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Delta 717 IQ > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

1
Q

Left (only) Hyd System Powers?

A

L/R Inboard Flt Spoilers
L Thrust Rev
Elevator Augmentation Sys

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2
Q

Right (only) Hyd System Powers?

A

L/R Outboard Flt Spoilers
R Thrust Rev
Rudder
Landing Gear

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3
Q

Both Hydraulic Systems power?

A 
Steering
Slats
Flaps
Brakes/Antiskid
Rudder Limiter
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4
Q

HYD CONT RUDDER switch

A

Reverts Rudder to Manual Operation

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5
Q

Min taxiway width for 180 turn

A

81 ft

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6
Q

Min crew O2 for dispatch

A

1000psi

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7
Q

min oil quantity for dispatch

A

MX station: 9 qts

Non MX station: 7 qts

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8
Q

Min HYD quantity

A

7 qts per system

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9
Q

Center tank fuel pump preflight

A

If center tank fuel is present, center pumps must be individually checked to verify operation prior to engine start.

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10
Q

AVIONICS COOLING switch functions:
OVRD
FAN

A

OVRD: fans are off, venturi valve opens, airflow cools radios
FAN: primary fan cools radios, backup fan will come on automatically

Both fans operate on ground, switch is only operative inflight.

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11
Q

RAM AIR switch:
OFF
ON

A

OFF: ram air valve closed
ON: Ram air valve opens, allowing ram air to enter air conditioning ducts (in flight only)

Do not use ON position to ventilate on ground

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12
Q

PACK SHUTDOWN switch:
OVRD
AUTO

A

OVRD: overrides the auto pack shutdown for an engine failure OR when packs are selected OFF on FMC

AUTO: Allows automatic pack shutdown if engine fails

Auto pack shutdown is disabled > 3000AGL
Pack will also auto shutdown if high supply duct temp. This cannot be overridden.

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13
Q

FLOW switch:
HIGH
NORM

A

NORM: Lower airflow rate (position for T/O)

HIGH: provides a higher airflow rate

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14
Q

Bleed air ISOL switch:
CLSD
OPEN
AUTO

A

CLSD: isolation valve is closed, isolating L and R pneumatic systems

OPEN: isolation valve is open allowing crossfeed of L and R pneumatic systems

AUTO: isolation valve is controlled by the pneumatic system controller. Allows automatic crossfeed of L and R systems during one bleed source operation with AIRFOIL ICE PROTECTION ON.

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15
Q

Instrument panel FLOW indicator
ON
OFF

A

ON: on the ground, with a/c off, indicates instrument panel cooling fan airflow

OFF: on the ground, with a/c off, indicates absence of airflow and cooling fan failure

  • Indications only apply with both packs off.
  • With both packs operating, instrument cooling fan is provided by a/c system (fans are off)
  • on ground if one pilot leaves cockpit with APU on, one pack should be selected off so fan operates.
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16
Q

GASPER BOOSTER FAN switch:
ON
OFF

A

ON: provides supplemental ventilation with or without a/c packs operating

OFF: booster fan is off (switch dark)

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17
Q

How are cargo compartments heated?

Live animal restrictions?

A

In flight, if primary fan is operating, fwd cargo is electrically heated to 60-75 degrees F.

Live animals only in FWD

Aft cargo is headed with cabin exhaust air

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18
Q

What is PODS?

A

Pneumatic Overheat Detection System

Detects overheat in Tail Compartment AND along wing and tail A/I manifolds

If A/I manifold fails, PODS automatically closes respective A/I valve and alerts crew

PODS is automatically tested when engine fire test is performed.

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19
Q

when is ENG ANTI ICE required?

A

OAT 6C or less (10C or less in flight) and any of following:

  • visible moisture or vis <1mile
  • 3C or less temp/dwpt spread
  • Contaminated ramps/taxiways/runways
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20
Q

When are engine run ups required during icing?

A

40% N1 for 10 seconds every 60 minutes

Standing T/O required.
50% N1 before t/o roll

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21
Q

Standing T/O?

A

Required during icing conditions

Hold brakes until 50% N1 before start of takeoff roll.

