Systems - Equipment Flashcards
1
Q
What is the ECAM hierarchy?
A
Level 3 Red: warning requiring immediate action, CRC, master warning light
Level 2 Amber: caution requiring crew awareness but not immediate action, single chime, master caution
Level 1 Amber: monitoring required (loss of redundancy), no chime or caution light
White: advisory
Green: normal system operation
2
Q
What are the two push button positions?
A
- In: ON / auto / override
2. Out: OFF / manual
3
Q
If the cockpit door is locked and there is a light is illuminated on the overhead control panel, what does that indicate? (DSC-52-30-20-10)
A
If one of the strike status lights is illuminated the locking latch is faulty
4
Q
What are the 3 positions for the cockpit door switch on the center pedestal? DSC-52-30-20-10
A
UNLOCK: switch must be pulled and maintained in the unlock position until the door is pushed open
NORM: All latches are locked; EMERGENCY access is possible for the cabin crew
LOCK: The door is locked; emergency access, the buzzer, and the keypad are inhibited for a preselected time
*UNLOCK also overrides and resets previous selection
5
Q
In case of electrical failure, what happens to the cockpit door? DSC-52-30-20-10
A
It automatically unlocks but remains closed
6
Q
What happens if the OPEN light is flashing on the center pedestal? DSC-52-30-20-10
A
The cabin crew has started an emergency access procedure. If there is no reaction from the flight crew, the door will unlock at the end of the adjustable time delay (15-120 seconds)
7
Q
What does the FAULT light indicate on the center pedestal? DSC-52-30-20-10
A
A system failure has been identified; check strike and pressure sensor status on the overhead panel
8
Q
What does the pressure sensor status light indicate? DSC-52-30-20-10
A
Two differential pressure sensors enable rapid pressure variation detection in order to command simultaneous opening of latches when a defined pressure drop is detected
If the light is off, it is operating normally
If the light is on, the associated sensor is faulty
9
Q
What are QRH procedures under 02.01/02.02
A
- 01 is the system reset general table
02. 02 are system reset procedures
10
Q
When is it allowed for the crew to attempt a system reset?
A
The flight crew can attempt a system reset only when:
- An ECAM / OEB / FCOM / QRH procedure
- The system reset table permits (after consulting mx)
11
Q
How many times can you perform a system reset procedure?
A
Once unless indicated otherwise
12
Q
What circuit breakers are in the cockpit?
A
5 total: one for each seat and one for the door
13
Q
What is an ADIR?
A
Air Data and Inertial Reference System supplies temperature, anemometric, barometric, and inertial parameters to the EFIS and other systems
14
Q
How many ADIRS are on the 330?
A
Three identical ADIRS, each divided into two parts either of which can work separately in case of failure in the other: ADR / IR
15
Q
What information does the ADR part of the ADIRS supply?
A
Barometric altitude, airspeed, Mach, angle of attack, temperature, and over speed warnings
16
Q
What does the IR part of the ADIRS supply?
A
The Inertial Reference supplies attitude, flight path vector, track, heading, accelerations, angular rates, ground speed, vertical speed, and aircraft position
17
Q
What are the 3 selection modes for the ADIRS on the control panel?
A
NAV, ATT, OFF
18
Q
What types of sensors make up the ADIRS?
A
PASTA Pitot probes- 3 Angle of attack sensors- 3 Static pressure probes- 6 Total air temperature probes- 2 All electrically heated to prevent icing
19
Q
What is NAV mode for the ADIRS?
A
Normal mode supplies full inertial data to the aircraft systems
20
Q
What is ATT mode for the ADIRS?
A
IR only mode supplies heading and attitude only.
The heading must be entered through the MCDU and reset every 10 minutes.
21
Q
What does it mean if the IR pb sw illuminates?
A
OFF: inertial data output is disconnected
FAULT LIGHT:
1. Steady: the respective IR is lost
2. Flashing: attitude / heading can be recovered in ATT mode
22
Q
Why is there a NORTH REF pb sw?
A
To switch between magnetic / true heading
Pushed in: TRUE illuminates
23
Q
What is the preferred way of initializing / aligning the ADIRS?
A
The preferred method is to use the GPS position. Less than 1 minute after setting the ADIRS to NAV, the INIT page displays the GPS position without the prompt
24
Q
What is the alternative method to initialize / align the ADIRS?
A
By entering a CO RTE or FROM/TO the align prompt will appear and can be forced to send when GPS coordinates are not available
25
How long does aligning the ADIRS take?
Normal alignment is 5-10 minutes - cleans ground speed and drift
Extreme north or south can take 17 minutes
Fast alignment 30 seconds - only cleans ground speed
26
When we leave the aircraft do we turn off the ADIRS?
No- it provides info to calculate density of fuel for refueling but performing an alignment on startup is acceptable and a normal procedure.
WHERE IS THIS IN THE FCOM?
27
How long can we navigate on IRS only?
6.2 hours and then they need to be realigned ops spec B036
28
When does the ON BAT light on the overhead panel illuminate on the ADIRS overhead panel? DSC-34-10-10-20
The ON BAT light illuminates for a few seconds and the beginning of a complete IRS alignment. It will not turn on for a fast alignment
It will also illuminate when the aircraft battery supplies at least one IRS
NOTE: on the ground and battery power only: an external horn will sound and the ADIRU light will illuminate in amber in the service interphone bay panel
29
What is the correct sequence to initiate the ADIRS?
1-2-3 for muscle memory
30
What is GPIRS?
A computed/mixed IRS/GPS position
Each IRS can independently select their GPS source
The FMS selects on side, 3, then cross-side
31
What happens when the GPIRS data is inaccurate?
If the GPIRS data does not comply with the integrity criterion, the FMS will reject the GPS and use the radio position update (DME/VOR/LOC)
32
What are the aircraft fire protection systems?
