Systems - Equipment Flashcards
What is the ECAM hierarchy?
Level 3 Red: warning requiring immediate action, CRC, master warning light
Level 2 Amber: caution requiring crew awareness but not immediate action, single chime, master caution
Level 1 Amber: monitoring required (loss of redundancy), no chime or caution light
White: advisory
Green: normal system operation
What are the two push button positions?
- In: ON / auto / override
2. Out: OFF / manual
If the cockpit door is locked and there is a light is illuminated on the overhead control panel, what does that indicate? (DSC-52-30-20-10)
If one of the strike status lights is illuminated the locking latch is faulty
What are the 3 positions for the cockpit door switch on the center pedestal? DSC-52-30-20-10
UNLOCK: switch must be pulled and maintained in the unlock position until the door is pushed open
NORM: All latches are locked; EMERGENCY access is possible for the cabin crew
LOCK: The door is locked; emergency access, the buzzer, and the keypad are inhibited for a preselected time
*UNLOCK also overrides and resets previous selection
In case of electrical failure, what happens to the cockpit door? DSC-52-30-20-10
It automatically unlocks but remains closed
What happens if the OPEN light is flashing on the center pedestal? DSC-52-30-20-10
The cabin crew has started an emergency access procedure. If there is no reaction from the flight crew, the door will unlock at the end of the adjustable time delay (15-120 seconds)
What does the FAULT light indicate on the center pedestal? DSC-52-30-20-10
A system failure has been identified; check strike and pressure sensor status on the overhead panel
What does the pressure sensor status light indicate? DSC-52-30-20-10
Two differential pressure sensors enable rapid pressure variation detection in order to command simultaneous opening of latches when a defined pressure drop is detected
If the light is off, it is operating normally
If the light is on, the associated sensor is faulty
What are QRH procedures under 02.01/02.02
- 01 is the system reset general table
02. 02 are system reset procedures
When is it allowed for the crew to attempt a system reset?
The flight crew can attempt a system reset only when:
- An ECAM / OEB / FCOM / QRH procedure
- The system reset table permits (after consulting mx)
How many times can you perform a system reset procedure?
Once unless indicated otherwise
What circuit breakers are in the cockpit?
5 total: one for each seat and one for the door
What is an ADIR?
Air Data and Inertial Reference System supplies temperature, anemometric, barometric, and inertial parameters to the EFIS and other systems
How many ADIRS are on the 330?
Three identical ADIRS, each divided into two parts either of which can work separately in case of failure in the other: ADR / IR
What information does the ADR part of the ADIRS supply?
Barometric altitude, airspeed, Mach, angle of attack, temperature, and over speed warnings
What does the IR part of the ADIRS supply?
The Inertial Reference supplies attitude, flight path vector, track, heading, accelerations, angular rates, ground speed, vertical speed, and aircraft position
What are the 3 selection modes for the ADIRS on the control panel?
NAV, ATT, OFF
What types of sensors make up the ADIRS?
PASTA Pitot probes- 3 Angle of attack sensors- 3 Static pressure probes- 6 Total air temperature probes- 2 All electrically heated to prevent icing
What is NAV mode for the ADIRS?
Normal mode supplies full inertial data to the aircraft systems
What is ATT mode for the ADIRS?
IR only mode supplies heading and attitude only.
The heading must be entered through the MCDU and reset every 10 minutes.
What does it mean if the IR pb sw illuminates?
OFF: inertial data output is disconnected
FAULT LIGHT:
1. Steady: the respective IR is lost
2. Flashing: attitude / heading can be recovered in ATT mode
Why is there a NORTH REF pb sw?
To switch between magnetic / true heading
Pushed in: TRUE illuminates
What is the preferred way of initializing / aligning the ADIRS?
The preferred method is to use the GPS position. Less than 1 minute after setting the ADIRS to NAV, the INIT page displays the GPS position without the prompt
What is the alternative method to initialize / align the ADIRS?
By entering a CO RTE or FROM/TO the align prompt will appear and can be forced to send when GPS coordinates are not available
How long does aligning the ADIRS take?
