relations
C. To provide conceptual frameworks and methodologies for understanding the operation of the political system
D. To focus solely on the personal actions of individual leaders

A

C. To provide conceptual frameworks and methodologies for understanding the operation of the political system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What tasks are typically carried out by the authority structure within a system?
A. It makes and enforces rules, allocates assets, and conducts other authoritative tasks
B. It focuses solely on cultural exchanges
C. It regulates personal relationships between leaders
D. It only controls the economic aspects of the system

A

A. It makes and enforces rules, allocates assets, and conducts other authoritative tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a key characteristic of most authority structures in systems?
A. They are always democratic
B. They are mostly hierarchical
C. They focus on horizontal alliances
D. They avoid rule-making

A

B. They are mostly hierarchical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following best describes a hierarchical authority structure?
A. Authority is centralized and follows a top-down model
B. Authority is spread equally among all actors
C. Authority shifts frequently between different organizations
D. Authority is based solely on economic power

A

A. Authority is centralized and follows a top-down model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of authority structure is exemplified by organizations like the WTO, NATO, and ASEAN?
A. Vertical authority structure
B. Economic authority structure
C. Horizontal authority structure
D. Military authority structure

A

C. Horizontal authority structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most fundamental element of the authority structure within the international system?
A. Military alliances
B. Economic sanctions
C. State sovereignty
D. Cultural exchanges

A

C. State sovereignty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does it mean when we say the international system is “anarchical”?
A. It is highly regulated by a central organization
B. There is no overarching central authority regulating the actions of states
C. It is controlled by a small number of powerful states
D. It operates on a strict legal framework agreed upon by all states

A

B. There is no overarching central authority regulating the actions of states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which historical system exemplified a hierarchical authority structure based on suzerain-vassal relationships?
A. The tributary system of Feudalism in medieval European societies
B. The League of Nations
C. The U.S. federal system
D. The UN Security Council

A

A. The tributary system of Feudalism in medieval European societies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the potential advantages and disadvantages of state sovereignty within an international system?
A. Sovereignty only leads to conflict and has no benefits
B. Sovereignty promotes theoretical equality among states but also enables unregulated competition based on national interests
C. Sovereignty always promotes peace between states
D. Sovereignty eliminates the need for alliances

A

B. Sovereignty promotes theoretical equality among states but also enables unregulated competition based on national interests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which type of authority structure lacks a clear central authority, with power distributed across various actors?
A. Vertical authority structure
B. Anarchical authority structure
C. Totalitarian authority structure
D. Federal authority structure

A

B. Anarchical authority structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What kind of global initiative is the OBOR/BRI and how is it perceived?
A. A regional military alliance
B. China’s infrastructure strategy
C. An educational exchange program for developing nations
D. A United Nations peacekeeping mission

A

B. China’s infrastructure strategy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the three general categories of system level actors in international relations?
A. National actors, individual actors, cultural actors
B. National actors, supranational actors, and transnational actors
C. Governmental, non-governmental, and private sector actors
D. Religious, cultural, and economic actors

A

B. National actors, supranational actors, and transnational actors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the primary national actors in world politics?
A. Non-governmental organizations
B. States, as territorially based political units
C. Supranational organizations
D. International corporations

A

B. States, as territorially based political units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the basis of a state’s role in international relations?
A. Its technological advancements
B. Its sovereignty and the political loyalty of its people
C. Its ability to form alliances with non-state actors
D. Its cultural influence

A

B. Its sovereignty and the political loyalty of its people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What resources enable states to act as principal actors in world politics?
A. Command of military and economic resources
B. Access to global media networks
C. Cultural heritage and educational systems
D. Exclusive control over non-state actors

A

A. Command of military and economic resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does a state’s sovereignty affect its international role?
A. Sovereignty allows states to operate independently and be recognized as authoritative within their own territories
B. Sovereignty limits the state’s ability to interact with other states
C. Sovereignty is determined by international corporations
D. Sovereignty has no impact on international relations

A

A. Sovereignty allows states to operate independently and be recognized as authoritative within their own territories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What status is granted to states due to their citizens’ political loyalty?
A. They become regional alliances
B. They can influence other states’ domestic policies
C. They attain an international role as sovereign entities
D. They gain exclusive control over international organizations

A

C. They attain an international role as sovereign entities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a primary characteristic of supranational actors (SAs) in international politics?
A. They consist of a single nation controlling global policies
B. They are limited to economic alliances
C. They have organizational authority that can supersede the sovereignty of their member countries
D. They focus exclusively on military alliances

A

C. They have organizational authority that can supersede the sovereignty of their member countries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of international order do supranational actors aim to establish?
A. A decentralized order led by corporations
B. A higher, more desirable form of international order based on collective decision-making
C. A traditional order led by national governments
D. A non-structured and flexible international order

A

B. A higher, more desirable form of international order based on collective decision-making

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following is an example of a supranational organization with a general purpose and universal membership?
A. NATO
B. The United Nations (UN)
C. The European Union (EU)
D. The Organization of American States (OAS)

A

B. The United Nations (UN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is one way supranational actors help regulate international issues like environmental protection and nuclear proliferation?
A. They create temporary alliances among countries
B. They establish international regimes consisting of rules, norms, and procedures to control these effects
C. They enforce military control over non-compliant nations
D. They limit the involvement of non-governmental organizations in global discussions

A

B. They establish international regimes consisting of rules, norms, and procedures to control these effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which type of organization would be considered a supranational actor focused on alliances?
A. The World Health Organization (WHO)
B. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
C. The Kyoto Protocol
D. The International Red Cross

A

B. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is an example of a supranational regime that regulates oceanic behavior and environmental protection?
A. The International Criminal Court (ICC)
B. The Kyoto Protocol
C. The World Bank
D. The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)

A

B. The Kyoto Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What has been a significant role of supranational actors in the post-World War II era?
A. Promoting international trade alone
B. Centralizing political authority to address global issues beyond the scope of individual nations
C. Creating alliances limited to Europe and North America
D. Limiting the spread of democratic governance

A

B. Centralizing political authority to address global issues beyond the scope of individual nations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do supranational actors differ from traditional nation-states in terms of authority?
A. Supranational actors only influence cultural policies
B. Supranational actors can have authority that goes beyond the sovereignty of member states, whereas nation-states operate under their own sovereignty
C. Nation-states have no influence over supranational organizations
D. Nation-states have the ability to control supranational actors through economic means

A

B. Supranational actors can have authority that goes beyond the sovereignty of member states, whereas nation-states operate under their own sovereignty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What type of structure do supranational organizations often aim to create in the international system?
A. An anarchic system with limited regulations
B. A centralized structure where international rules and norms are established and followed
C. A decentralized system with no standard regulations
D. A competitive system based on economic independence

A

B. A centralized structure where international rules and norms are established and followed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which types of international issues are often managed through international regimes established by supranational organizations?
A. Local taxation policies
B. Climate change, nuclear proliferation, and maritime law
C. National budget deficits
D. Regional tourism and trade restrictions

A

B. Climate change, nuclear proliferation, and maritime law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are examples of transnational actors in international relations?
A. Corporations and financial institutions
B. Intergovernmental organizations (IGOs), nongovernmental organizations (NGOs), and terrorist organizations
C. Only state-based political entities
D. Cultural exchange programs

A

B. Intergovernmental organizations (IGOs), nongovernmental organizations (NGOs), and terrorist organizations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a key characteristic of transnational actors like the IAEA and the World Bank?
A. They have undefined functions and roles
B. They operate within the borders of individual countries
C. They usually have identifiable leaders and a bureaucratic structure
D. They only focus on cultural events

A

C. They usually have identifiable leaders and a bureaucratic structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How do transnational actors like NGOs differ from supranational IGOs?
A. Transnational actors are multifunctional, while supranational IGOs are specialized
B. Transnational actors are specialized, limited in scope, while supranational IGOs often have multifunctional roles
C. Supranational IGOs do not operate across international boundaries
D. NGOs require governmental approval to operate

A

B. Transnational actors are specialized, limited in scope, while supranational IGOs often have multifunctional roles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following is an example of a nongovernmental organization (NGO) with a transnational role?
A. NATO
B. Human Rights Watch
C. The United Nations Security Council
D. The IMF

A

B. Human Rights Watch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What distinguishes terrorist organizations as transnational actors?
A. They operate under international law
B. They often have identifiable leadership, bureaucratic structure, and operate across borders
C. They are recognized as state entities
D. They have a global legal status similar to the UN

A

B. They often have identifiable leadership, bureaucratic structure, and operate across borders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following is not typically classified as an intergovernmental organization (IGO)?
A. INTERPOL
B. The IMF
C. Amnesty International
D. The WHO

A

C. Amnesty International

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Approximately how many large international non-governmental organizations (INGOs) exist today?
A. Around 1,000
B. About 50 large INGOs and over 300,000 small INGOs
C. 500 large INGOs only
D. Just over 100 total

A

B. About 50 large INGOs and over 300,000 small INGOs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How many transnational organizations were documented in 1900, compared to now?
A. 500 in 1900; 100,000 now
B. 30 IGOs and 69 INGOs in 1900; significantly more today with around 12,000 added each year
C. 1,000 in 1900; only 500 today
D. 20 IGOs in 1900; now fewer than 100 IGOs total

A

B. 30 IGOs and 69 INGOs in 1900; significantly more today with around 12,000 added each year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the primary function of transnational organizations like the WHO and the IMF?
A. They provide military support to nations
B. They focus on specialized and limited functions across borders
C. They govern cultural practices globally
D. They promote exclusive trade alliances between countries

A

B. They focus on specialized and limited functions, such as health and financial stability, across borders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the significance of the Yearbook of International Organization?
A. It documents military activities of transnational organizations
B. It keeps a record of international organizations, including approximately 12,000 new additions each year
C. It promotes trade agreements among IGOs
D. It limits the growth of NGOs globally

A

B. It keeps a record of international organizations, including approximately 12,000 new additions each year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the next question in systems analysis after identifying the actors in a system?
A. Determining their level of economic power
B. Identifying how many major power poles exist within the system
C. Defining the cultural influence of each actor
D. Analyzing the historical background of each actor

A

B. Identifying how many major power poles exist within the system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What can a ‘system pole’ be in the context of international relations?
A. A single actor, typically a powerful country
B. A non-governmental organization
C. A cultural institution
D. An economic union

A

A. A single actor, typically a powerful country

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What type of structure does a unipolar system, where one country dominates, usually have?
A. Cultural structure
B. Vertical structure
C. Economic structure
D. Horizontal structure

A

B. Vertical structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What was the primary system pole structure during the Cold War?
A. A multipolar system with three or more dominant countries
B. A unipolar system dominated by the United States
C. A bipolar system with West and East blocs led by the United States and the Soviet Union
D. A decentralized system with many equal actors