Fire and overheat detection / extinguishing systems for the engines / APU
Smoke detection / extinguishing for cargo / lavs
Portable fire extinguishers for the cockpit and pax cabin
33
Explain the fire detection for the APU / engines
Detection loops and a Fire Detection Unit
Fire FDU
Two identical gas detection loops mounted in parallel that consist of 5 sensing elements for each engine located in the pylon nacelle, the engine core, compressor and fan sections, and one sensing element in the APU. When a sensing element is subjected to heat it sends a signal to the FDU. Once a preset temp is reached it triggers the fire warning system.
34
What happens if there is a break or loss of electrical supply to the fire loops?
A fault in one loop will not affect the fire warning system
35
What happens if the system detects an APU fire while on the ground?
The system shuts down the APU and automatically discharges the bottle
36
What happens when the APU FIRE pb sw is pressed? (7)
1. Shuts down the APU
2. Silences the aural warning
3. Arms the squib on the APU fire extinguisher
4. Closed the low-pressure fuel valve
5. Shuts off the APU fuel pump
6. Closes the APU bleed valve, x bleed valve
7. Deactivates the APU generator
37
What happens when the TEST pb switch on the APU overhead panel is pressed?
1. Continuous repetitive chime (crc)
2. 2 master warning lights
3. ECAM APU FIRE
4. APU FIRE pb red
5. AGENT pb - squib / discharge
38
What is the purpose of the AGENT pb sw and corresponding illuminations on the APU overhead fire panel?
Pushing the agent pb discharges the squib
SQUIB illuminates white when the squib is armed by pressing the APU FIRE pb
DISCH illuminates amber when the squib has lost pressure
39
How does the turbulence damper work?
The PRIMS compute a damping command which is added to the normal law command for the elevator and the yaw damper. It is automatically monitored and will shut off when a failure is detected.
40
When is the turbulence damper active?
1. In flight
2. Speed greater than 200 kias
3. AP engaged or Normal law active
41
What is the basic principle of fly-by-wire?
Electrically actuated, hydraulically activated
42
What are the basic principle and limitations of normal law?
Normal law will prevent excessive maneuvers and exceedance of the safe envelope in pitch and roll axes. The rudder has no protection.
43
Explain the PRIMs
3 PRIM computers are used for normal, alternate and direct control laws; speed brake and ground spoiler control; speed protection; rudder travel limit
44
Explain the SECs
The SECs are secondary computers and control direct laws including yaw damper, rudder trim, and rudder travel limit in the event the PRIMs aren’t functioning
45
How many flight control computers need to be working to land?
Any one of the SECs or PRIMs is capable of controlling the aircraft and assuring a safe flight / landing
46
Where is fuel storage?
```
Wings, center section and trimmable
Horizontal Stabilizer (THS)
```
47
Describe the inner fuel tank
Each inner tank contains one collector cell that maintains a fuel reservoir for the fuel booster pumps and provides negative G protection for the engines. It is divided into two parts via a SPLIT valve that normally remains open and is used as a single tank
48
What fuel is available after the Split Valve is closed?
The fuel contained in the AFT section of the inner tanks is still usable via standby pumps
49
What is the fuel transfer sequence?
1. Center tank transfers to inner tanks via pumps
2. Trim tank transfers to inner
3. Outer fuel tank transfers to inner tanks via gravity
NOTE: the trim tank may transfer earlier for CG control
50
What are the inner tank split pb sw?
Two guarded switches for the L and R inner tanks have three commands:
OFF: dark / no illumination - normal operation: split valve is open and inner tank is used as a single tank
ON: amber light: valve is closing and inner tank is split in two divisions. Fuel may be used from either division.
SHUT: blue- indicates the valve is shut
51
Describe the process to jettison fuel
QRH 19.02A
Manually activated by two guarded push button switches on the over head panel.
1. All pumps on
2. Crossfeed valve opens
3. Jettison valves open
4. Fuel transfers from center to trim / outer to inner
52
What stops fuel jettison?
1. Crew initiated
2. Both inner tank low level sensors on one side become dry
3. The input preset level on the MCDU is reached
4. Combined inner tank fuel quantity less than 22,000 lbs
NOTE: the standby pumps continue to run anytime the JETTISON buttons are ON
53
Which toggle selection do we use to set the EVAC and why?
CAPT to ensure the FAs cannot activate the evacuation alert audio
54
What is the EMER GEN TEST pb sw?
Maintenance use only
55
When does the battery discharge warning alert sound?
1. External power OFF
2. Generators not running
3. BAT on auto- will stop after 5 mins
56
What are the 5 EGPWS modes?
1. Excessive rate of descent
2. Excessive terrain closure rate
3. Altitude loss after TO/GA
4. Terrain clearance not sufficient if not in landing configuration
5. Excessive descent below the glide slope
57
What is the TERR pb sw on the GPWS overhead panel?
Inhibits the terrain awareness display and the terrain clearance floor but does not effect EGPWS modes 1-5.
Relays data from the terrain database
58
What does the SYS pb sw on the EGPWS over head panel do?
OFF :Inhibits EGPWS modes 1-5 but does not inhibit terrain warnings from the terrain database
FAULT: Amber light illuminates with an ECAM caution if modes 1-5 fail
NOTE: if ILS 1 fails, only mode 5 is inhibited and the FAULT light / warning will not activate
59
What does the G/S pb sw on the GPWS overhead panel do?
It inhibits mode 5 only and is only used during failures ie unreliable glide slope
60
What does the Flap Mode pb sw on the GPWS overhead panel do?
Inhibits TOO LOW FLAPS mode 4 to avoid nuisance warning when landing with reduced flaps setting (1 or 2)
When single engine landing flaps 3, we program the MCDU for flaps 3 and therefore we do not need to inhibit the warning
61
What does the PULL UP/GPWS button on the main instruments panel do?