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22
Q

WING ICE DET switch function?
RESET
TEST

A

RESET: resets system and removes WING ICE DETECTED alert from EAD. System will not reset if ice still detected.

TEST: tests the wing ice detection system

(FUNCTIONS ON GROUND ONLY)
Do not takeoff with WING ICE DETECTED alert displayed

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23
Q

Which cockpit windows are heated? Antifogged?

A

all 3 pilot windshields are electrically anti iced and electrically anti fogged

Clearview windows are also anti fogged

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24
Q

Which control surfaces are anti iced with bleed air?

A

Wing slats and horizontal stab leading edge from either or both engines

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25
Q

When does Gear Horn sound?

Can it be silenced?

A
  1. Gear not down and locked w/ flaps in landing range (can not silence)
  2. Gear not down and locked and:
    -Throttles retarded
    • Airspeed <210
      -Altitude <1200 AGL
      (can silence)
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26
Q

maximum brake temperature for takeoff

A

Brake temperature must not exceed 115°C for airport elevations up to 2,200 feet MSL
Temperature limits are based on a 120K pound aircraft and a V1of 140 knots.
To confirm actual brake temperature limits based on different conditions, reference ODM

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27
Q

After landing, brake temp differential on same side gear of up to _____ is considered normal

A

60 degrees C

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28
Q

aircraft turn capabilities with the nose gear steering wheel and rudder pedals

A

NWS - 82 degrees either side

Rudder pedals - 17 degrees either side

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29
Q

What is ground shift sensing system?

A

Flight/Ground switch.

Located on Nosewheel strut

Locks gear retraction handle in down position. Can be overridden by holding the gear handle release switch.

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30
Q

Recall cautions associated with ground operations when landing after an Emergency Gear Extension

A

Right hydraulic system is isolated, so NWS steering is limited to the left.

  • Stop on Runway
  • close and latch main gear doors manually
  • insert gear pins before tow or taxi.
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31
Q

How are brakes powered?

A

Each brake assembly is powered by both hydraulic systems.

If both Hydraulic systems fail, each system has a backup accumulator of sufficient capacity to stop the airplane.

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32
Q

Recall features of the antiskid system

A

 Allows maximum wheel braking without skidding the tires
 Prevents brake application until after main wheel spinup
 Automatically disabled at low taxi speed
 Automatically tested when power is applied

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33
Q

How to activate/deactivate the oxygen mask microphone?

A

Activated when removed from compartment

Deactivated when compartment doors are closed and TEST/RESET button is pushed.

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34
Q

What system is available for SELCAL and how is an incoming call recognized?

A

VHF only; mic switch on ACP illuminates and chime sounds

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35
Q

Recall degraded cabin communications considerations when operating with GEN L
OFF (and left AC and DC busses amber) or Complete Loss of AC Power

A

No flight attendant CHIME capability exists with aircraft GEN L OFF (and left AC and
DC busses amber) or Complete Loss of AC Power. The CABIN INTERPHONE must
be selected ON to enable flight attendant communication with the cockpit

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36
Q

EMER PWR Selector function

Test indications

Crew limitation

A

If power is lost to either AC or DC EMER buses, Battery will power these buses.

Automatically tested on ground with both engines shut down when switch moved from OFF to ARM. Indications: ON light illuminates and EMER PWR TEST alert displays.

Must be OFF if crew leaves a/c with EXT PWR.

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37
Q

which buses are powered on EMER PWR and how long the battery can provide
power

A 
approximately 60 minutes:
 Battery direct bus
 DC transfer bus
 Emergency AC bus (through emergency inverter)
 Emergency DC bus
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38
Q

Explain the function of the L/R BUS TIE Switches

A

Open – Respective generator cannot power the
tie bus. Can also be used to reset a bus tie
lockout on the ground
AUTO – Generator bus to tie bus connection is
controlled automatically to meet aircraft power
requirements

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39
Q

Recall the function of the DC BUS TIE Switch

A

OPEN - Opens all three DC bus tie relays
AUTO - DC bus tie relays are automatically controlled to
ensure all DC buses are powered