A

C. A bipolar system with West and East blocs led by the United States and the Soviet Union

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How do systems with different numbers of poles generally operate?
A. All systems operate in exactly the same way regardless of poles
B. Systems with varying numbers of poles operate differently, influencing global stability and the likelihood of conflict
C. Systems with fewer poles are more unstable than those with multiple poles
D. Systems with more poles are less capable of maintaining international norms

A

B. Systems with varying numbers of poles operate differently, influencing global stability and the likelihood of conflict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the relationship between the number of poles in a system and the system’s propensity for peace or conflict?
A. The number of poles directly influences the likelihood of peace or conflict within the system
B. The number of poles has no impact on peace or conflict
C. Fewer poles always lead to a more peaceful system
D. More poles lead to a higher degree of conflict and instability

A

A. The number of poles directly influences the likelihood of peace or conflict within the system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a characteristic of a horizontal structure in an international system?
A. Authority is concentrated in one dominant pole
B. Power is distributed more evenly among multiple poles
C. One state controls all military operations
D. Cultural institutions lead all political decisions

A

B. Power is distributed more evenly among multiple poles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How might a bipolar system affect global stability?
A. It often creates stability through alliances and balanced opposition, as seen during the Cold War
B. It leads to economic instability
C. It results in a unipolar world dominated by cultural norms
D. It eliminates the need for international organizations

A

A. It often creates stability through alliances and balanced opposition, as seen during the Cold War

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the independent variable in the analysis of the number of system poles on global stability?
A. The number of poles in the system
B. The economic power of each actor
C. The cultural influence of the system
D. The historical background of the actors

A

A. The number of poles in the system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

According to Karl Deutsch, what is the role of power in international relations?
A. It is the primary cause of economic growth
B. It is the “currency of politics,” similar to how money is the currency of the economy
C. It is irrelevant compared to cultural influence
D. It is only a secondary factor in political decisions

A

B. It is the “currency of politics,” similar to how money is the currency of the economy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which view of human nature does the concept of power in international relations align with, according to Hobbes?
A. Human nature is inherently peaceful and cooperative
B. Human nature is competitive and conflict-driven
C. Human nature is unpredictable
D. Human nature is focused on technological advancement

A

B. Human nature is competitive and conflict-driven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does power provide to states in the international system, according to Kenneth Waltz?
A. Increased territorial boundaries
B. Maintenance of autonomy, freedom of action, margin of safety, and international influence
C. Access to global media networks
D. A guaranteed seat in international organizations

A

B. Maintenance of autonomy, freedom of action, margin of safety, and international influence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How does Kenneth Waltz’s concept of structural realism view the importance of power?
A. Power is an unimportant factor in the behavior of states
B. Power is the most important factor that shapes the structure of the international system
C. Power is irrelevant in a multipolar system
D. Power is only important in the economic sphere

A

B. Power is the most important factor that shapes the structure of the international system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What types of systems does Waltz’s structural realism argue have existed since the Treaty of Westphalia in 1648?
A. Only unipolar and multipolar systems
B. Only multipolar and bipolar systems
C. Bipolar and tripolar systems
D. Systems based solely on regional power structures

A

B. Only multipolar and bipolar systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Who wrote Man, the State, and War, published in 1959?
A. Karl Deutsch
B. Thomas Hobbes
C. Kenneth Waltz
D. John Locke

A

C. Kenneth Waltz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

In Man, the State, and War, what does Kenneth Waltz identify as the first “image of analysis” for explaining the causes of war?
A. Economic systems
B. Individuals
C. Military alliances
D. International organizations

A

B. Individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

According to the first image of analysis, what is the primary cause of wars?
A. The nature and actions of political leaders, consistent with Classical Realism
B. The economic structure of the international system
C. The competition between regional blocs
D. The influence of multinational corporations

A

A. The nature and actions of political leaders, consistent with Classical Realism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

In the second image of analysis, what is identified as a cause of war?
A. The military power of alliances
B. The domestic makeup of states, such as economic systems and political structures
C. Technological advances in warfare
D. Cultural differences between states

A

B. The domestic makeup of states, such as economic systems and political structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What theory aligns with the second image of analysis and suggests that capitalist states engage in war to open new markets?
A. Marxism
B. Lenin’s theory of imperialism
C. Realism
D. Constructivism

A

B. Lenin’s theory of imperialism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the primary assertion of Democratic Peace Theory within the second image of analysis?
A. Democratic states are more likely to start wars
B. Non-democratic states tend to start wars, while democracies are generally peaceful
C. All states are equally likely to start wars
D. Democratic states always remain neutral in conflicts

A

B. Non-democratic states tend to start wars, while democracies are generally peaceful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What does the third image of analysis attribute as the main cause of war in the international system?
A. Economic competition between states
B. The anarchic structure of the international system, where no central authority exists
C. Technological advancements in weaponry
D. Cultural differences between regions

A

B. The anarchic structure of the international system, where no central authority exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

According to the third image of analysis, why does anarchy in the international system lead to conflict?
A. It prevents states from forming alliances
B. It limits the economic interactions between states
C. It means there is no overarching authority to enforce rules, causing states to act in their own self-interest
D. It encourages cultural exchanges that lead to misunderstanding

A

C. It means there is no overarching authority to enforce rules, causing states to act in their own self-interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How does the first image of analysis differ from the third image in explaining the causes of war?
A. The first image focuses on system-level structures, while the third image focuses on individual leaders
B. The first image focuses on individuals (e.g., political leaders), while the third image considers the anarchic structure of the international system
C. The first image emphasizes economic systems, whereas the third image emphasizes technology
D. The first image addresses cultural issues, while the third image focuses on military alliances

A

B. The first image focuses on individuals (e.g., political leaders), while the third image considers the anarchic structure of the international system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which of the following best describes the concept of “anarchy” in Waltz’s third image of analysis?
A. A situation where there is no central governing authority above nation-states to regulate their actions
B. A system where all states agree to a common set of laws
C. An economic arrangement for trade between nations
D. A cooperative organization uniting all countries

A

A. A situation where there is no central governing authority above nation-states to regulate their actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What does the concept of ‘bounded rationality’ refer to in individual-level analysis?
A. Decision-making within the limits of what an individual consciously knows, often leading to misperception
B. Making choices that always consider all available information
C. The influence of economic power on political decisions
D. The capacity for collective intelligence in group settings

A

A. Decision-making within the limits of what an individual consciously knows, often leading to misperception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What theory in psychological analysis suggests that a society’s frustration can lead to collective aggression?
A. Cognitive dissonance theory
B. Frustration-aggression theory
C. Rational choice theory
D. Social learning theory

A

B. Frustration-aggression theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which individual-level analysis aspect examines the influence of ‘nature vs nurture’ on behavior?
A. Cognitive analysis
B. Biological analysis
C. Psychological analysis
D. Social analysis

A

B. Biological analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Who proposed the concept of ‘animus dominandi’ or the drive for power, as a fundamental aspect of human nature?
A. Kenneth Waltz
B. Hans Morgenthau
C. Karl Deutsch
D. Thomas Hobbes

A

B. Hans Morgenthau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which ecologist compared human aggression to animal behavior in his work On Aggression?
A. Hans Morgenthau
B. Konrad Lorenz
C. Sigmund Freud
D. Carl Jung

A

B. Konrad Lorenz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What role does ‘bounded rationality’ play in decision-making at the individual level?
A. It ensures decisions are always made with complete information
B. It suggests that individuals make decisions within the limits of their own knowledge, which can lead to errors in judgment
C. It allows individuals to always make rational, error-free decisions
D. It has no impact on political decision-making

A

B. It suggests that individuals make decisions within the limits of their own knowledge, which can lead to errors in judgment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

In the nature vs nurture debate, what is meant by ‘nurture’ in terms of influencing behavior?
A. Innate physical and emotional drives
B. Socialization and intellectual moderation that shape behavior
C. Biological factors exclusively
D. Random environmental influences

A

B. Socialization and intellectual moderation that shape behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

In state-level analysis, what are considered the most primary and powerful actors in world politics?
A. Corporations
B. States
C. Non-governmental organizations
D. International alliances

A

B. States

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which of the following can be included in the definition of a “state”?
A. The Head of State, the legislature, and the military
B. Only the Head of State
C. Private citizens
D. Cultural institutions

A

A. The Head of State, the legislature, and the military

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which U.S. Presidents encountered challenges in dealing with Congress, illustrating internal constraints on state power?
A. Thomas Jefferson and John F. Kennedy
B. Woodrow Wilson and Franklin D. Roosevelt (FDR)
C. George Washington and Abraham Lincoln
D. Dwight D. Eisenhower and Harry S. Truman

A

B. Woodrow Wilson and Franklin D. Roosevelt (FDR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is one societal factor that can influence a state’s foreign policy decisions?
A. Economic sanctions from other countries
B. The opinions of other nation-states
C. Public opinion within the state
D. Multinational corporations

A

C. Public opinion within the state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Foreign policy formulation occurs within two main settings. What are they?
A. Military and economic settings
B. International alliances and peace treaties
C. External (international system) and internal (political culture, subnational actors) settings
D. Domestic law and international law

A

External (international system) and internal (political culture, subnational actors) settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which of the following is not considered a power asset in international relations?
A. Military strength
B. Technological sophistication
C. Population
D. Cultural traditions
E. Natural resources
F. Industrial capacity

A

D. Cultural traditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

How does the uneven distribution of power assets across the international system affect global dynamics?
A. It encourages equal economic growth among all states
B. It creates pressure within the system, often leading to competition and conflict as states seek to obtain resources they lack
C. It stabilizes relationships between states and reduces the likelihood of conflict
D. It promotes the elimination of all trade barriers between nations

A

B. It creates pressure within the system, often leading to competition and conflict as states seek to obtain resources they lack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Why is the distribution of power assets important in the international system?
A. It determines which actors can form cultural alliances
B. It decides which actors constitute poles within the system
C. It only affects domestic policies of states
D. It helps countries develop educational programs

A

B. It decides which actors constitute poles within the system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What type of power asset was a primary factor in the North’s imperialistic expansion during the 19th century?
A. Advanced military technology
B. Unequal industrial capacity compared to the South
C. Large populations
D. Agricultural production

A

B. Unequal industrial capacity compared to the South

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which historical event was influenced by the distribution of oil resources, prompting the United States to intervene militarily?
A. The Cuban Missile Crisis
B. The Gulf War
C. The Vietnam War
D. The Korean War