PULL UP illuminates to give a visual indication with the audible warning - when briefly pressed with the light in it will temporarily inhibit the Glideslope mode 5 alert
GPWS will illuminate amber when any mode is activated for a visual indication of the warning
62
What is the RCDR?
The data and voice recorder automatically operate continuously after first engine start. Can be forced ON by the crew but the light will extinguish and the recorders will operate automatically after engine start
63
What is the preflight requirement for the crew oxygen system?
Check the ECAM oxy pressure indication. On the ground an amber half frame appears when oxygen pressure is less than 1000 PSI and the crew must confirm that the remaining quantity is sufficient according to the minimum crew oxygen pressure table in the limitations section.
64
What does the MASK MAN guarded switch do?
Cabin oxygen masks are designed to automatically release when the cabin pressure exceeds 14,000, however this switch allows for manual override. When the masks are released the PA broadcasts prerecorded instructions
65
When would you use the MASK MAN guarded switch?
During the Emergency Descent QRH procedure
66
What does the SYS ON light on the OXYGEN panel indicate?
The light illuminates white when the masks are deployed
67
What does the CREW SUPPLY pb sw on the overhead panel do?
This button closes a supply solenoid valve allowing the crew to shut off the distribution system
68
What are the 3 levels of oxygen distribution via the crew masks?
N: The masks provide a mixture of ambient air and oxygen dependent on cabin altitude; the higher the altitude the greater the saturation of oxygen until it reaches 100%
100%: the masks provide 100% oxygen
EMERGENCY: creates overpressure that eliminates condensation / fogging, and prevents smoke, smell, or ashes from entering the mask
69
During the cockpit O2 mask preflight, the pressure drops rapidly below 800 PSI, what do you do?
Contact maintenance
70
What are the 5 types of calls from the CALL overhead panel?
1. ALL - CALL ALL CAPT appears on all FA panels
2. MECH - external horn sounds and COCKPIT CALL blue light illuminates on external power panel until manually extinguished
3. CAB REST - lower crew rest
4. EMER ON - guarded pb sw CALL PRIO CAPT appears on all FA panels
5. PURS - distinct chime though out the cabin for the FFA
71
What does the RAIN RPLNT button do?
push the button once for rain repellent fluid, do not use on a dry windshield
72
Explain the automatic functions of the SEAT BELT and NO SMOKING toggle switches
Each switch has 3 positions: ON, AUTO, OFF
In AUTO, signs will illuminate then landing gear or flaps / slats are extended
The NO SMOKING light is hardwired ON and we leave the toggle switch in AUTO. When toggled to ON the EXIT lights illuminate and will drain the batteries if left in this position and all other power is off.
73
Briefly explain the APU
The APU is a self contained unit making the aircraft independent of external pneumatic and electrical power supple. It supplies bleed air for engine start and the pneumatic system, and during take off supplies bleed air for the PACKS to avoid a reduction in the engine thrust.
74
What is the ECB?
The Electronic Control Box is a full authority digital electronic controller that performs the APU system logic:
1. Sequences and monitors the start
2. Monitors speed and temperature
3. Monitors bleed air
4. Sequences manual or emergency shut down
75
How does the APU get fuel?
The ECB controls fuel flow from the trim tank transfer line
| left collector side inner tank, trim pipe, trim tank
76
What happens when if the APU BLEED is left ON during flight?
The ECB will automatically close the APU bleed valve at 25,000 while climbing and reopen at 23,000 when descending
77
What are the 4 ways to shut down the APU?
1. Overhead control panel
2. APU Fire handle
3. APU SHUT OFF pb on the inter phone panel
4. APU EMER SHUT DOWN pb on refueling/ refueling panel
78
When will the APU auto shutdown on the ground?
* *FIRE** - squibs discharge automatically
1. Overspeed
2. Certain critical ECB internal failures
3. Underspeed
4. Start abort
5. High oil temp
6. Low oil pressure
7. Overtemp
8. Generator high oil temp
9. Load compressor over temp
10. DC power interruption
11. Critical ECB internal failures
79
When will the APU auto shutdown in the air?
1. Overspeed
| 2. Critical ECB internal failures
80
What does the amber FAULT light on the APU MASTER pb sw on the overhead panel indicate?
FAULT: this light illuminates an a caution message appears on the ECAM when an auto shutdown occurs
81
What happens when the ON illuminates blue on the APU MASTER pb sw on the overhead panel?
1. APU starter is energized and the ECB performs a power-up test
2. APU air-intake flap opens
3. APU fuel valves open and pumps operate
4. The APU page appears on the ECAM page
82
When does the APU air-intake flap close?
APU N less that 7% or 15 minutes after liftoff
83
What happens when the APU START pb sw is actuated on the overhead panel?
1. When the flap is completely open the APU starter is energized
2. @7% ignition is turned on
3. @50% starter cut off
4. @95% AVAIL in green indicating it can supply bleed air and electrical power to all systems
84
When shutting down the APU, when will the AVAIL light extinguish?
After the 2 min cool down period
85
Explain the EMER EXIT LT overhead panel toggle switch positions
1. ON
2. OFF - amber OFF will illuminate
3. ARM: with automatically come on in the event of DC ESS BUS failure or normal electrical power failure
In the event AC BUS 1 fails only the overhead emergency lights will illuminate
86
When will the emergency Exit signs automatically illuminate?
In the event of excessive cabin altitude - 9550 ft
87
What happens when the Ditching pb is pressed?
```
The following valves close:
O- outflow valves
C- cargo isolation valves
R- Ram air inlet
A- Avionics ventilation overboard valve
P- Pack flow control valves
```
88
When do we select the Ditch PB?
Ditching and deicing
89
What is a CPC and how many do we have?
2 independent cabin pressure controllers manage 2 outflow valves; only one CPC operates at a time
90
How does the cabin pressurize in automatic mode?
The CPC uses the FMGEC to construct an optimized pressurization schedule
91
How does the CPC modulate cabin pressure when the airfield is not in the database?