Normal alignment is 5-10 minutes - cleans ground speed and drift
Extreme north or south can take 17 minutes
Fast alignment 30 seconds - only cleans ground speed
When we leave the aircraft do we turn off the ADIRS?
No- it provides info to calculate density of fuel for refueling but performing an alignment on startup is acceptable and a normal procedure.
WHERE IS THIS IN THE FCOM?
How long can we navigate on IRS only?
6.2 hours and then they need to be realigned ops spec B036
When does the ON BAT light on the overhead panel illuminate on the ADIRS overhead panel? DSC-34-10-10-20
The ON BAT light illuminates for a few seconds and the beginning of a complete IRS alignment. It will not turn on for a fast alignment
It will also illuminate when the aircraft battery supplies at least one IRS
NOTE: on the ground and battery power only: an external horn will sound and the ADIRU light will illuminate in amber in the service interphone bay panel
What is the correct sequence to initiate the ADIRS?
1-2-3 for muscle memory
What is GPIRS?
A computed/mixed IRS/GPS position
Each IRS can independently select their GPS source
The FMS selects on side, 3, then cross-side
What happens when the GPIRS data is inaccurate?
If the GPIRS data does not comply with the integrity criterion, the FMS will reject the GPS and use the radio position update (DME/VOR/LOC)
What are the aircraft fire protection systems?
Fire and overheat detection / extinguishing systems for the engines / APU
Smoke detection / extinguishing for cargo / lavs
Portable fire extinguishers for the cockpit and pax cabin
Explain the fire detection for the APU / engines
Detection loops and a Fire Detection Unit
Fire FDU
Two identical gas detection loops mounted in parallel that consist of 5 sensing elements for each engine located in the pylon nacelle, the engine core, compressor and fan sections, and one sensing element in the APU. When a sensing element is subjected to heat it sends a signal to the FDU. Once a preset temp is reached it triggers the fire warning system.
What happens if there is a break or loss of electrical supply to the fire loops?
A fault in one loop will not affect the fire warning system
What happens if the system detects an APU fire while on the ground?
The system shuts down the APU and automatically discharges the bottle
What happens when the APU FIRE pb sw is pressed? (7)
- Shuts down the APU
- Silences the aural warning
- Arms the squib on the APU fire extinguisher
- Closed the low-pressure fuel valve
- Shuts off the APU fuel pump
- Closes the APU bleed valve, x bleed valve
- Deactivates the APU generator
What happens when the TEST pb switch on the APU overhead panel is pressed?
- Continuous repetitive chime (crc)
- 2 master warning lights
- ECAM APU FIRE
- APU FIRE pb red
- AGENT pb - squib / discharge
What is the purpose of the AGENT pb sw and corresponding illuminations on the APU overhead fire panel?
Pushing the agent pb discharges the squib
SQUIB illuminates white when the squib is armed by pressing the APU FIRE pb
DISCH illuminates amber when the squib has lost pressure
How does the turbulence damper work?
The PRIMS compute a damping command which is added to the normal law command for the elevator and the yaw damper. It is automatically monitored and will shut off when a failure is detected.
When is the turbulence damper active?
- In flight
- Speed greater than 200 kias
- AP engaged or Normal law active
What is the basic principle of fly-by-wire?
Electrically actuated, hydraulically activated
What are the basic principle and limitations of normal law?
Normal law will prevent excessive maneuvers and exceedance of the safe envelope in pitch and roll axes. The rudder has no protection.
Explain the PRIMs
3 PRIM computers are used for normal, alternate and direct control laws; speed brake and ground spoiler control; speed protection; rudder travel limit
Explain the SECs
The SECs are secondary computers and control direct laws including yaw damper, rudder trim, and rudder travel limit in the event the PRIMs aren’t functioning
How many flight control computers need to be working to land?
Any one of the SECs or PRIMs is capable of controlling the aircraft and assuring a safe flight / landing
Where is fuel storage?