A

B. The Gulf War

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

According to Secretary of State James Baker, why was the Gulf region significant to the industrialized world?
A. It was a major center of technological innovation
B. It was the economic lifeline due to its oil resources
C. It controlled a vast majority of agricultural exports
D. It was the largest producer of manufactured goods

A

B. It was the economic lifeline due to its oil resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Why do humans construct social systems with regularized patterns of behavior?
A. To avoid interacting with others
B. To promote random behaviors
C. To facilitate interaction and reduce anxiety caused by unpredictable actions
D. To eliminate all forms of communication

A

C. To facilitate interaction and reduce anxiety caused by unpredictable actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is an example of a norm of behavior in international relations that protects diplomats?
A. The Geneva Conventions
B. Diplomatic immunity under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations
C. The Convention on International Civil Aviation
D. The International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling

A

B. Diplomatic immunity under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Which of the following is an arms control treaty aimed at limiting the proliferation of nuclear weapons?
A. North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA)
B. The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)
C. The Convention on International Civil Aviation
D. The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)

A

B. The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What kind of agreements do NAFTA, TPP, and RCEP represent?
A. Arms control agreements
B. Trade agreements
C. Environmental treaties
D. Diplomatic conventions

A

B. Trade agreements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Which international agreement established the legal framework for diplomatic immunity?
A. The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons
B. The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations
C. The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT)
D. The Treaty of Versailles

A

B. The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

In what year was the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT) signed?
A. 1882
B. 1968
C. 1946
D. 1982

A

B. 1968

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Which international convention, signed in 1882, governs maritime law?
A. The Convention on International Civil Aviation
B. The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
C. The International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling
D. The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)

A

B. The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Why might states sometimes act outside of established norms, such as using force or threatening force?
A. To demonstrate complete adherence to international agreements
B. To avoid engaging in diplomatic relations
C. To protect national interests, including territorial, economic, and ideological concerns
D. To promote random behavior in international relations

A

C. To protect national interests, including territorial, economic, and ideological concerns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the significance of norms reflected in international laws?
A. They provide a basis for consistent behavior and help manage international interactions
B. They limit all forms of economic activity
C. They only apply to trade and economic agreements
D. They allow for complete unpredictability in state behavior

A

A. They provide a basis for consistent behavior and help manage international interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of arms control mechanisms like CTBT, INF, and START?
A. They encourage unrestricted development of weapons by all states
B. They aim to limit and regulate weapons systems to enhance global security
C. They focus on cultural exchanges between nations
D. They apply solely to non-state actors

A

B. They aim to limit and regulate weapons systems to enhance global security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How are norms reflected in international relations?
A. Norms are completely separate from international laws and have no influence on them
B. Norms are integrated into international laws, providing a basis for consistent behavior among states
C. Norms only apply to domestic laws, not international laws
D. Norms are enforced solely through cultural practices

A

B. Norms are integrated into international laws, providing a basis for consistent behavior among states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Question

A

Correct Answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Which of the following factors contribute to an increase in the frequency and intensity of international interactions?
A. Economic interdependence, modern telecommunications, increased travel, and the rise of IGOs and NGOs
B. Isolationist policies and reduced levels of global travel
C. Decline in non-governmental organizations (NGOs) and reduced telecommunications
D. Military alliances and the reduction of economic partnerships

A

A. Economic interdependence, modern telecommunications, increased travel, and the rise of IGOs and NGOs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

In the context of international relations, what does the term ‘scope’ refer to?
A. The number and variety of areas in which actors interact
B. The intensity of economic relations between states
C. The level of technological advancement among countries
D. The exclusive focus on military interactions

A

A. The number and variety of areas in which actors interact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What does the ‘level’ of interaction refer to in international relations?
A. The types of international organizations involved
B. The intensity of interactions between actors
C. The geographic distance between states
D. The cultural ties that bind countries together

A

B. The intensity of interactions between actors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

According to the World Economic Forum, which issues have become increasingly important in the scope of global interactions?
A. Food security, sustainable development, and climate change
B. Religious practices, isolationism, and local traditions
C. Domestic law enforcement, tax policy, and regional zoning laws
D. Artistic trends, social clubs, and cultural celebrations

A

A. Food security, sustainable development, and climate change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What concept in international relations refers to the theory that stability is achieved when one state holds a preponderance of power?
A. Isolationism
B. Hegemony
C. Multipolarity
D. Democratic Peace Theory

A

B. Hegemony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

How do long cycle theorists explain the occurrence of hegemonic wars?
A. Hegemonic wars are caused by cultural misunderstandings
B. Hegemonic wars occur due to power shifts within the international system, also known as power transitions
C. They are only the result of economic crises
D. They are caused by temporary alliances between smaller states

A

B. Hegemonic wars occur due to power shifts within the international system, also known as power transitions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What do long cycle theorists propose about the stability of the international system?
A. Stability can be achieved only through complete economic independence
B. Stability occurs when power is distributed equally among all states
C. Stability is more likely when one dominant world power or hegemon exists
D. Stability is unrelated to the distribution of power

A

C. Stability is more likely when one dominant world power or hegemon exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Who published Long Cycles in World Politics, outlining the concept of long cycles in international relations?
A. Kenneth Waltz
B. George Modelski
C. Joseph Nye
D. Henry Kissinger

A

B. George Modelski

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

According to long cycle theorists, over what period do extended cycles typically occur in world politics?
A. 50 years
B. 100 years
C. 200 years
D. 25 years

A

B. 100 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the primary focus of George Modelski’s Long Cycle Theory?
A. The evolution of democratic governance worldwide
B. The connection between war cycles, economic supremacy, and world leadership
C. The decline of military alliances
D. The importance of cultural influences in global politics

A

B. The connection between war cycles, economic supremacy, and world leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

According to Modelski, what purpose do long cycles serve in understanding global politics?
A. They help explore how cultural exchanges have influenced international relations
B. They show patterns in how world wars have recurred and how lead states, like Britain and the United States, have succeeded one another
C. They examine the impacts of technology on society
D. They emphasize the role of non-governmental organizations in world leadership

A

B. They show patterns in how world wars have recurred and how lead states, like Britain and the United States, have succeeded one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How does Modelski divide the phases within a long cycle?
A. Two equal parts of peaceful and conflict periods
B. Three phases based on technological advancement
C. Four phases, including periods of global war that can last up to one-quarter of the total cycle
D. Five phases focused on economic growth

A

C. Four phases, including periods of global war that can last up to one-quarter of the total cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How long can a long cycle last, according to Modelski?
A. 87 to 122 years
B. 50 to 75 years
C. 20 to 50 years
D. 150 to 200 years

A

A. 87 to 122 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What role do wars play in Modelski’s Long Cycle Theory?
A. Wars are rare and have little impact on the long cycle
B. Wars are random and unpredictable within the cycle
C. Wars are “systemic decisions” that punctuate the movement of the global system at regular intervals
D. Wars only occur in the early phases of the long cycle

A

C. Wars are “systemic decisions” that punctuate the movement of the global system at regular intervals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Why does Modelski suggest that wars are a natural part of the long cycle?
A. They help reduce the population and resolve resource scarcity
B. They reflect the periodic instability within the global polity and social order
C. They ensure a continuous shift in cultural norms
D. They signify the end of each long cycle without contributing to larger systemic changes

A

B. They reflect the periodic instability within the global polity and social order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What do long cycles of global politics represent, according to George Modelski’s theory?
A. Random fluctuations in international relations
B. Patterns of past world politics that repeat over time
C. Sudden and unpredictable changes in world leadership
D. Isolated events with no relevance to current global dynamics

A

B. Patterns of past world politics that repeat over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

According to George Modelski, what do the five long cycles that have taken place since about 1500 represent?
A. Separate events unrelated to one another
B. Phases within a larger global system cycle, or the modern world system
C. Individual cultural revolutions with no political impact
D. Short-lived economic trends

A

B. Phases within a larger global system cycle, or the modern world system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the role of norms in the actions of international actors, according to Long Cycle Theory?
A. Norms have no influence on international actors
B. Norms completely dictate every action of an international actor
C. Norms, along with the realities of the system, restrain the actions of international actors within the system in which they exist
D. Norms only apply to economic interactions, not political ones

A

C. Norms, along with the realities of the system, restrain the actions of international actors within the system in which they exist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is a defining feature of long cycles in world politics, according to Long Cycle Theory?
A. They last approximately 50 years and focus on economic changes
B. They involve “hegemonic wars” that result from power shifts within the system
C. They eliminate all forms of conflict in the system
D. They focus exclusively on cultural development

A

B. They involve “hegemonic wars” that result from power shifts within the system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What does a hegemonic war typically lead to within the context of Long Cycle Theory?
A. The establishment of smaller regional powers
B. The destruction of an old power structure and the emergence of a new one
C. Increased global isolationism
D. A decline in technological innovation

A

B. The destruction of an old power structure and the emergence of a new one

122
Q

What is a component of Xi Jinping’s 2050 Vision for China, as introduced in October 2017?
A. Developing a capitalist economic system
B. Achieving superpower status and establishing China as a modern socialist country that can stand tall globally
C. Reducing China’s role in international affairs
D. Focusing solely on cultural reforms within China

A

B. Achieving superpower status and establishing China as a modern socialist country that can stand tall globally

123
Q

What is the timeline for Xi Jinping’s plan to transform China into a modern socialist country?
A. By 2025
B. By 2035
C. By 2050
D. By 2100

A

C. By 2050

124
Q

According to Long Cycle Theory, what can a significant change in any characteristic of the international system lead to?
A. A continuation of the same system indefinitely
B. A change in the nature of the system itself
C. The elimination of global conflict
D. A reduction in trade agreements between states

A

B. A change in the nature of the system itself

125
Q

What event marked the transition from a unipolar to a bipolar world order in the 20th century?
A. The signing of the Treaty of Versailles
B. The end of World War II and the rise of the Soviet Union as a superpower
C. The founding of the United Nations
D. The formation of the European Union

A

B. The end of World War II and the rise of the Soviet Union as a superpower

126
Q

Which term describes the logic of Cold War politics, where any gain for one superpower was seen as a loss for the other?
A. Cooperative logic
B. Zero-sum logic
C. Positive-sum logic
D. Non-alignment

A

B. Zero-sum logic

127
Q

According to Harry S. Truman in his 1949 inaugural address, what is communism based on?
A. A belief in free market principles
B. The idea that man is too weak to govern himself and thus requires strong rulers
C. A commitment to democratic governance
D. The principles of religious freedom

A

B. The idea that man is too weak to govern himself and thus requires strong rulers

128
Q

What concept did John Lewis Gaddis describe the Cold War as in 1986?
A. The “short conflict”
B. The “long peace”
C. The “age of turmoil”
D. The “silent standoff”