Manual manipulation of the LDG ELEV to set airport elevation and the CPCs will automatically reference this in lieu of the FMGEC
92
How does the cabin pressurize in Manual mode?
MODE SEL pb sw to MAN and toggle the spring loaded V/S CTL up (open) or down (closed) for cabin altitude required by QRH or STS page
Depending on VALVE SEL, the crew either controls both or one valve - if one, the other remains auto
Each toggle of the V/S CTL = ~150-200ft
93
When does the window heat turn on?
1. Automatically when at least one engine is running or in flight
2. Manually with the pushbutton switch
94
What are the window heat settings and when are they used?
Low power on the ground, normal power in flight
95
During an electrical failure, what happens to engine and wing anti-ice?
Engine ice valves open and wing valves close
96
Which systems on the aircraft are anti-ice and which are de-ice?
The engine bleed is an anti-ice system while the wings are a de-ice system
97
Describe the engine anti-ice system
Bleed air from the high pressure compressor protects each respective engine nacelle from ice. When the valve is open, the N1 / EPR for that engine is automatically reduced and the idle in increased
98
When do icing conditions exist?
When the OAT or TAT (in flight) is at or below 10ºC and visible moisture is present, or when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways with surface snow, ice , standing water or slush - Engine Anti-Ive must be turned on
99
Why do we not need to turn on engine anti-ice during climb or cruise when the static air temp is less than -40ºC?
Moisture at -40ºC becomes ice crystals and will not adhere to the aircraft
100
Describe the wing anti-ice system
The PB sw on the over head panel controls 4 valves that open to allow hot air from the pneumatic system to heat the outer last 4 slats in flight.
101
Can the wing anti-ice system be used on the ground?
If the crew turns it on it will initiate a 30s test and will arm the system to turn on when weight off wheels
102
What is the emergency generator?
In case of main generator loss, the emergency generator automatically supplies AC power via GREEN hydraulic pressure powered by the Engine Driven Pumps or the RAT if both engines are lost
103
When is the Emergency Generator Deactivated?
In flight: Slats extended but when powered by the RAT can be reactivated after slat retraction with the MAN ON button
Ground: after both engines shut down
104
What are the two sources of power for the Emergency Generator?
Big Green: normal green hydraulic system powered by the engine(s)
Little Green - green hydraulic system powered by the RAT only and flow will be limited between 15-45%
105
What buses are powered by the Emergency Generator during a loss of AC Bus 1 and AC bus 2 (main generator loss)?
```
4 Buses:
1. AC ESS
2. AC ESS SHED
3. DC ESS
4. DC ESS SHED
You see:
PFD | ND | E/WD
```
106
What buses are supplied power by the emergency generator during dual engine failure?
```
All main generators are lost and you are powered by the RAT
2 buses:
1. AC ESS
2. DC ESS
You see:
PFD | E/WD
```
107
Which systems are recovered when you press the LAND RECOVERY pb switch with Big Green? Little Green?
```
AC LAND RECOVERY and DC LAND RECOVERY buses are restored providing the following:
Big Green:
1. LGCIU 1
2. SFCC 1
3. BSCU channel 1
4. LH windshield heat
5. LH Landing Light
Little Green:
1. LGCIU 1
2.SFCC Slat CH only - flaps not recovered)
```
108
What does the pneumatic system provide?
```
High pressure air for
1. air conditioning
2. engine starting
3. wing - anti-ice
4. Water pressurization
5. Hydraulic reservoir pressurization
6. Pack bay ventilation turbofan actuation
7. Cargo heating
8. Fuel Tank Inerting System (FTIS)
(ENGINE ANTI ICE?????)
```
109
What happens when you press the APU BLEED pb sw?
The APU valve opens and X-BLEED opens if the X-BLLED selector knob is auto; ENG BLEED valve closes
The APU bleed will automatically close climbing through 25,000 and reopen descending through 23,000
110
When is the X-BLEED open?
When the APU bleed valve is open; it's an automatic function
111
How do the PACKS operate?
2 packs operate automatically and independently. Each pack has a dedicated Pack Controller with two channels; Channel 1 is primary, Channel 2 as a back up
112
What happens if a Zone Controller fails?
If one zone controller fails, there is no effect. If both controllers fail, the packs deliver a fixed 68ºF air to the cabin
113
What happens if a PACK controller fails?
If one pack controller fails there is no effect on pack regulation, but if both fail, the corresponding anti-ice valves regulate the pack temperature between 9-15ºC and airflow increases to 120%
114
What does the PACK FLOW selector knob do?
Enables flow selection based on the number of passengers:
LO: 80%
Norm: 100%
HI: 120%
NOTE: in case of bleed failure, airflow is limited to 80%
In case of single pack operation or APU bleed supply, airflow is automatically 125%
115
What are the HOT AIR valves?
HOT AIR valves regulate the pressure of hot air tapped upstream of the packs to regulate the temperature of the cockpit, cabin, and FWD CARGO bay. They are electrically controlled from the relative pb sw on the overhead panel.
116
How is FWD CARGO temperature regulated?
FWD CARGO is heated by HOT AIR 1 and cooled by PACK 2. In case HOT 1 is lost or is manually turned off, there is no FWD CARGO heat
117
How are the airflow valves operated?
Electrically controlled, pneumatically operated
118
How much can the FAs change the temperature of each zone in the cabin?
+/-3ºC
119
Describe the normal operation of the electrical system
2 engine driven generators and 1 APU generator provide AC power to the electrical bus bars. AC power is converted to DC power through Transformer Rectifiers for the DC bus bars. An emergency generator can also provide AC power to the aircraft systems. DC power can be inverted using a static inverter to power certain AC systems with the aircraft batteries
120
How many batteries are on the aircraft?