Wings, center section and trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS)
Describe the inner fuel tank
Each inner tank contains one collector cell that maintains a fuel reservoir for the fuel booster pumps and provides negative G protection for the engines. It is divided into two parts via a SPLIT valve that normally remains open and is used as a single tank
What fuel is available after the Split Valve is closed?
The fuel contained in the AFT section of the inner tanks is still usable via standby pumps
What is the fuel transfer sequence?
- Center tank transfers to inner tanks via pumps
- Trim tank transfers to inner
- Outer fuel tank transfers to inner tanks via gravity
NOTE: the trim tank may transfer earlier for CG control
What are the inner tank split pb sw?
Two guarded switches for the L and R inner tanks have three commands:
OFF: dark / no illumination - normal operation: split valve is open and inner tank is used as a single tank
ON: amber light: valve is closing and inner tank is split in two divisions. Fuel may be used from either division.
SHUT: blue- indicates the valve is shut
Describe the process to jettison fuel
QRH 19.02A
Manually activated by two guarded push button switches on the over head panel.
1. All pumps on
2. Crossfeed valve opens
3. Jettison valves open
4. Fuel transfers from center to trim / outer to inner
What stops fuel jettison?
- Crew initiated
- Both inner tank low level sensors on one side become dry
- The input preset level on the MCDU is reached
- Combined inner tank fuel quantity less than 22,000 lbs
NOTE: the standby pumps continue to run anytime the JETTISON buttons are ON
Which toggle selection do we use to set the EVAC and why?
CAPT to ensure the FAs cannot activate the evacuation alert audio
What is the EMER GEN TEST pb sw?
Maintenance use only
When does the battery discharge warning alert sound?
- External power OFF
- Generators not running
- BAT on auto- will stop after 5 mins
What are the 5 EGPWS modes?
- Excessive rate of descent
- Excessive terrain closure rate
- Altitude loss after TO/GA
- Terrain clearance not sufficient if not in landing configuration
- Excessive descent below the glide slope
What is the TERR pb sw on the GPWS overhead panel?
Inhibits the terrain awareness display and the terrain clearance floor but does not effect EGPWS modes 1-5.
Relays data from the terrain database
What does the SYS pb sw on the EGPWS over head panel do?
OFF :Inhibits EGPWS modes 1-5 but does not inhibit terrain warnings from the terrain database
FAULT: Amber light illuminates with an ECAM caution if modes 1-5 fail
NOTE: if ILS 1 fails, only mode 5 is inhibited and the FAULT light / warning will not activate
What does the G/S pb sw on the GPWS overhead panel do?
It inhibits mode 5 only and is only used during failures ie unreliable glide slope
What does the Flap Mode pb sw on the GPWS overhead panel do?
Inhibits TOO LOW FLAPS mode 4 to avoid nuisance warning when landing with reduced flaps setting (1 or 2)
When single engine landing flaps 3, we program the MCDU for flaps 3 and therefore we do not need to inhibit the warning
What does the PULL UP/GPWS button on the main instruments panel do?
PULL UP illuminates to give a visual indication with the audible warning - when briefly pressed with the light in it will temporarily inhibit the Glideslope mode 5 alert
GPWS will illuminate amber when any mode is activated for a visual indication of the warning
What is the RCDR?
The data and voice recorder automatically operate continuously after first engine start. Can be forced ON by the crew but the light will extinguish and the recorders will operate automatically after engine start
What is the preflight requirement for the crew oxygen system?
Check the ECAM oxy pressure indication. On the ground an amber half frame appears when oxygen pressure is less than 1000 PSI and the crew must confirm that the remaining quantity is sufficient according to the minimum crew oxygen pressure table in the limitations section.
What does the MASK MAN guarded switch do?
Cabin oxygen masks are designed to automatically release when the cabin pressure exceeds 14,000, however this switch allows for manual override. When the masks are released the PA broadcasts prerecorded instructions
When would you use the MASK MAN guarded switch?
During the Emergency Descent QRH procedure
What does the SYS ON light on the OXYGEN panel indicate?
The light illuminates white when the masks are deployed
What does the CREW SUPPLY pb sw on the overhead panel do?