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40
Q

Recall the function of the L/R GEN Switches

A

RESET – Resets the generator
OFF – Disconnects the generator from the respective bus
ON – Allows an operating generator to supply power to its respective bus

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41
Q

Recall the function of the APU Power Switch

A

RESET – Resets the generator
OFF – Disconnects the APU generator from the tie bus
ON – Allows an operating APU generator to supply power to the tie bus

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42
Q

Recall the function of the EXT Power Switch

A

OFF – Disconnects EXT PWR from the tie bus

ON – Connects EXT PWR to the tie bus

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43
Q

Recall the function of the GND SERVICE ELEC PWR Switch

A

OFF - Neutral position for ground service power
ON - Connects external power to the AC ground service bus and powers the
DC ground service bus. EXT power switch is OFF

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44
Q

Recall features of the No Break Power Transfer (NBPT)

A

 Normally, all electrical power source transfers will occur without power interruption
 Momentary breaks in power supply, however, may occur during the transfer of power
from the APU to an external source OR if a supplying generator experiences an
unexpected power loss (due to a flameout or unexpected shutdown, etc)

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45
Q

Rated thrust of BR715 engine

A

21,000 lbs

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46
Q

Engine starter duty cycle limits

A

Three start attempts, with a maximum of 3 minutes duration each
 15 seconds is required between start attempts
 Allow 15 minutes of starter cooling before further start attempts are made

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47
Q

Recall the requirements for a ground, engine AUTO START

A

IGNITION Switch – AUTO
ENG START Switch—Pulled
FUEL Switch – ON

During an auto-start, the EEC controls all fuel metering and ignition to the respective
engine once the ENG START Switch is pulled and the FUEL Switch selected ON. The
auto-start includes an automatic 30 second engine motoring delay before fuel is
introduced
Auto-Start also includes a TGT protection threshold and will not allow fuel introduction
unless the respective TGT is below 150ºC

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48
Q

Recall reasons for an Auto Abort during a ground engine Auto Start

A
  • Hung Start
  • Starter duty timer is exceeded (3 minutes)
  • Hot Start (or impending hot start) - 700ºC
  • Fuel On condition not satisfied (TGT is above 150ºC)
  • Loss of valid N2 input
  • Certain failures of both channels of EEC
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49
Q

Are inflight starts AUTO or MANUAL?

A

Manual only.

AUTO ABORT start protections provided by the EEC are not available
during in-flight starts – ALL in-flight starts are MANUAL starts

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50
Q

Recall the required engine warm up and cool down times

A

WARM UP

  • following engine shut down of 2 hrs or less = NONE
  • following engine shut down > 2 hrs = 3 min

COOL DOWN
- 3 minutes and verify “ENGINE COOL” alert message on EAD

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51
Q

approximate STD day engine indications after a stabilized start

A 
EPR -- 1.0
N1 – 20%
TGT -- 400
N2 -- 60%
FF -- 600 - 700
Oil Press -- 45
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52
Q

FADEC components?

A

Throttle
Throttle module
EEC

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53
Q

When will EEC provide Automatic Ignition?

auto-relight

A 
DUAL ignition:
 Combustor instability
 Significant water ingestion
 Significant ice ingestion
 Flameout

SINGLE ignition:
-after either ENG ANTI ICE selected on (for 60 seconds)

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54
Q

how to select EMERGENCY thrust

A

by pushing thrust levers through the mechanical gate
(at gate is MAX thrust, beyond is EMER)

 EPR will still be displayed, however, thrust management will be based on N1
 ATS will disconnect automatically and the QRH should be referenced for reengagement

55
Q

REV thrust indications

A

U/L = not stowed
REV (green) = 90% deployed

REV (red) = uncommanded deployment; EEC reduces thrust to IDLE on affected engine

56
Q

how to select EMERGENCY REVERSE power

A

Emergency reverse thrust is obtained by pulling the reverse thrust
levers through a mechanical gate (and holding them in position)

When selected, engine damage can occur, and a maintenance
inspection will be required

57
Q

Recall the APU starter motor duty cycle

A

 The APU starter duty cycle is limited to three consecutive start attempts
 Wait 30 minutes prior to further start attempts

58
Q

Recall the normal and back-up fuel supply for the APU

A

 APU fuel is normally supplied from the right main tank
 Using crossfeed, fuel can be supplied from the left tank
 When center tank pumps are used to supply fuel to the APU (both pumps ON), a right
main tank fuel boost pump should also be operating
 When center tank fuel value is less than 800 pounds, using center tank pumps can
force air into the APU fuel line and cause APU flameout or prevent APU start

59
Q

Recall that an APU start incorporates an automatic delay

A

APU starts automatically delay approximately 40 seconds to allow the APU inlet door
to open

60
Q

How long is APU bleed air inhibited after start?