3: two main batteries permanently connected to the two hot battery buses an one dedicated for APU start. Each battery has an associated Battery Charge Limiter (BCL)
121
What is the power priority for the buses?
Onside - inside - outside - cross side
NOTE: APU has priority of external A - if both are on APU powers left, A powers right; If both B and A are connected, B powers left, A powers right
```
AC BUS 1:
GEN 1
APU GEN
EXT B
EXT A
GEN 2
```
```
AC BUS 2
GEN 2
EXT A
APU GEN
EXT B
GEN 1
```
122
What is the difference between EXT A and EXT B when switched from AVAIL to ON?
EXT A - pressing opens and closes the contactor to supply power (AVAIL - ON)
EXT B - if the APU is off, contactor closes and supplies power (AVAIL - AUTO) if the APU is on it will not come on line
123
How is the AC ESS BUS powered?
AC BUS 1
| If AC BUS 1 is lost it is powered by AC BUS 2 via the AC ESS FEED pb
124
How can you force AC BUS 2 to power the AC ESS BUS?
AC ESS FEED guarded pb sw on the overhead panel
125
What is the minimum battery voltage and why?
25.5V ensures charge above 50%
126
What do you do if the voltage on the batteries is below 25.5?
a charging cycle of 20 mins is required with external power
127
Why do we check battery voltage above 23.5 for APU start?
If one battery is lower than 23.5 there is a risk of an aborted APU start
128
Why is External A power preferred to B?
EXT B does not power the GND/FLT buses without energizing the entire aircraft
129
Why do we check all 3 batteries and not just the APU?
Fire protection during APU start
130
How do we test / check the battery voltage?
During cockpit preparation we press the EL/DC pb on the ECAM control panel
131
How do you initiate a battery charging cycle during cockpit preparation?
Press all 3 pb switches off and back on
132
What are we looking for when we initiate a battery charging cycle?
Monitor the Elec/DC page:
Turn off batteries on the over head panel and after turning back on, ensure the current charge of the battery is drops 60A and decreases within 10 seconds. This indicates that the Battery Charge Limiter (BCL) is properly monitoring battery charging
133
How long can we fly on batteries only?
30 minutes
134
Why does the GALLEY pb sw have AUTO next to it?
It automatically sheds in case of generator failure or overload
135
What happens when the GALLEY pb sw is indicating OFF?
Galleys are shed, water/waste drain mast ice protection is lost and the floor panel heating is shed
136
What does the COMMERCIAL pb sw control?
everything passed the cockpit door
137
What is the limitation for the IDG guarded switch?
| Can you reconnect an IDG in flight?
do not press longer than 3 seconds
| no
138
What controls the fuel system?
Two fuel control and monitoring computers (FCMC)
139
What do the FCMCs do?
1. Measure / indicate fuel quantity
2. Calculate Gross Weight and CG
3. Transfer fuels to inner tanks
4. Transfer to and from the trim tank for CG control
140
What are the approximate tank capacities?
```
Outer: 6,300 + 6,300
Inner: 72,000 + 72,000
Tail: 11,000
Center: 72,000
TOTAL: 240,000
```
141
How do the engines get their fuel?
The main fuel pump system supplies fuel from each inner tank to its corresponding engine.
142
How do the fuel pumps work?
There are three fuel pumps in each wing: two main fuel pumps in the collector cell, and one standby pump outside the collector cell. Crossed valves can separate the system into 2 parts, but when open each pump can supply fuel to either engine
143
What is the fuel feed sequence?
Center - Inner - Trim - Inner - Outer - Inner
144
Why does fuel transfer to and from the Trim tank?
Fuel is transferred to the trim tank (aft) or from the trim tank (fwd) to maintain optimal CG during cruise to increase fuel economy by reducing drag
145
When does AFT fuel transfer begin? When does FWD fuel transfer being?
Aft transfer begins during climb through 25,500
| FWD transfer begins during descent through 24,500 or 35 mins to destination
146
Explain the T TANK MODE and Toggle switch positions
TTANK MODE FWD will manually transfer trim tank fuel to the center tank using the trim tank pump
TTANK FEED toggle:
Auto: FCMC transfers trim tank fuel to optimize CG
ISOL: stops any transfer
OPEN: opens valves for gravity transfer
147
What happens when you select the CTR TK XFR pb sw on the overhead panel?
The inner tank inlet valves are opened and the center tank pumps transfer fuel from the center to inner tanks. They must manually be selected off when the inner tanks are full or the center tank is empty
148
What happens when you select the OUTR TK XFR pb sw on the overhead panel?
The outer tank fuel transfer valves and inner and outer inlet valves open to transfer fuel from the outer to inner tanks via gravity.
During this process, the center tank pumps must be select OFF to avoid transfer from center to outer tanks
149
When does the wing XFEED open?
In the EMER ELEC CONFIG and during fuel jettison
150
When do you get an advisory for fuel?
imbalance greater than 6600 lbs
151
Explain the hydraulic system
3 independent, continuously operating systems: GREEN, BLUE and YELLOW are each supplied by their respective reservoirs and monitored by the Hydraulic System Monitoring Unit (HSMU). There is no way to transfer fluid from one system to another.
152
What is normal operating pressure for the hydraulic systems?
3000 psi, 2500 psi for RAT
153
When does the RAT automatically extend?
In flight if both engines fail, or GREEN+BLUE are low, or GREEN+YELLOW are low
154
What are the LEAK MEASUREMENT VALVES?
Closes the corresponding hydraulic valves and shuts off supply to the primary flight controls to prevent actuation while on the ground
On the ground, YELLOW closes automatically when the cargo door is activated to avoid inadvertent movement of the flight control surfaces
155
What powers the GREEN hydraulic system
2 engine driven pumps pressurize the GREEN system, and a backup electric pump can be manually or automatically controlled
156
When does the electric pump for the GREEN system automatically turn on?