A

B. The “long peace”

129
Q

Why did John Lewis Gaddis refer to the Cold War era as the “long peace”?
A. It saw a reduction in the number of wars worldwide due to the deterrence of a bipolar balance
B. It was marked by frequent conflicts between the United States and the Soviet Union
C. It was characterized by open and cooperative diplomacy between superpowers
D. It led to the dissolution of all military alliances

A

A. It saw a reduction in the number of wars worldwide due to the deterrence of a bipolar balance

130
Q

Who said the following?
“The United States… find [itself] directly opposed by a regime with contrary aims and a totally different concept of life… That regime adheres to a false philosophy which purport to offer freedom, security, and greater opportunity to mankind… That false philosophy is communism. Communism is based on the belief that man is so weak and inadequate that he is unable to govern himself, and therefore requires the rule of strong masters.”
A. Dwight D. Eisenhower
B. John F. Kennedy
C. Harry S. Truman
D. Ronald Reagan

A

C. Harry S. Truman

131
Q

What are the three key components that foreign policy entails?
A. Military strength, public opinion, and trade relations
B. Goals abroad, the values that shape those goals, and the instruments to attain them
C. Economic policy, cultural exchanges, and scientific advancements
D. Media influence, educational systems, and religious beliefs

A

B. Goals abroad, the values that shape those goals, and the instruments to attain them

132
Q

Which three elements collectively shape a nation’s foreign policy?
A. Values, ends, and means
B. Culture, religion, and language
C. Military alliances, economic resources, and technology
D. Political parties, elections, and judicial rulings

A

A. Values, ends, and means

133
Q

James N. Rosenau identifies five sources that influence foreign policy behavior. Which of the following is not one of these sources?
A. External factors
B. Societal influences
C. Military operations
D. Individual personalities

A

C. Military operations

134
Q

What is the ‘Funnel of Causality’ in foreign policy analysis?
A. A tool used to prioritize national interests
B. The concept that five sources collectively shape foreign policy
C. A mechanism for dividing domestic and international goals
D. A term describing the stages of economic development

A

B. The concept that five sources collectively shape foreign policy

135
Q

In foreign policy analysis, how is foreign policy typically treated within the ‘Funnel of Causality’?
A. As an independent variable
B. As an intervening variable
C. As a dependent variable or output
D. As a cultural variable

A

C. As a dependent variable or output

136
Q

What is the role of the foreign policy-making process in the ‘Funnel of Causality’?
A. It is an intervening variable that connects sources with the output (foreign policy)
B. It represents a primary source of cultural influence
C. It serves as the only independent variable in the analysis
D. It has no impact on the formulation of foreign policy

A

A. It is an intervening variable that connects sources with the output (foreign policy)

137
Q

Foreign policy is formulated by a decision-making process that occurs within which two settings?
A. Cultural influences and historical context
B. External setting (international system) and internal setting (political culture, public opinion, interest groups, mass media, leaders’ background)
C. Military strategy and economic policy
D. Scientific advancement and environmental factors

A

B. External setting (international system) and internal setting (political culture, public opinion, interest groups, mass media, leaders’ background)

138
Q

Which of the following is considered an external source of foreign policy?
A. Political culture
B. Public opinion
C. The international political system
D. Presidential elections

A

C. The international political system

139
Q

What role does the external environment play in foreign policy formulation?
A. It only acts as a stimulant for achieving preferred goals
B. It serves as both a stimulant and a constraint in achieving preferred goals
C. It does not impact foreign policy decisions
D. It solely restricts foreign policy formulation

A

B. It serves as both a stimulant and a constraint in achieving preferred goals

140
Q

Which of the following is not considered a societal source of foreign policy?
A. Interest groups
B. Political culture
C. The international political system
D. Public opinion

A

C. The international political system

141
Q

What are the key components of governmental sources influencing foreign policy in the United States?
A. International norms and public opinion
B. Congress, the presidency, and bureaucracy
C. Military strength and economic power
D. Public opinion and interest groups

A

B. Congress, the presidency, and bureaucracy

142
Q

Which branch of the U.S. government has the power to ratify treaties, declare war, and control the budget, impacting foreign policy?
A. Executive branch
B. Legislative branch
C. Judicial branch
D. Military branch

A

B. Legislative branch

143
Q

What is an example of a role source in foreign policy?
A. Non-state actors
B. Rational processes and institutions
C. Public opinion
D. Interest groups

A

B. Rational processes and institutions

144
Q

How do conflicting hegemonic ambitions influence foreign policy as an external source?
A. They typically have no effect on foreign policy decisions
B. They create competition between states, influencing the pursuit of power and security
C. They promote equal partnerships among all countries
D. They lead to complete isolationism by powerful states

A

B. They create competition between states, influencing the pursuit of power and security

145
Q

What is meant by ‘imperial presidency’ in the context of U.S. foreign policy?
A. The president acts as a figurehead without real power
B. The president holds extensive foreign policy prerogatives, sometimes bypassing Congress
C. The president focuses solely on domestic issues and disregards foreign policy
D. The president delegates all foreign policy decisions to state governors

A

B. The president holds extensive foreign policy prerogatives, sometimes bypassing Congress

146
Q

Why is the U.S. legislative branch important in shaping foreign policy?
A. It can veto executive orders on foreign policy
B. It is responsible for ratifying treaties, declaring war, and controlling the budget
C. It makes independent foreign policy decisions without input from the president
D. It enforces all international laws directly

A

B. It is responsible for ratifying treaties, declaring war, and controlling the budget

147
Q

How might the distribution of power in the international system affect a country’s foreign policy?
A. It has no effect on foreign policy decisions
B. It can create opportunities or obstacles based on the relative power of other states
C. It leads all countries to adopt identical policies
D. It encourages countries to avoid international interactions

A

B. It can create opportunities or obstacles based on the relative power of other states

148
Q

Which of the following best describes an ideology?
A. A specific political leader’s actions
B. A system of ideas that explains the world or seeks to change it
C. A form of government policy without underlying beliefs
D. A random collection of thoughts

A

B. A system of ideas that explains the world or seeks to change it

149
Q

Which of these is not typically considered a category of ideology?
A. Socialism
B. Nationalism
C. Fascism
D. Individualism

A

D. Individualism

150
Q

What is one characteristic of ideologies regarding their followers?
A. Ideologies often appeal to a small, elite group only
B. Ideologies are designed to appeal to the masses
C. Ideologies focus only on economic growth
D. Ideologies discourage any belief in future change

A

B. Ideologies are designed to appeal to the masses

151
Q

How does an ideology differ from a general idea?
A. Ideas are always tied to a specific political leader, while ideologies are not
B. Ideas are abstract and generally applicable, while ideologies are specific doctrines with a set of beliefs or principles
C. Ideas cannot lead to change, while ideologies can
D. Ideas are universally accepted, whereas ideologies are rejected by society

A

B. Ideas are abstract and generally applicable, while ideologies are specific doctrines with a set of beliefs or principles

152
Q

What do ideologies typically include to reinforce their teachings?
A. Revered scriptures and prophetic teachers
B. Only secular concepts and scientific theories
C. Cultural customs from different regions
D. A rejection of all historical teachings

A

A. Revered scriptures and prophetic teachers

153
Q

What does it mean for an ideology to ‘project the view of a desirable future’?
A. It only focuses on historical successes
B. It outlines a vision of a future that followers are encouraged to work towards
C. It disregards the present and the past entirely
D. It denies the possibility of any future changes

A

B. It outlines a vision of a future that followers are encouraged to work towards

154
Q

Why might ideologies appeal to the masses rather than just individuals?
A. Ideologies typically present a shared vision of society’s goals and encourage collective action
B. Ideologies ignore collective beliefs and focus solely on individual values
C. Ideologies provide no explanation for present circumstances
D. Ideologies prioritize isolation over community engagement

A

A. Ideologies typically present a shared vision of society’s goals and encourage collective action

155
Q

How do ideologies attempt to explain the present to their followers?
A. By denying current challenges in society
B. By interpreting current events through their own set of beliefs and guiding principles
C. By focusing only on individual experiences
D. By rejecting any analysis of the past

A

B. By interpreting current events through their own set of beliefs and guiding principles

156
Q

In the strictest sense, is religion considered an ideology?
A. Yes, religion is strictly an ideology
B. No, religion is not strictly considered an ideology, though it shares some ideological characteristics
C. Religion has no characteristics of ideology at all
D. Religion is considered the same as a secular philosophy

A

B. No, religion is not strictly considered an ideology, though it shares some ideological characteristics

157
Q

What secular goals do religions sometimes pursue?
A. They focus only on spiritual teachings with no influence on secular goals
B. They include political, social, and humanitarian aims
C. They advocate only for isolation from global affairs
D. They avoid secular influences entirely

A

B. They include political, social, and humanitarian aims

158
Q

Which religion influenced Gandhi’s commitment to pacifism?
A. Islam
B. Hinduism
C. Christianity
D. Buddhism

A

B. Hinduism

159
Q

Which of the following events is an example of religion as a source of conflict?
A. The founding of the United Nations
B. The Protestant Reformation and the resulting Christian division
C. The establishment of the Red Cross
D. The signing of the Magna Carta

A

B. The Protestant Reformation and the resulting Christian division

160
Q

What dual roles can religion play in world politics?
A. As a means of economic development and scientific advancement
B. As a source of humanitarian concern and as a cause of war and conflict
C. As a purely secular force and a promoter of international trade
D. As a cultural entertainment and a political obstacle

A

B. As a source of humanitarian concern and as a cause of war and conflict

161
Q

What religious conflict began in 1095 in response to Islamic expansion?
A. The Spanish Inquisition
B. The Protestant Reformation
C. The Crusades
D. The Great Schism

A

C. The Crusades

162
Q

Which war is partially attributed to Protestant and Catholic rivalry?
A. The French Revolution
B. The Thirty Years’ War (1618-1648)
C. The Crimean War
D. The War of 1812

A

B. The Thirty Years’ War (1618-1648)

163
Q

How might religion serve as a source of humanitarian concern in global politics?
A. By promoting cultural isolation and separation
B. Through pacifism and social reform efforts, such as the anti-nuclear movement by the Roman Catholic Church
C. By solely focusing on theological debates without any social influence
D. By opposing all forms of political engagement

A

B. Through pacifism and social reform efforts, such as the anti-nuclear movement by the Roman Catholic Church

164
Q

What role did religious missionaries often play in the context of imperialism?
A. They worked to limit political involvement in local cultures
B. They promoted and legitimized political, economic, and cultural control over local populations
C. They isolated themselves from local communities to avoid influencing them
D. They worked solely for economic gain with no religious motivation