A

2 minutes

61
Q

How to verify APU shutdown cycle is complete?

A

When APU info block disappears from SD ENG display.

Takes approx 1 minute, indicates inlet door is closed.

62
Q

Recall considerations for shutting down the APU both with and without External Power
available

A

NO external power, the BATT switch and EMER PWR selector must remain on until
APU shutdown is complete

WITH external power connected, the EXT power switch or the GROUND SERVICE ELEC
PWR switch must remain ON until APU shutdown is complete

63
Q

Recall the APU continues to run for approximately 17 seconds while a No Power Break
Transfer is performed

A

This delay is bypassed when the flight deck APU FIRE CONT toggle switch is moved
to the OFF & AGENT ARM position OR when the exterior ground APU toggle switch
is moved to the SHUT OFF position
NOTE: It is also bypassed if an APU fire is detected

64
Q

Recall the automatic shutdown features of the APU for both ground and in-flight faults

A

On the ground, when conditions are present that could damage the APU, the APU
automatically shuts down and the amber APU AUTO SHUTDOWN alert is displayed
In-flight, the APU only automatically shuts down for an APU OVERSPEED or an APU
COMPARTMENT FIRE. If an APU FAULT condition occurs in-flight, the APU
automatically shuts down 10 minutes after landing, unless shut down sooner by the
pilot

65
Q

Recall important considerations if FIRE WARNING test is conducted using BATTERY
POWER only

A

All indications will be the same as with “External Power Available” EXCEPT
the First Officer’s MASTER WARNING light will not illuminate and the cyan
PODS TEST PASS alert message on the EAD will not be displayed

NOTE: After APU is started and all busses are powered, the Fire Warning test must
be re-accomplished to confirm all correct indications

66
Q

Recall indications of an ENGINE FIRE

A 
L/R ENG FIRE handle light(s) illuminate
FUEL switch light(s) illuminate
Aural/vocal warnings sound
ENGINE L/R FIRE alert(s) displayed on EAD
MASTER WARNING lights flash
67
Q

Recall indications of an APU FIRE

A

APU automatically shuts down
APU FIRE alert displayed on the EAD
MASTER WARNING lights flash
FIRE light on external APU ground control panel
illuminates
Aural/vocal warnings sound (flight deck – 3 cycles)

68
Q

Recall indications of CARGO SMOKE or FIRE

A

MASTER WARNING lights flash
MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate
Aural/vocal warnings sound
CARGO SMOKE FWD (AFT) level 3 alert on EAD and AIR SD
“Land at Nearest Suitable Airport” – Displayed on CONSEQUENCE Page
DISCH CARGO AGENT – Displayed on EAD and AIR SD
AIR SD will display RED triangles
AFT/FWD CARGO SMOKE AGENT DISCH switchlight will flash “PUSH”

Approximately one minute after the first bottle has been discharged, the illuminated
amber AFT/FWD CARGO SMOKE AGENT DISCH “PUSH” switchlight will extinguish
and be replaced by an amber “LOW” light indicating the first Halon bottle has
discharged. A CARGO AGENT 1 LO alert will also be displayed on the EAD
Approximately six minutes later, similar alerts will direct the crew to discharge the
second Halon bottle into the appropriate cargo compartment. The second bottle,
however, discharges at a much slower rate and the CARGO AGENT 2 LO alert will be
delayed for about 2 hours
The red triangles displayed on the AIR synoptic are cargo smoke detectors

69
Q

Recall cockpit indications of a LAVATORY FIRE

A

MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate
LAVATORY SMOKE alert on EAD
HI-LO chime on PA