One engine fails the electric pump runs automatically in flight for 25 seconds when the landing gear selector is selected up to ensure the gear retracts in proper time
157
What are some considerations when the RAT is powering the GREEN hydraulic system
In addition to shedding, the aileron, elevator, and spoiler servo control operating speeds are reduced
158
How is the BLUE system pressurized?
An engine driven pump in Engine 1 with a backup electric pump
159
When will the BLUE electric pump turn on?
In the event of ENG 1 failure and PRIM 1 or PRIM 3 loss to ensure at least 2 hydraulic actuators are operating to supply sufficient authority on the rudder to counteract the yaw / sideslip induced by asymmetrical thrust
160
What are the YELLOW system pumps?
An engine 2 driven pump and a backup electrical pump
161
When does the YELLOW electrical pump run?
ENG 2 failure & FLAPS not 0 to ensure flap retraction during takeoff and on the ground during cargo door operation
162
How do you preflight the ENG FIRE panel?
1. ENG FIRE pb switches in and guarded
2. AGENT lights check out
3. TEST pb sw: 12 lights & CRC
1. CRC
2. Master warning lights (2)
3. ENG FIRE on ECAM
4. ENG FIRE pb lights up red (2)
5. SQUIB in white (4)
6. DISCH in amber (4)
7. Pedestal FIRE lights in red
163
How many bottles are there per engine?
2
164
What kind of fire detection does the engine have
Gas loops; A and B
165
What triggers a FIRE indication?
Both loops sense a fire (preset temperature exceedence)
1 loop senses a fire and 1 loop inop (broken or loss of electrical supply)
Both loops break within 5 seconds of each other
TEST pb sw
166
What happens when you press the ENG FIRE pb sw?
Walk down the panel
1. Cuts FADEC power supply
2. Silences the aural fire warning
3. Arms the squibs
4. Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve
5. Closes low-pressure fuel valve
6. Deactivates the IDG
7. Closes the pack flow control valve
8. Closes the engine bleed valve
167
If you press the ENG 1 FIRE pb sw do you still have GREEN hydraulic supply?
Yes - GREEN has a pump in each engine and a back up electronic pump, but the engine driven pump for the BLUE system will be lost
168
What does FADEC mean?
Full Authority Digital Engine Control is a control system that performs complete engine management
169
If we have a complete electrical failure, will we lose our engines?
No, FADEC has an internal magnetic alternator for an internal power source
170
What is EPR?
Engine Pressure Ratio: low pressure turbine exhaust pressure / engine air inlet air pressure
171
What are leak measurement valves?
Valves positioned upstream of the primary flight controls to isolate them from hydraulic pressure when on the ground only. The yellow valve is automatically closed on the ground during cargo door operation
172
What indicates a good test on the CVR voice recorder panel?
One or more green lights
173
How does airflow in the BULK cargo compartment?
Air controlled by the outlet isolation valve flows from the cabin through the inlet isolation valve to the bulk cargo compartment and is driven by an extraction fan aft through an outflow valve
174
How do you operate the BULK cargo ventilation system?
You must open the isolation valves by switching the BULK ISOL VALVE pb to ON
175
Does the BULK cargo have heat? Air conditioning?
Heat only - an electrical fan heater; temperature is selected in the cockpit. It will not operate until the temperature in the compartment drops below the temperature set
176
If there is a dog in the BULK cargo, do we need to do anything operationally before takeoff?
Yes - set the bulk heat
177
When do we use FWD cargo cooling?
Plants, livestock, animals, or dry ice
178
How is the FWD cargo cooled and heated?
Cooled via PACK 2, heated via HOT 1 - heated left, cooled right)
179
What does the COOLING temperature selector knob on the overhead panel do?
It controls heating via trim air - HOT 1
180
What do the ISOL VALVE pb sws do?
ON: the inlet and outlet valves open and the extraction fan runs
OFF: the inlet and outlet valves close and the extraction fan stops
181
When do the ISOL VALVES automatically turn off?
If ON, the valves will close and the fan will stop when:
1. Smoke is detected in the cargo compartment
2. Ditching is selected
182
How do we heat the AFT cargo compartment?
We cannot
183
What kind of smoke detectors are in the cargo compartments?
Optical particle detectors
184
How are the fire bottles in the cargo compartment discharged?
Two fire bottles with two discharge heads supply four nozzles:
1. 2 nozzles in the FWD Cargo compartment
2. One nozzle in the AFT cargo compartment
3. One nozzle in the BULK cargo compartment
185
What happens when you press the AGENT pb sw associated with the cargo compartments?
Both bottles discharge into 1 compartment.
| Bottle 1 discharges over 60 seconds, Bottle 2 discharges for 260 minutes
186
When do we use CARGO SMOKE TEST bp sw?
We don't - MX only
187
How do you know if a fire is extinguished in the cargo compartment?
You cannot as the halon discharged also sets off the optical particle detectors
188
Why isn't there a BULK pb switch on the CARGO SMOKE panel?
The AFT AGENT pb fires into AFT and BULK
189
What is the fire protection for the avionics bay?
Two Optical Particle Sensors in the avionics ventilation duct
190
How is the avionics bay cooled on the ground?
No engines running: through the OVBD extract valve
Engines running: through the underfloor extract valve, air is blown under the FWD CARGO compartment then overboard via the outflow valve
When one of these valves is open, the other is closed
191
When does the OVBD EXTRACT VLV close?
When either engine starts
192
What is the purpose of the CABIN FANS?
Two fans circulate cabin air around the avionics and to the mixer unit
193
What does the EXTRACT pb OVRD do?
The underfloor extract valve closes and the OVBD extract valve partially opens (mail slot) - ECAM procedure
194
What are the required emergency equipment?
```
RAMPAGE FV
Ropes
Axe
Masks
PBE
Avsax
Gloves
Extinguisher
Flashlights
Vests
```
195
What are the two ways to confirm the landing gear is down and locked?