A

B. They promoted and legitimized political, economic, and cultural control over local populations

165
Q

Why might religion and politics be considered inseparable in some contexts?
A. Because religious beliefs and political ideologies are unrelated
B. Because religious doctrines often influence societal values, which in turn shape political actions
C. Because political systems have no influence over religious communities
D. Because religion only addresses spiritual concerns without impacting social issues

A

B. Because religious doctrines often influence societal values, which in turn shape political actions

166
Q

What does the term “Islam” mean?
A. “Unity”
B. “Struggle”
C. “Submission”
D. “Enlightenment”

A

C. “Submission”

167
Q

What does the term “Muslim” mean?
A. One who leads
B. One who struggles
C. One who submits
D. One who teaches

A

C. One who submits

168
Q

Which of the following best describes the term “Ummah” in Islam?
A. A single Islamic nation
B. The spiritual, cultural, and political community of Muslims
C. A sect within Islam
D. A formal title for Islamic leaders

A

B. The spiritual, cultural, and political community of Muslims

169
Q

What is the meaning of “jihad” in its original Islamic context?
A. A specific form of government
B. An aggressive military campaign
C. A peaceful struggle in the name of Allah
D. A ritual celebration

A

C. A peaceful struggle in the name of Allah

170
Q

What marked the decline of Muslim secular strength in the early 20th century?
A. The end of the Mughal Empire
B. The defeat of the Ottoman Empire in World War I
C. The expansion of the Abbasid Caliphate
D. The Protestant Reformation

A

B. The defeat of the Ottoman Empire in World War I

171
Q

How does the concept of Ummah influence Muslim communities in terms of international relations?
A. It isolates Muslim communities from the global context
B. It reinforces a sense of unity across spiritual, cultural, and political dimensions for Muslims worldwide
C. It limits Muslims to individualistic practices
D. It discourages Muslim communities from participating in international affairs

A

B. It reinforces a sense of unity across spiritual, cultural, and political dimensions for Muslims worldwide

172
Q

What influence has the historical clash between Islamic and Christian powers had on modern Muslim perspectives?
A. It is no longer relevant to modern Muslim attitudes
B. It contributes to a perception of historic conflict and defense against external threats
C. It led to a complete separation from political concerns
D. It caused a rejection of religious practices

A

B. It contributes to a perception of historic conflict and defense against external threats

173
Q

How did Western imperialism and colonialism contribute to shifts in Muslim political heritage?
A. They created unity among all Muslim empires
B. They led to the decline of Muslim secular power from 1500 onward
C. They strengthened Muslim empires and territories
D. They had no impact on the Muslim world

A

B. They led to the decline of Muslim secular power from 1500 onward

174
Q

What role did both peaceful conversion and violent conquest play in the historical expansion of Islam?
A. Islam expanded solely through peaceful means
B. Only violent conquests led to the spread of Islam
C. Both methods contributed to the spread of Islam and have shaped the Muslim political heritage
D. Islam spread only within the Arabian Peninsula

A

C. Both methods contributed to the spread of Islam and have shaped the Muslim political heritage

175
Q

What has contributed to the resurgence of Islamic fundamentalism, pride, and militancy in recent times?
A. Complete isolation from world politics
B. Increased secularization within Islamic countries
C. The combination of Islamic fundamentalism with nationalism in Islamic countries
D. The abandonment of Islamic principles

A

C. The combination of Islamic fundamentalism with nationalism in Islamic countries

176
Q

Which concept represents the global unity and community of Muslims?
A. Sharia
B. Jihad
C. Ummah
D. Caliphate

A

C. Ummah

177
Q

What are examples of Muslim assertiveness in protecting Islamic interests?
A. The defense of Islamic holy places, support for the PLO, and endorsement of Pakistan’s nuclear capabilities as the “Islamic Bomb”
B. Withdrawal from all global alliances and treaties
C. Total rejection of nationalism in Islamic countries
D. Increased secularization of Islamic education systems

A

A. The defense of Islamic holy places, support for the PLO, and endorsement of Pakistan’s nuclear capabilities as the “Islamic Bomb”

178
Q

What is the main goal of ISIS/ISIL, as declared in 2014?
A. To promote secularism in the Middle East
B. To establish an international coalition for peace
C. To create a worldwide caliphate with political and military authority over all Muslims
D. To foster cultural exchange between the West and Islamic countries

A

C. To create a worldwide caliphate with political and military authority over all Muslims

179
Q

Which factor complicates the unity of the Ummah among Muslim countries?
A. High levels of economic prosperity
B. Religious and ethnic diversity, including divisions like Shiite vs Sunni and varying national identities
C. Universal agreement on political issues
D. A complete absence of nationalist sentiment

A

B. Religious and ethnic diversity, including divisions like Shiite vs Sunni and varying national identities

180
Q

How does nationalism influence Muslim political history and attitudes today?
A. Nationalism promotes complete separation from religious identity
B. It has no significant influence on Muslim political attitudes
C. Nationalism blends with Islamic pride, leading to assertiveness in Islamic countries
D. Nationalism is rejected by all Muslim communities

A

C. Nationalism blends with Islamic pride, leading to assertiveness in Islamic countries

181
Q

What challenge does the concept of a single caliphate face among Muslim-majority countries?
A. Total cultural homogeneity across all countries
B. Complete consensus on political leadership
C. Resistance from nationalism, ethnic differences, and divisions within Islam, such as Sunni vs Shiite
D. Full agreement on political and religious unity

A

C. Resistance from nationalism, ethnic differences, and divisions within Islam, such as Sunni vs Shiite

182
Q

Why might the idea of Islamic solidarity appeal to some Muslim communities?
A. It promotes a unified identity across national boundaries, potentially countering Western influences
B. It discourages any form of community interaction
C. It reduces the need for religious practices
D. It increases isolationism from other Muslim countries

A

A. It promotes a unified identity across national boundaries, potentially countering Western influences

183
Q

Which factors contribute to divisions within the Muslim Ummah despite aspirations for unity?
A. Ethnic diversity, political differences, and sectarian divisions, such as Sunni and Shiite
B. A universally accepted form of government
C. A lack of nationalist sentiment
D. Complete uniformity in cultural and religious practices

A

A. Ethnic diversity, political differences, and sectarian divisions, such as Sunni and Shiite

184
Q

What is the ultimate goal of communism as an ideology? A. To establish an authoritarian regime B. To create a society based on class divisions and private ownership C. To establish a classless, egalitarian society with common ownership of the means of production D. To promote capitalism as the primary economic system

A

C. To establish a classless, egalitarian society with common ownership of the means of production

185
Q

Which document, written by Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels in 1848, popularized the term communism? A. The Wealth of Nations B. The Communist Manifesto C. Utopia D. Das Kapital

A

B. The Communist Manifesto

186
Q

What does communism seek to abolish in terms of ownership? A. Social welfare programs B. Common ownership C. Private ownership of the means of production D. Class distinctions

A

C. Private ownership of the means of production

187
Q

Who is considered one of the earliest critics of private property during the Age of Enlightenment? A. Thomas Hobbes B. John Locke C. Jean-Jacques Rousseau D. Adam Smith

A

C. Jean-Jacques Rousseau

188
Q

What role did the Industrial Revolution play in the development of communist ideas?
A. It led to widespread acceptance of capitalism
B. It reduced the divide between social classes
C. It led to socialists criticizing capitalism for creating a miserable working class
D. It eliminated the concept of private property

A

C. It led to socialists criticizing capitalism for creating a miserable working class

189
Q

Which 16th-century writer portrayed a society based on common ownership of property in his book Utopia? A. William Shakespeare B. Thomas More C. Francis Bacon D. Thomas Hobbes

A

B. Thomas More

190
Q

How does communism view the relationship between the proletariat and the bourgeoisie?
A. It sees them as partners in economic progress
B. It sees them as separate but equal classes
C. It views them as opposing classes in a struggle, with the bourgeoisie exploiting the proletariat
D. It sees the bourgeoisie as the ruling class that helps the proletariat advance

A

C. It views them as opposing classes in a struggle, with the bourgeoisie exploiting the proletariat

191
Q

According to Marxist theory, what is necessary to resolve the class struggle between the proletariat and the bourgeoisie? A. A peaceful negotiation between the classes B. The establishment of monopolies C. A social revolution to establish worker control over the means of production D. Increased government intervention in the economy

A

C. A social revolution to establish worker control over the means of production

192
Q

What contribution did the Diggers make to early communist ideas in the 17th century? A. They advocated for the separation of church and state B. They promoted the abolition of private ownership of land C. They focused on expanding economic opportunities for the bourgeoisie D. They argued in favor of maintaining social classes

A

B. They promoted the abolition of private ownership of land

193
Q

According to Marx and Engels, what determines a society’s political and social order?
A. Cultural traditions
B. Economic order
C. Military strength
D. Technological advancements

A

B. Economic order

194
Q

What is dialectical materialism in the context of Marxist theory?
A. A form of political conservatism
B. A scientific theory of socialism focusing on material conditions and economic struggle
C. A theory supporting absolute monarchy
D. A religious doctrine

A

B. A scientific theory of socialism focusing on material conditions and economic struggle

195
Q

What is the “historical dialectic” as described by Marx and Engels?
A. The use of cultural practices to justify political systems
B. The clash of opposing ideas that drives historical change
C. A method of scientific inquiry focused on natural phenomena
D. The study of ancient philosophy

A

B. The clash of opposing ideas that drives historical change

196
Q

Which philosopher’s ideas did Marx and Engels benchmark, criticize, and modify in developing their own theory?
A. John Locke
B. Immanuel Kant
C. Georg Hegel
D. Thomas Hobbes

A

C. Georg Hegel

197
Q

How do Marx and Engels believe the present and future are determined?
A. By cultural and religious practices
B. By individual achievements in the arts and sciences
C. By economic struggle and class conflict
D. By natural phenomena

A

C. By economic struggle and class conflict

198
Q

What is the philosophical foundation that influenced Marx and Engels’ dialectical materialism?
A. Kantian ethics
B. Hegelian dialectic
C. Rousseau’s social contract
D. Utilitarianism

A

B. Hegelian dialectic

199
Q

How does socialism primarily differ from communism in terms of public ownership?
A. Socialism socializes only production, while communism socializes both production and consumption
B. Socialism promotes total individual ownership
C. Communism avoids any public ownership
D. Socialism avoids any economic regulation

A

A. Socialism socializes only production, while communism socializes both production and consumption

200
Q

Which revolution in 1917 contributed to the view of socialism as a stage between capitalism and communism?
A. The French Revolution
B. The American Revolution
C. The Bolshevik Revolution
D. The Industrial Revolution

A

C. The Bolshevik Revolution

201
Q

What are the three core characteristics of socialism?
A. Military strength, individualism, and social welfare
B. Public ownership of production, social welfare systems, and an intention of abundance, equality, and sharing
C. Private ownership, minimal government, and competitive markets
D. Economic growth, social hierarchy, and consumerism