This button closes a supply solenoid valve allowing the crew to shut off the distribution system
What are the 3 levels of oxygen distribution via the crew masks?
N: The masks provide a mixture of ambient air and oxygen dependent on cabin altitude; the higher the altitude the greater the saturation of oxygen until it reaches 100%
100%: the masks provide 100% oxygen
EMERGENCY: creates overpressure that eliminates condensation / fogging, and prevents smoke, smell, or ashes from entering the mask
During the cockpit O2 mask preflight, the pressure drops rapidly below 800 PSI, what do you do?
Contact maintenance
What are the 5 types of calls from the CALL overhead panel?
- ALL - CALL ALL CAPT appears on all FA panels
- MECH - external horn sounds and COCKPIT CALL blue light illuminates on external power panel until manually extinguished
- CAB REST - lower crew rest
- EMER ON - guarded pb sw CALL PRIO CAPT appears on all FA panels
- PURS - distinct chime though out the cabin for the FFA
What does the RAIN RPLNT button do?
push the button once for rain repellent fluid, do not use on a dry windshield
Explain the automatic functions of the SEAT BELT and NO SMOKING toggle switches
Each switch has 3 positions: ON, AUTO, OFF
In AUTO, signs will illuminate then landing gear or flaps / slats are extended
The NO SMOKING light is hardwired ON and we leave the toggle switch in AUTO. When toggled to ON the EXIT lights illuminate and will drain the batteries if left in this position and all other power is off.
Briefly explain the APU
The APU is a self contained unit making the aircraft independent of external pneumatic and electrical power supple. It supplies bleed air for engine start and the pneumatic system, and during take off supplies bleed air for the PACKS to avoid a reduction in the engine thrust.
What is the ECB?
The Electronic Control Box is a full authority digital electronic controller that performs the APU system logic:
- Sequences and monitors the start
- Monitors speed and temperature
- Monitors bleed air
- Sequences manual or emergency shut down
How does the APU get fuel?
The ECB controls fuel flow from the trim tank transfer line
left collector side inner tank, trim pipe, trim tank
What happens when if the APU BLEED is left ON during flight?
The ECB will automatically close the APU bleed valve at 25,000 while climbing and reopen at 23,000 when descending
What are the 4 ways to shut down the APU?
- Overhead control panel
- APU Fire handle
- APU SHUT OFF pb on the inter phone panel
- APU EMER SHUT DOWN pb on refueling/ refueling panel
When will the APU auto shutdown on the ground?
- *FIRE** - squibs discharge automatically
1. Overspeed
2. Certain critical ECB internal failures
3. Underspeed
4. Start abort
5. High oil temp
6. Low oil pressure
7. Overtemp
8. Generator high oil temp
9. Load compressor over temp
10. DC power interruption
11. Critical ECB internal failures
When will the APU auto shutdown in the air?
- Overspeed
2. Critical ECB internal failures
What does the amber FAULT light on the APU MASTER pb sw on the overhead panel indicate?
FAULT: this light illuminates an a caution message appears on the ECAM when an auto shutdown occurs
What happens when the ON illuminates blue on the APU MASTER pb sw on the overhead panel?
- APU starter is energized and the ECB performs a power-up test
- APU air-intake flap opens
- APU fuel valves open and pumps operate
- The APU page appears on the ECAM page
When does the APU air-intake flap close?
APU N less that 7% or 15 minutes after liftoff
What happens when the APU START pb sw is actuated on the overhead panel?
- When the flap is completely open the APU starter is energized
- @7% ignition is turned on
- @50% starter cut off
- @95% AVAIL in green indicating it can supply bleed air and electrical power to all systems
When shutting down the APU, when will the AVAIL light extinguish?
After the 2 min cool down period
Explain the EMER EXIT LT overhead panel toggle switch positions
- ON
- OFF - amber OFF will illuminate
- ARM: with automatically come on in the event of DC ESS BUS failure or normal electrical power failure
In the event AC BUS 1 fails only the overhead emergency lights will illuminate
When will the emergency Exit signs automatically illuminate?