1. Triangles on gear indicator panel - connected to LGCIU 1 which received signals from proximity sensors
2. Wheel SD page: only 1 green triangle on each gear is sufficient
196
What does the red indicating arrow for the landing gear mean and when does it illuminate?
The red arrow and associated ECAM warnings come on RED in approach at 750' RA if the landing gear is not downlocked in the landing configuration
197
What is a system consideration when using the gravity gear extension?
Nose wheel steering is lost
198
Is it possible to restore normal gear operation after using the gravity gear extension?
Yes, provided GREEN hydraulic pressure is available- move gravity extension selector to reset then to off
199
How does gravity gear extension work?
An electro-mechanical system permits main and nose landing gear extension by:
1. Isolating the gear from the GREEN system by closing the hydraulic cut off valve in order to;
2. Disengage Doors / gear Uplocks;
3. Gear deploys by Gravity;
4. Automatically lock with Down lock springs
200
How does the landing gear and associated doors operate?
Electrically controlled and hydraulically operated
201
How is the landing gear prevented from operation in flight?
Hydraulic supply from the GREEN system is automatically isolated by closing a safety valve above 280kts and is maintained until speed is below 280 and landing gear lever is down.
202
What is F.L.R.S.?
Flap Load Relief System: available in configurations 2, 3, FULL
Speed exceedence of Vfe+2.5kts. The system will retract the flaps to the deflection corresponding to the next retracted lever position. If speed is reduced the selected configuration will return.
203
When is the alpha lock protection active?
Alpha lock will not function if the lever is set to zero before the exceedence or if the aircraft is on the ground with speed below 60kts
204
What are the time limitations on resets?
3 seconds for a /r push button, 1 second for a reset button
205
What is the priority for filling tanks?
Inners and outer tanks first
After 80,500, fuel in trim
After 166,500 fuel in center
*distribution normal*
206
What is connected to the HOT BAT BUS that will drain the battery if no power is on the aircraft?
ISIS
Clock
Batt voltage indication window
207
What is GS MINI
Ground speed mini is a built in function of the Flight Guidance part of the FMGECs
208
What does GS MINI do?
Calculates and ensures a minimum energy level (ground speed) to touch down in order to protect from windshear in final approach
209
When is GS MINI active? And what are the PFD indications?
Active during approach phase AND managed speed
| The calculated ground speed will not be indicated but the changing magenta target speed on the PFD is
210
What is aileron droop?
Ailerons droop to provide additional lift
1+F = 5°
F2-FULL= 10°
211
Is there aileron droop on approach with flap 1?
No- only slats extended
212
When do ground spoilers extend on RTO?
Thrust levers idle
| Speed greater than 72kts
213
When do ground spoilers extend on landing?
1. Armed: main gear compression and thrust levers idle
| 2. Not armed: main gear compression and at least one engine in REV
214
How many speedbrake / ground spoiler panels are there?
6 on each wing
| All are used for speed brakes and ground spoilers, only some are used for roll
215
What happens when you turn the ignition control knob to IGN START?
1. Powers FADEC
2. Closes pack flow control valves
3. Brings up engine page
216
What happens when you flip the Eng Master Switches?
Opens the fuel valves
217
What does TO config do?
Simulated application of takeoff power to test if aircraft is configured for takeoff - does not test parking brake or thrust not set
1. Slats
2. Flaps
3. Pitch trim
4. Rudder trim
5. Speed brakes
6. Brake temp
7. Doors
218
How is GW and GWCG calculated?
The FCMC uses ZFW and fuel on board to calculate - in case of excess CG, the indication on the SD becomes red
219
What are the white messages in the lower right corner of the status page?
Maintenance message (Class II), no action required
220
What is the DMC?
Display management computer chooses which DMC supplies data to the EW/D and SD; usually 3, when set in auto it reverts to 1
221
What does the ECAM/ND selector knob do?
It transfers the SD to either the CA or FO ND
| If both EW/D and SD Us fail, the E/WD will display on the ND
222
What does the EFIS DMC control knob on the CA or FO front panel do?
Chooses which DMC supplies data the the respective PFD and ND
223
How can you display the Engine SD page on your ND?
The knob you cycle to see ARC and Plan also has ENG
224
What does a DU failure look like?
Blank screen with "invalid display unit" in amber
Black screen with amber "F"
Distorted display
225
Can you regain a failed DU?
No
226
What screens do DMCs 1, 2, & 3 send data to?
DMC 1 - CA PFD & ND
DMC 2 - FO PFD & ND
DMC 3 - EWD & SD
227
What does a DMC failure look like?
Amber "INVALID DATA" on the corresponding DU
228
What happens if the E/WD DU fails?
Switches to the SD
229
What happens if the SD DU fails?
Nothing - there is no automatic switching - you can cycle through the SD buttons to momentarily display the system on the E/WD page or you can change the ECAM / ND selector knob to display the SD on either the CA or FOs ND
230
If DMC 3 fails, how do you get E/WD and SD?
Auto reversion to 1. if 1 fails, reverts to 2
231
How do you navigate in NAV B/U?
Dual FMS failure - Nav backup is a simple flight plan stored in the MCDU - you must use HDG
232
What are the major considerations when using MAN START?
You must abort the start for abnormal conditions, there are no auto protections
233
What happens if FADEC cannot compute EPR?
The aircraft will revert to N1 mode:
N1 Rated or N1 Unrated Mode is triggered depending on the failure.
If only one EPR is failed you select both engines into N1 using the pb sw on the overhead panels so they can be simultaneously and similarly controlled
234
What are the considerations when operating in N1 mode?
1. Pilot controls thrust using N1, not EPR
2. A/TH inop
3. Alpha Floor is lost
4. No flex takeoffs
235
What is N1 Rated mode?
FADEC computes N1 and you have all normal engine protections
236
What is N1 unrated mode?