A

B. Public ownership of production, social welfare systems, and an intention of abundance, equality, and sharing

202
Q

What is the relationship between Marxism and socialism?
A. Not all socialists are Marxists, but all Marxists are socialists
B. All socialists are Marxists
C. Marxism rejects socialism entirely
D. Marxism is a form of pure capitalism

A

A. Not all socialists are Marxists, but all Marxists are socialists

203
Q

How did the Bolshevik Revolution influence the perception of communism?
A. Communism was seen as a form of liberal democracy
B. Communists were referred to as socialists who support Bolshevism and Marxism–Leninism
C. Communism was regarded as a form of pure capitalism
D. Communism was strictly separated from socialism

A

B. Communists were referred to as socialists who support Bolshevism and Marxism–Leninism

204
Q

Since when has communism been distinguished from socialism?
A. Since the early 1900s
B. Since the 1920s
C. Since the 1840s
D. Since the French Revolution

A

C. Since the 1840s

205
Q

What term did Karl Marx use to describe a post-capitalist society, in addition to “communism”?
A. The realm of political order
B. Positive humanism
C. Individualist society
D. Free market socialism

A

B. Positive humanism

206
Q

Which of the following best describes a socialist society?
A. A society where the means of production are controlled by private individuals
B. A society where the means of production, distribution, and exchange are controlled by the community rather than private individuals
C. A society where all wealth is concentrated in the hands of business owners
D. A society based on absolute monarchy

A

B. A society where the means of production, distribution, and exchange are controlled by the community rather than private individuals

207
Q

What is the ultimate goal of a communist society?
A. A society where wealth is concentrated among a few powerful families
B. A stateless, moneyless, and classless society
C. A society where power is held by a strong authoritarian leader
D. A society where the economy is regulated by multinational corporations

A

B. A stateless, moneyless, and classless society

208
Q

Which statement reflects a key similarity between communism and socialism?
A. Both ideologies advocate for a free-market economy
B. Both grew out of opposition to the exploitation of workers during the Industrial Revolution
C. Both require no government involvement in economic planning
D. Both support individual ownership of the means of production

A

B. Both grew out of opposition to the exploitation of workers during the Industrial Revolution

209
Q

How does economic planning typically function under both communism and socialism?
A. Privately-owned businesses decide on supply and demand
B. Economic planning is primarily controlled by the central government or collective organizations
C. Foreign corporations are responsible for setting economic policy
D. The economy is allowed to operate without any regulation

A

B. Economic planning is primarily controlled by the central government or collective organizations

210
Q

How are people compensated in a purely socialist society?
A. Based on the needs determined by the government
B. Based on their level of individual contribution to the economy
C. Through a system of private rewards
D. Through donations from non-profit organizations

A

B. Based on their level of individual contribution to the economy

211
Q

What historical period contributed to the rise of communism and socialism?
A. The Middle Ages
B. The Renaissance
C. The Industrial Revolution
D. The Digital Age

A

C. The Industrial Revolution

212
Q

What is a primary difference between communism and socialism in terms of compensation?
A. Under communism, individuals are compensated based on private business decisions
B. Under socialism, individuals are compensated based on needs only
C. Under communism, individuals are provided for based on needs, while under socialism, they are compensated based on individual contribution
D. Under both systems, compensation is solely determined by market forces

A

C. Under communism, individuals are provided for based on needs, while under socialism, they are compensated based on individual contribution

213
Q

Why do both communism and socialism advocate for government or collective control over the production of goods and services?
A. To increase competition between private businesses
B. To maximize profits for business owners
C. To reduce exploitation and ensure fair distribution of resources
D. To establish a ruling elite based on wealth

A

C. To reduce exploitation and ensure fair distribution of resources

214
Q

How does the idea of government-provided necessities fit into a pure communist society?
A. The government provides food, clothing, and housing based on the perceived needs of each individual
B. The government allows individuals to provide for themselves with minimal assistance
C. The government takes no role in providing necessities to the people
D. The government focuses only on luxury goods and services

A

A. The government provides food, clothing, and housing based on the perceived needs of each individual

215
Q

Why might socialism be seen as distinct from communism regarding individual effort?
A. Socialism rejects any form of reward for individual effort
B. Socialism allows compensation based on individual contributions, rewarding effort and innovation
C. Socialism does not permit any form of economic planning
D. Socialism prioritizes wealth accumulation for the elite only

A

B. Socialism allows compensation based on individual contributions, rewarding effort and innovation

216
Q

What does Hegel’s dialectic process describe?
A. A linear progression with no conflict or opposition
B. A process in which an opposing pair integrates at a higher level in a new form
C. A rejection of all previous ideas to create something entirely new
D. A cyclical process with no progression

A

B. A process in which an opposing pair integrates at a higher level in a new form

217
Q

What are the three stages in Hegel’s dialectic?
A. Synthesis, Solution, Integration
B. Thesis, Argument, Conclusion
C. Thesis, Antithesis, Synthesis
D. Conflict, Resolution, Compromise

A

C. Thesis, Antithesis, Synthesis

218
Q

How does Hegel view the role of God’s idea in history?
A. God’s idea remains unchanging and unrelated to historical events
B. God’s idea drives the unfolding of history through divinely inspired ideas
C. History is random and has no relation to divine concepts
D. God’s idea hinders the development of human societies

A

B. God’s idea drives the unfolding of history through divinely inspired ideas

219
Q

How does Marx’s interpretation of the dialectic differ from Hegel’s?
A. Marx believes in a spiritual basis for historical changes, while Hegel sees them as materialistic
B. Marx sees history as a progression driven by material conditions rather than divine ideas
C. Hegel emphasizes economic factors while Marx focuses on abstract ideas
D. Marx rejects the notion of a thesis, antithesis, and synthesis

A

B. Marx sees history as a progression driven by material conditions rather than divine ideas

220
Q

What is a key difference between Hegel’s dialectic and Marx’s dialectical materialism?
A. Hegel’s dialectic is based on materialism, while Marx’s is based on spiritualism
B. Hegel’s dialectic is rooted in spiritual progression, while Marx’s dialectic is inspired by material conditions
C. Both Hegel and Marx reject the idea of a thesis, antithesis, and synthesis
D. Marx focuses only on divine concepts while Hegel rejects them entirely

A

B. Hegel’s dialectic is rooted in spiritual progression, while Marx’s dialectic is inspired by material conditions

221
Q

How does the concept of synthesis function within Hegel’s dialectic?
A. It erases both thesis and antithesis completely
B. It integrates both thesis and antithesis into a new form at a higher level
C. It separates thesis from antithesis entirely
D. It diminishes the value of both thesis and antithesis

A

B. It integrates both thesis and antithesis into a new form at a higher level

222
Q

How does Hegel view the course of history?
A. As static and unchanging
B. As a struggle between divinely inspired ideas that shape political and social change
C. As unrelated to any divine concepts or inspiration
D. As chaotic and without any guiding principles

A

B. As a struggle between divinely inspired ideas that shape political and social change

223
Q

In what way did Marx adapt the dialectic for his theory of dialectical materialism?
A. Marx saw dialectical materialism as driven by human emotions rather than material needs
B. Marx believed material conditions and economic structures, not divine ideas, drive social changes and revolutions
C. Marx’s dialectic emphasized the importance of religious concepts over material wealth
D. Marx rejected the idea of dialectics entirely in favor of strict idealism

A

B. Marx believed material conditions and economic structures, not divine ideas, drive social changes and revolutions

224
Q

What kind of progression does Marx suggest through dialectical materialism?
A. From capitalism back to feudalism
B. From a primitive society to a capitalist society without any further change
C. From primitive society to feudalism, capitalism, and eventually a new mode of production through revolution
D. A cyclical return to earlier modes of production

A

C. From primitive society to feudalism, capitalism, and eventually a new mode of production through revolution

225
Q

What is the primary basis for the production of goods and services in a capitalist economy?
A. Centralized government planning
B. Religious mandates
C. Supply and demand in the general market
D. Charitable organizations

A

C. Supply and demand in the general market

226
Q

Which of the following best describes capitalism?
A. An economic system where the government owns all means of production
B. An economic system based on private ownership of the means of production and profit-driven competition
C. A system where goods are distributed based on need
D. A system that emphasizes collective ownership and community-driven initiatives

A

B. An economic system based on private ownership of the means of production and profit-driven competition

227
Q

What historical systems did capitalism develop from in Europe?
A. Communism and socialism
B. Feudalism and mercantilism
C. Industrialism and democracy
D. Command economy and planned economy

A

B. Feudalism and mercantilism

228
Q

Why is the enforcement of private property rights essential in a capitalist system?
A. To ensure equal distribution of wealth
B. To encourage public ownership of resources
C. To provide incentives for investment and the productive use of capital
D. To prevent industrial development

A

C. To provide incentives for investment and the productive use of capital

229
Q

What does ‘crony capitalism’ refer to?
A. An ideal form of capitalism with no government intervention
B. A variant of capitalism involving government intervention favoring businesses through permits, grants, and tax breaks
C. A capitalism model focused on the elimination of all competition
D. A system where all businesses are owned by a single powerful corporation

A

B. A variant of capitalism involving government intervention favoring businesses through permits, grants, and tax breaks

230
Q

Which economic system is known to have significantly expanded industrialization and consumer goods availability?
A. Feudalism
B. Mercantilism
C. Capitalism
D. Communism

A

C. Capitalism

231
Q

How does capitalism view the pursuit of self-interest in relation to the social good?
A. It views self-interest as harmful to social progress
B. It believes that the pursuit of self-interest will automatically maximize social good
C. It discourages self-interest in favor of community interests
D. It treats self-interest as secondary to religious beliefs

A

B. It believes that the pursuit of self-interest will automatically maximize social good

232
Q

In contrast to capitalism, how does socialism view individual interest?
A. Individual interest is considered less important than social conscience and community good
B. It promotes the maximization of individual wealth
C. It considers individual interest as a reflection of divine will
D. It sees individual interest as identical to the public good

A

A. Individual interest is considered less important than social conscience and community good

233
Q

Which concept is a hallmark of capitalism but not socialism?
A. Centralized planning by the state
B. Private ownership of the means of production
C. Collective ownership of resources
D. Elimination of competition

A

B. Private ownership of the means of production

234
Q

How do capitalism and socialism differ in their view of how the ‘social good’ is achieved?
A. Capitalism requires government intervention to maximize social good, while socialism minimizes government involvement
B. Capitalism achieves social good through individuals pursuing self-interest, while socialism achieves it by suppressing selfish interests
C. Capitalism and socialism both maximize social good through self-interest
D. Capitalism emphasizes collective ownership, while socialism encourages privatization