In the event of excessive cabin altitude - 9550 ft
What happens when the Ditching pb is pressed?
The following valves close: O- outflow valves C- cargo isolation valves R- Ram air inlet A- Avionics ventilation overboard valve P- Pack flow control valves
When do we select the Ditch PB?
Ditching and deicing
What is a CPC and how many do we have?
2 independent cabin pressure controllers manage 2 outflow valves; only one CPC operates at a time
How does the cabin pressurize in automatic mode?
The CPC uses the FMGEC to construct an optimized pressurization schedule
How does the CPC modulate cabin pressure when the airfield is not in the database?
Manual manipulation of the LDG ELEV to set airport elevation and the CPCs will automatically reference this in lieu of the FMGEC
How does the cabin pressurize in Manual mode?
MODE SEL pb sw to MAN and toggle the spring loaded V/S CTL up (open) or down (closed) for cabin altitude required by QRH or STS page
Depending on VALVE SEL, the crew either controls both or one valve - if one, the other remains auto
Each toggle of the V/S CTL = ~150-200ft
When does the window heat turn on?
- Automatically when at least one engine is running or in flight
- Manually with the pushbutton switch
What are the window heat settings and when are they used?
Low power on the ground, normal power in flight
During an electrical failure, what happens to engine and wing anti-ice?
Engine ice valves open and wing valves close
Which systems on the aircraft are anti-ice and which are de-ice?
The engine bleed is an anti-ice system while the wings are a de-ice system
Describe the engine anti-ice system
Bleed air from the high pressure compressor protects each respective engine nacelle from ice. When the valve is open, the N1 / EPR for that engine is automatically reduced and the idle in increased
When do icing conditions exist?
When the OAT or TAT (in flight) is at or below 10ºC and visible moisture is present, or when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways with surface snow, ice , standing water or slush - Engine Anti-Ive must be turned on
Why do we not need to turn on engine anti-ice during climb or cruise when the static air temp is less than -40ºC?
Moisture at -40ºC becomes ice crystals and will not adhere to the aircraft
Describe the wing anti-ice system
The PB sw on the over head panel controls 4 valves that open to allow hot air from the pneumatic system to heat the outer last 4 slats in flight.
Can the wing anti-ice system be used on the ground?
If the crew turns it on it will initiate a 30s test and will arm the system to turn on when weight off wheels
What is the emergency generator?
In case of main generator loss, the emergency generator automatically supplies AC power via GREEN hydraulic pressure powered by the Engine Driven Pumps or the RAT if both engines are lost
When is the Emergency Generator Deactivated?
In flight: Slats extended but when powered by the RAT can be reactivated after slat retraction with the MAN ON button
Ground: after both engines shut down
What are the two sources of power for the Emergency Generator?
Big Green: normal green hydraulic system powered by the engine(s)
Little Green - green hydraulic system powered by the RAT only and flow will be limited between 15-45%
What buses are powered by the Emergency Generator during a loss of AC Bus 1 and AC bus 2 (main generator loss)?
4 Buses: 1. AC ESS 2. AC ESS SHED 3. DC ESS 4. DC ESS SHED You see: PFD | ND | E/WD
What buses are supplied power by the emergency generator during dual engine failure?
All main generators are lost and you are powered by the RAT 2 buses: 1. AC ESS 2. DC ESS You see: PFD | E/WD
Which systems are recovered when you press the LAND RECOVERY pb switch with Big Green? Little Green?
AC LAND RECOVERY and DC LAND RECOVERY buses are restored providing the following: Big Green: 1. LGCIU 1 2. SFCC 1 3. BSCU channel 1 4. LH windshield heat 5. LH Landing Light Little Green: 1. LGCIU 1 2.SFCC Slat CH only - flaps not recovered)
What does the pneumatic system provide?
High pressure air for 1. air conditioning 2. engine starting 3. wing - anti-ice 4. Water pressurization 5. Hydraulic reservoir pressurization 6. Pack bay ventilation turbofan actuation 7. Cargo heating 8. Fuel Tank Inerting System (FTIS) (ENGINE ANTI ICE?????)