Does not show N1 limits
FADEC computes N1 red line for the TLA position - full forward = red line, however the red line is beyond the N1 limit and it is possible to exceed EGT
237
What is SRS?
Speed Reference System uses vertical guidance to deliver a speed
Normal takeoff - V2+10
Go Around - Highest of Vapp or Current speed @ GA
Single Engine - Highest of V2 or speed at failure
238
Why do we start the chrono on take off?
Take off or GA thrust limit: 900 for 5 mins, 900 for 10 mins single engine
239
What is a mode reversion?
The FMGEC is asked to perform a task but is unable so it reverts to a different mode to ensure a safe flight path
240
What happens if you are in NAV mode and you fly through a discontinuity?
Reverts to HDG mode
241
What happens if the FDs are on in climb but the pilot does not follow and levels off?
1. A/TH is commanding max power so VMAX will be reached
2. Both FDs disengage
3. A/TH reverts to SPEED
4. SPEED mode reduces thrust to recover speed target
242
What happens if FDs on in descent but not followed and levels off?
1. A/TH commanding idle thrust so Vls will be reached
2. A/TH reverts to SPEED mode
3. A/TH commands more thrust to recover speed target
243
What controls the A/TH?
1 computer with two channels that can be cycled with the AP 1/ AP 2 pb sws
244
How do we turn off the A/TH in flight?
1. Match and Mash with instinctive push button:
NOTE - if you press and hold for 15 seconds the A/th is inop for the remainder of the flight and Alpha Floor is lost
2. Thrust levers to Idle
3. PB on FCU - not normal
245
What happens if both pilots provide input to the side sticks?
Their inputs are summed
"Dual Input" audio and ECAM
CAPT / FO green
Indicates and unwanted command
246
How do you take command of the flight controls?
Press and hold red push button on side stick - last to do this has priority
Red arrow on pilot side who no longer has control
"Priority LEFT /RIGHT" audio
247
How do you take command of the side stick from an incapacitated pilot
Hold the red push button for +40seconds - it will become active again if red pb is pushed
248
When are auto land lights active and what do they mean?
Active below 200' RA, mandatory GA
249
When do we use Autobrakes Low? Med? Max?
Low - normal
Med - Contaminated or less than 7,000
MAX - TO
250
Why do we select MAX brakes after the flight control check?
to avoid accidental spoiler deployment which would activate MAX braking - the auto brakes are a function of spoiler deployment. The spoilers will not deploy at speeds less than 72 knots, and therefore, max braking will not either
251
What does the DECEL light mean?
Only that the aircraft has reached the predetermined DECEL rate
252
What is the difference in the braking sequence for auto brakes LOW and MED?
Gear down + thrust idle
Ground spoilers deploy
LO: auto brakes activate 1 second after spoiler deployment
MED: auto brakes deploy with ground spoilers
253
What happens when you turn the A/SKID N/W Steering off?
Turns off normal green hydraulic power and switches to blue standby
Lose A/Skid
Lose N/WS
-Reset procedure
254
Explain the triple indicator
Top scale is accumulator pressure (7 applications)
| Bottom Scale measures blue pressure on the brakes
255
What do the Green and Amber sections in the brake pressure accumulator indicate?
Amber - must be repressurized by BLUE
Green - accumulator is good and will hold pressure; last line of defense to stop the aircraft
Does not have to be in the GREEN for a indictor pin check
256
Which brake system do we use for taxi?
Green
257
How many braking systems do we have and how are they powered?
4:
1. Normal - Green
2. Alternate W/ASKID - blue
3. Alternate w/out ASKID - blue
4. Parking brake - Blue + accumulator (7 applications)
258
Why do we start ENG 1 and shut down ENG 2 first?
Blue HYD pump is in ENG 1, charges the accumulator and provides pressure to the brakes
259
How is the gear operated?
Electrically controlled, hydraulically operated
260
Which LGCIU powers which indicator?
LGCIU 1 - left side triangle AND the back up panel
LGCIU 2 - right side triangle
- only 1 triangle per gear indicates locked gear
261
What is the landing gear RED ARROW?
gear not down and locked in landing flap configuration
262
Explain the back up landing gear indicator lights
UNLK - gear not locked
| Green Triangle- gear locked
263
When do the auto land lights illuminate?
1. Dual AP failure
2. RA discrepancy greater than 15'
3. Excessive LOC deviation (1/4 dot)
4. GS deviation (1 dot)
5. Loss of LOC or GS
264
When are we committed to landing?
when the spoilers deploy
265
How does the gravity gear extend?
Electrically controlled, mechanically operated
266
What is the purpose of MLA?
Manuevering Load alleviation uses spoilers and ailerons to redistribute lift over the wing to relieve structural loads on the outer wing surfaces.
Activates when side stick pulled +8º and load factor + 2g, speed +250, Clean, normal or alternate
267
What is Alpha Speed Lock?
alpha more than 8.5º or speed less than 148 Kias, the slats will not stow
268
When do the ignitors automatically come on?
1. Inadvertent cycling of the the MASTER SWITCH when N3 is greater than 50%
2. Flameout
3. Anti Ice on and EIU fails
269
What is ARS?
Automatic Retraction System - on take off, in configuration 1+F the flaps will automatically retract passing through 200 to respect the flap limit of 215, the slats can stay extended to 240.
270
What is FLRS?
Flap Load Relief System - Flaps 2-Full, if you overspeed by 2.5, the flaps will automatically retract 1 position until you slow back down
271
If you lose the Emergency Control Panel, how do you cycle through the ECAM?
CLR, RCL, STS, EMER CANCEL, and ALL push buttons are hardwired and still work
272
How does the EMER CANCEL push button work?
Warnings: stops warnings for as long as the failure continues, but does not affect ECAM message display
Cautions: cancels current caution for the rest of the flight and automatically brings up the STS page with Cancelled Caution - RCL for 3 seconds