A

B. Capitalism achieves social good through individuals pursuing self-interest, while socialism achieves it by suppressing selfish interests

235
Q

How is the social good achieved in a capitalist system?
A. By prioritizing collective interests over individual gain
B. Through central planning by the government
C. By individuals pursuing their own self-interest, which maximizes the good of the whole
D. By limiting individual freedom to ensure equality

A

C. By individuals pursuing their own self-interest, which maximizes the good of the whole

236
Q

How does socialism propose to maximize individual interest?
A. By encouraging self-interest above all else
B. By suppressing selfish interests in favor of community well-being and social conscience
C. Through competition in a free-market economy
D. By allowing unrestricted private ownership of resources

A

B. By suppressing selfish interests in favor of community well-being and social conscience

237
Q

What is considered a hallmark of capitalism in relation to social good?
A. Social good is seen as something that requires government intervention to achieve
B. Social good is automatic when each person focuses on their own self-interest
C. Social good can only be achieved through collective ownership
D. Social good is irrelevant in a capitalist system

A

B. Social good is automatic when each person focuses on their own self-interest

238
Q

Which principle is emphasized in socialism over capitalism?
A. The cultivation of a strong social conscience
B. The maximization of self-interest
C. Competition between individuals
D. The importance of profit-driven motives

A

A. The cultivation of a strong social conscience

239
Q

How does capitalism view the role of self-interest in relation to the public good?
A. Self-interest is discouraged to promote equality
B. Self-interest is believed to ultimately harm the public good
C. Self-interest is essential, as it is thought to automatically benefit the public good
D. Self-interest is not a significant consideration

A

C. Self-interest is essential, as it is thought to automatically benefit the public good

240
Q

What is Adam Smith’s Wealth of Nations (1776) known for?
A. Laying the foundations for modern environmental science
B. Being a key work in the development of modern economic theory
C. Advocating for government-controlled economic systems
D. Opposing the concept of self-interest in economics

A

B. Being a key work in the development of modern economic theory

241
Q

What economic principle did Adam Smith describe as the “Invisible Hand”?
A. The power of monopolies over free markets
B. The unobservable force that helps supply and demand reach equilibrium in a free market
C. Government intervention in regulating prices
D. The influence of charitable donations on the economy

A

B. The unobservable force that helps supply and demand reach equilibrium in a free market

242
Q

Which concept is Adam Smith credited with developing that describes specialization in production?
A. Labor surplus
B. Division of labor
C. Supply chain management
D. Centralized planning

A

B. Division of labor

243
Q

What does the term “laissez-faire” mean in the context of Adam Smith’s economic philosophy?
A. Government-controlled economy
B. Economy free from government intervention
C. Regulation of markets by foreign entities
D. Control of production by workers

A

B. Economy free from government intervention

244
Q

Which title is often attributed to Adam Smith due to his contributions to economic thought?
A. Father of Modern Psychology
B. Father of Environmentalism
C. Father of Capitalism
D. Father of Political Science

A

C. Father of Capitalism

245
Q

Who wrote the book Wealth of Nations, which was published in 1776?
A. Karl Marx
B. Adam Smith
C. John Locke
D. David Ricardo

A

B. Adam Smith

246
Q

What is the origin of the term ‘democracy’?
A. It is derived from Latin words meaning ‘freedom of the people’
B. It comes from Greek terms meaning ‘rule by the people’
C. It originated in ancient Rome as a term for political power
D. It was first used during the Enlightenment

A

B. It comes from Greek terms meaning ‘rule by the people’

247
Q

In Classical Athens, which groups were excluded from political participation?
A. Only foreign citizens
B. Only landowners
C. Slaves and women
D. All citizens

A

C. Slaves and women

248
Q

Which of the following is a fundamental principle of democracy?
A. The rule of a single powerful individual
B. Power vested in the elite class
C. Supreme power vested in the people or their elected agents under a free electoral system
D. Central control by the military

A

C. Supreme power vested in the people or their elected agents under a free electoral system

249
Q

What movement was essential to the development of democracy in the 19th and 20th centuries?
A. The rise of monarchies
B. The enfranchisement movement
C. The industrial revolution
D. The expansion of aristocracy

A

B. The enfranchisement movement

250
Q

Which of the following does democracy, as a form of government, espouse as core values?
A. Centralized decision-making and limited speech
B. Freedom of assembly, inclusiveness, equality, and minority rights
C. Absolute control by the elite and restricted public participation
D. Unrestricted military authority and secret ballots

A

B. Freedom of assembly, inclusiveness, equality, and minority rights

251
Q

When did democracy first appear as a political system in Greek city-states?
A. 1st century BCE
B. 10th century BCE
C. 5th century BCE
D. 15th century CE

A

C. 5th century BCE

252
Q

According to Larry Diamond, what are the four key elements of democracy?
A. Wealth distribution, elected aristocracy, limited assembly rights, and monarchy
B. Free and fair elections, active participation, human rights protection, and rule of law
C. Military power, national unity, strict class divisions, and restricted suffrage
D. Voting restrictions, majority rule only, limited civil rights, and corporate power

A

B. Free and fair elections, active participation, human rights protection, and rule of law

253
Q

What is a defining difference between substantive democracy and procedural democracy?
A. Substantive democracy focuses on the mechanics of voting, while procedural democracy focuses on laws
B. Substantive democracy ensures core democratic principles are met, while procedural democracy focuses on voting processes alone
C. Procedural democracy emphasizes absolute monarchy, while substantive democracy emphasizes civil rights
D. Procedural democracy promotes social equality, while substantive democracy focuses on economic power

A

B. Substantive democracy ensures core democratic principles are met, while procedural democracy focuses on voting processes alone

254
Q

Who said, “Fascism, which was not afraid to call itself reactionary… does not hesitate to call itself illiberal and anti-liberal”?
A. Adolf Hitler
B. Benito Mussolini
C. Francisco Franco
D. Joseph Stalin

A

B. Benito Mussolini

255
Q

When did fascism first emerge as a political ideology in Europe?
A. Early 18th century
B. Late 19th century
C. Early 20th century
D. Mid-20th century

A

C. Early 20th century

256
Q

Which of the following best describes fascism as an ideology?
A. A political movement that promotes individual autonomy above all else
B. A form of extreme ideology that celebrates the nation or the race as an organic community transcending all other loyalties
C. A system that values the separation of powers and democratic principles
D. A philosophy focused solely on economic growth and free markets

A

B. A form of extreme ideology that celebrates the nation or the race as an organic community transcending all other loyalties

257
Q

How does fascism generally view individualism and materialism?
A. As ideals to be embraced
B. As signs of moral decay to be purged
C. As components of a strong society
D. As unimportant aspects of culture

A

B. As signs of moral decay to be purged

258
Q

What does fascism emphasize as a source of national rebirth?
A. Economic development
B. A spiritual revolution and the regenerative power of violence
C. Military alliances with other nations
D. Intellectual movements

A

B. A spiritual revolution and the regenerative power of violence

259
Q

Which of the following ideologies is fascism typically hostile to?
A. Conservatism
B. Marxism
C. Liberalism
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

260
Q

In fascist ideology, what is often celebrated as symbols of strength?
A. Individual rights and autonomy
B. Masculinity, youth, and mystical unity
C. Free markets and democratic principles
D. Scientific advancements and education

A

B. Masculinity, youth, and mystical unity

261
Q

How does fascism typically approach the structure of society?
A. It supports democratic pluralism and representative government
B. It seeks to forcibly subordinate all spheres of society to a totalitarian state
C. It promotes a classless society
D. It encourages free-market capitalism without any government intervention

A

B. It seeks to forcibly subordinate all spheres of society to a totalitarian state

262
Q

What is the fascist stance on the concepts of class struggle and workers’ internationalism?
A. They are embraced as means to achieve unity
B. They are viewed as threats to national or racial unity
C. They are fundamental components of fascist ideology
D. They are considered integral to fascist social structure

A

B. They are viewed as threats to national or racial unity

263
Q

How does fascism often depict “the people” in its populist appeal?
A. As pitted against perceived enemies or oppressors
B. As fundamentally individualistic
C. As a divided group with differing interests
D. As primarily interested in economic prosperity

A

A. As pitted against perceived enemies or oppressors

264
Q

What is the primary way fascism differs from Marxism, despite borrowing some concepts from it?
A. Fascism focuses on class struggle, while Marxism does not
B. Fascism prioritizes national or racial unity over class unity
C. Fascism supports workers’ internationalism
D. Fascism emphasizes economic redistribution more than Marxism

A

B. Fascism prioritizes national or racial unity over class unity

265
Q

Who said, “The great masses of people… will more easily fall victims to a big lie than to a small one”?
A. Benito Mussolini
B. Joseph Stalin
C. Adolf Hitler
D. Francisco Franco

A

C. Adolf Hitler

266
Q

Which elements does fascism combine in its approach to politics?
A. Individualism and collectivism
B. Decentralization and direct democracy
C. Populism and elitism
D. Socialism and capitalism

A

C. Populism and elitism

267
Q

In what way does fascism combine both populist and elitist elements in its approach to politics?
A. By advocating for direct democracy where all people have equal authority
B. By pitting “the people” against perceived enemies in a populist manner, while also embodying authority in a select group or supreme leader in an elitist way
C. By encouraging decentralized governance with no single leader or elite group
D. By rejecting any form of hierarchical authority, favoring collective decision-making instead

A

B. By pitting “the people” against perceived enemies in a populist manner, while also embodying authority in a select group or supreme leader in an elitist way

268
Q

How does fascism differ from socialism in terms of economic control?
A. Socialism relies on private ownership of the means of production, while fascism does not
B. Fascism controls the economy through domination of nominally private owners, while socialism seeks totalitarian control by directly operating the means of production
C. Both fascism and socialism operate under free-market principles
D. Fascism rejects any form of government intervention in the economy

A

B. Fascism controls the economy through domination of nominally private owners, while socialism seeks totalitarian control by directly operating the means of production

269
Q

What is a primary characteristic of socialism regarding economic control?
A. Indirect influence through private sector dominance
B. Totalitarian control over the economy with direct state ownership of the means of production
C. Emphasis on privatization of all industries
D. Complete rejection of any governmental role in the economy

A

B. Totalitarian control over the economy with direct state ownership of the means of production

270
Q

Which of the following leaders was associated with fascism in Italy?
A. Adolf Hitler
B. Juan Perón
C. Benito Mussolini
D. Francisco Franco

A

C. Benito Mussolini

271
Q

Who was the fascist leader in Spain?
A. Hideki Tojo
B. Francisco Franco
C. Juan Perón
D. Adolf Hitler

A

B. Francisco Franco

272
Q

Which fascist leader is associated with Argentina?
A. Hideki Tojo
B. Juan Perón
C. Benito Mussolini
D. Francisco Franco

A

B. Juan Perón

273
Q

Who led the fascist regime in Japan during the early 20th century?
A. Benito Mussolini
B. Hideki Tojo
C. Adolf Hitler
D. Juan Perón

A

B. Hideki Tojo

274
Q

What are some positive aspects of nationalism?
A. Fostering increased xenophobia and suspicion of foreign influences
B. Limiting economic growth to maintain traditional values
C. Strengthening democratic participation, promoting self-determination, and discouraging imperialistic pursuits
D. Supporting class-based political movements over national unity

A

C. Strengthening democratic participation, promoting self-determination, and discouraging imperialistic pursuits

275
Q

Which of the following is a negative consequence of nationalism?
A. It can result in greater national unity, promoting shared identity, and loyalty
B. It reinforces social cohesion, through shared cultural values, and collective pride
C. It may foster xenophobia, intolerance, and even lead to the oppression of certain groups
D. It creates a sense of pride, belonging, and solidarity that unites diverse communities

A

C. It may foster xenophobia, intolerance, and even lead to the oppression of certain groups

276
Q

How does nationalism contribute to a strong political identity?
A. By emphasizing economic privatization, free-market policies, and individual success
B. Through promoting insular policies, discouraging international cooperation, and focusing on national priorities
C. By building a sense of loyalty to one’s homeland, enhancing self-esteem, and motivating individuals to contribute to their country’s well-being
D. By prioritizing global issues, international concerns, and unity over national interests

A

C. By building a sense of loyalty to one’s homeland, enhancing self-esteem, and motivating individuals to contribute to their country’s well-being

277
Q

Which of the following best describes a disadvantage of nationalism?
A. It encourages cooperative international relations based on shared interests
B. It may lead to an exaggerated sense of national superiority and a belief in a divine mission
C. It strengthens inclusive democratic governance by involving diverse communities
D. It supports policies aimed at promoting equality and global solidarity

A

B. It may lead to an exaggerated sense of national superiority and a belief in a divine mission

278
Q

Which of the following best describes a tangible characteristic of a state?
A. A collective cultural identity shaped by shared ancestry
B. Defined physical boundaries and territorial control
C. A commitment to spiritual unity and national pride
D. The presence of a unified language among citizens

A

B. Defined physical boundaries and territorial control

279
Q

What does the concept of ‘sovereignty’ imply about the nature of a state?
A. The state’s economy is entirely self-sufficient
B. The state has ultimate authority over its own political and legal affairs without external interference
C. The state’s laws are subordinate to international governance structures
D. The state emphasizes cultural ties over political autonomy

A

B. The state has ultimate authority over its own political and legal affairs without external interference

280
Q

Which of the following does NOT fall under the tangible characteristics typically associated with a state?
A. A defined population with citizenship rights
B. Recognition by other states and international organizations
C. A shared historical background
D. An organized system of governance

A

C. A shared historical background

281
Q

What role does diplomatic recognition play in establishing a state’s legitimacy?
A. It symbolizes global support for the state’s economic policies
B. It affirms the state’s sovereignty and acceptance within the international community
C. It promotes the state’s cultural values abroad
D. It grants the state exclusive rights to develop its natural resources

A

B. It affirms the state’s sovereignty and acceptance within the international community

282
Q

Which statement best captures a defining feature of a nation in contrast to a state?
A. A nation is bound by cultural and historical commonalities, often with aspirations for political autonomy
B. A nation must have a defined territory and recognized government to exist
C. A nation is governed by elected officials, while a state has centralized control
D. A nation operates within international law, while a state does not

A

A. A nation is bound by cultural and historical commonalities, often with aspirations for political autonomy

283
Q

How does a nation distinguish itself from other political entities, such as a state?
A. It is characterized by its tangible assets and direct control over its land
B. It exists primarily through the shared values, culture, and collective identity of its people
C. It is required to have a standing military and formal treaties
D. It depends on financial systems rather than cultural connections

A

B. It exists primarily through the shared values, culture, and collective identity of its people

284
Q

Which of the following options best reflects the “intangible” aspects of a nation?
A. A central government and legislative system
B. Established borders and formal institutions
C. A common cultural heritage, language, or religion among its people
D. A structured economic system to ensure resource distribution

A

C. A common cultural heritage, language, or religion among its people

285
Q

Why might a group of people be considered a nation, even if they lack a defined state?
A. They have significant economic influence over neighboring regions
B. They share a strong cultural identity and a desire for political autonomy
C. They possess formal treaties with other recognized states
D. They maintain control over a specific geographic territory

A

B. They share a strong cultural identity and a desire for political autonomy

286
Q

In what way is a nation primarily different from a state?
A. A nation is defined by cultural ties and a sense of collective identity, whereas a state is defined by political sovereignty and territorial boundaries
B. A nation is required to have a military force, while a state is not
C. A nation has the right to international recognition, while a state does not
D. A nation always controls its own resources, while a state relies on alliances

A

A. A nation is defined by cultural ties and a sense of collective identity, whereas a state is defined by political sovereignty and territorial boundaries

287
Q

Which option best encapsulates the ‘soul and spiritual’ essence of a nation?
A. Strong governance and economic self-sufficiency
B. Cultural unity and a shared vision for self-determination
C. A secure, well-defined geographic area
D. A well-established legal system and enforcement mechanisms

A

B. Cultural unity and a shared vision for self-determination

288
Q

Which of the following best describes nationalism?
A. A love for one’s country, focusing on cultural values and beliefs
B. A feeling of admiration for a country’s way of life, rooted in peaceful expression
C. A belief in one’s country’s superiority, often emphasizing cultural unity and heritage
D. An appreciation for diverse global cultures and languages

A

C. A belief in one’s country’s superiority, often emphasizing cultural unity and heritage

289
Q

How does patriotism differ from nationalism in terms of criticism?
A. Patriots tend to view criticism as an opportunity for improvement, while nationalists often see it as an insult
B. Nationalists appreciate constructive criticism, while patriots reject it entirely
C. Patriots typically avoid criticism, while nationalists encourage it
D. Nationalists see criticism as a sign of respect, while patriots view it as offensive

A

A. Patriots tend to view criticism as an opportunity for improvement, while nationalists often see it as an insult

290
Q

Which statement best captures the fundamental distinction between patriotism and nationalism?
A. Patriotism promotes rivalry and resentment, while nationalism is based on affection
B. Patriotism focuses on unity and heritage, while nationalism is rooted in values and beliefs
C. Patriotism expresses love for a country passively, while nationalism actively seeks national interests and dominance
D. Patriotism assumes superiority, while nationalism encourages passive support

A

C. Patriotism expresses love for a country passively, while nationalism actively seeks national interests and dominance

291
Q

According to George Orwell, how is nationalism viewed in relation to peace?
A. As a source of strength for peaceful societies
B. As an expression of admiration for other countries
C. As the worst enemy of peace
D. As a passive force that supports international harmony

A

C. As the worst enemy of peace

292
Q

Which of the following is true about nationalism compared to patriotism?
A. Nationalism is generally based on affection for one’s country, while patriotism emphasizes superiority over other nations
B. Nationalism is rooted in rivalry and resentment, while patriotism is based on affection
C. Nationalism promotes tolerance of differing views, while patriotism rejects them
D. Nationalism expresses a passive love for a country, while patriotism seeks independence and domination

A

B. Nationalism is rooted in rivalry and resentment, while patriotism is based on affection

293
Q

What is a primary characteristic of a patriotic individual?
A. They feel superior to other countries in all respects
B. They express love for their country in an active and political way
C. They express admiration for their way of life but accept that it can be improved
D. They reject criticism of their country as offensive

A

C. They express admiration for their way of life but accept that it can be improved

294
Q

How does patriotism typically manifest, compared to nationalism?
A. Patriotism is associated with rivalry and aggression, while nationalism is peaceful and passive
B. Patriotism involves a sense of unity based on shared heritage, while nationalism is more passive
C. Patriotism is rooted in love and passive support for one’s country, while nationalism is more assertive and politically driven
D. Patriotism requires loyalty to a cultural background, while nationalism promotes values and beliefs

A

C. Patriotism is rooted in love and passive support for one’s country, while nationalism is more assertive and politically driven

295
Q

Which of the following would a nationalist most likely believe?
A. ‘Our country is one of the best, but there is always room for improvement.’
B. ‘Our country is superior to all others in every way.’
C. ‘We should embrace criticism to better ourselves as a nation.’
D. ‘Our cultural diversity makes us strong and unique among other nations.’

A

B. ‘Our country is superior to all others in every way.’

296
Q

What best reflects the perspective of a patriot regarding national values?
A. A belief that national interests justify domination over other countries
B. A commitment to preserving cultural unity and shared heritage
C. A passive admiration for a nation’s values, with openness to constructive criticism
D. A willingness to disregard other nations’ viewpoints in favor of national loyalty

A

C. A passive admiration for a nation’s values, with openness to constructive criticism

297
Q

Which of the following best encapsulates the difference between a patriot and a nationalist?
A. A patriot focuses on cultural unity, while a nationalist emphasizes moral values
B. A patriot’s love is based on admiration, while a nationalist’s love is rooted in superiority
C. A patriot promotes rivalry, while a nationalist seeks peace
D. A patriot expresses love for their country actively, while a nationalist is passive

A

B. A patriot’s love is based on admiration, while a nationalist’s love is rooted in superiority

298
Q

Who described nationalism as ‘the worst enemy of peace’?
A. Winston Churchill
B. George Orwell
C. John F. Kennedy
D. Albert Einstein

A

B. George Orwell

299
Q

Why were the Soviets suspicious of the U.S. and the U.K. following World War II?
A. Due to the delay in opening the second front during the war
B. Because of their refusal to share nuclear technology
C. Due to Stalin’s goodwill gestures
D. Because the U.S. provided aid to Nazi Germany

A

A. Due to the delay in opening the second front during the war

300
Q

What misconception did Franklin D. Roosevelt (FDR) have about Soviet leader Joseph Stalin?
A. FDR believed Stalin intended to invade the U.S.
B. FDR thought goodwill gestures could win over Stalin
C. FDR expected Stalin to declare war on the U.K.
D. FDR believed Stalin was a firm ally of the Nazis

A

B. FDR thought goodwill gestures could win over Stalin

301
Q

What was the key promise made at the Yalta Conference that was not realized?
A. The division of Germany into occupation zones
B. Free elections in Eastern Europe
C. The formation of NATO
D. The creation of the United Nations

A

B. Free elections in Eastern Europe