70
Q

Recall the operation of the Engines/APU LOOPS switches on the AFT Overhead Panel

A

The fire detection system consists of two independent, heat-sensitive detector loops
located in each engine and the APU. Each loop provides both fire and overheat
detection

BOTH (Normal position) – minimizes false fire warnings since both loops have to
detect fire or overheat condition before activating a fire warning
A/B - Used for dispatch or continued flight with an inoperative loop. In this condition, a
fire warning will occur if the selected loop detects a fire or overheat condition

71
Q

Recall features of the Engine Fire Extinguishing Controls and Indicators

A

ENG FIRE Handle:
Light Illuminated – Associated engine fire is detected or test in progress
Pull (Fully Extended) – Shuts off associated engine FUEL and HYDRAULIC shutoff
valves, trips GENERATOR off and silence AURAL/VOCAL warnings
Rotate (After pulling) – Discharges respective agent into the engine

72
Q

How many fire bottles for engine and APU fire system?

A

2 fire bottles with separate discharges for each engine and APU.

73
Q

How is a cargo fire dectected?

A

2 cargo smoke detectors alarm if system is in NORM. (ANY 2 detectors)
A single detector can trigger alarm if system is in SINGLE.

74
Q

How long can cargo fire system suppress fire?

A

80 minutes

75
Q

How is the rudder powered?

A

Normally - Right Hydraulic system

Manual (RUDDER HYD CONT off) - rudder pedals move control tab and aerodynamic forces move rudder

76
Q

How does the rudder limiting system work?

A

Primary - primary rudder limiter protects the empennage from excessive loads by
restricting rudder travel as airspeed increases. It is a mechanical system operated by
ram air pressure from a pitot tube on the leading edge of the vertical stabilizer

A second rudder restricting system provides rudder limiting in the event the primary
system fails. The system has two positions, restricted and unrestricted, and also
operates as a function of airspeed

77
Q

Will speedbrakes retract if throttles are advanced?

A

If the throttles are advanced to high thrust while the speed brakes are extended,
the speed brake handle remains in position, but the speed brakes automatically
retract – confirmation can be seen on the CONFIGURATION SD

78
Q

Selectable Flap settings

A

UP - 0 - 13 - 18 - 25 - 40

79
Q

Where is slat / flap position displayed?

A

On the configuration SD and on the PFD (below airspeed)

80
Q

Slats powered by?

A

Both hydraulic systems, but either can fully operate

81
Q

Recall the difference between the primary and alternate stabilizer trim systems

A

Horizontal stabilizer trim is controlled by the primary
trim switches, the alternate trim switches, or the
autopilot (auto pilot using alternate trim system)

The primary trim switches are on the control wheel
and used for manual stabilizer trimming at a faster rate

82
Q

Stabilizer trim switch on pedestal
OFF
Normal

A

 Normal - OFF light is extinguished and primary stabilizer trim is enabled
 OFF – (switch is pushed) amber OFF illuminates and electrical power to the brake
is removed, setting the brake to prevent stabilizer movement

83
Q

How are elevators controlled?

A

The elevators are aerodynamically positioned by control tabs, which are
mechanically connected to the control columns
 A variable load feel mechanism simulates aerodynamic forces and returns the
control columns to an artificial center position when they are released

84
Q

How many tabs on the elevators?

A

2 tabs per elevator

 Control Tabs: Operated by the control columns, which then aerodynamically
position the elevators
 Geared Tabs: As each elevator is moved, geared tabs are deflected, providing
aerodynamic assistance in moving elevators
 A total of four tabs aerodynamically position the elevators

85
Q

Recall the function of the elevator augmentation system

A

 The elevator has two hydraulic boost cylinders that augment elevator control during
a deep stall recovery, providing additional nose down capability
 The system is powered by the left hydraulic system with an accumulator backup in
the event system pressure is lost.
 When the elevator augmentation system is activated by pushing the control
columns full forward, the elevators move to full deflection

86
Q

How are spoilers powered?

3 uses?

A

Electrically controlled by SECU, hydraulically powered.

  • Roll augmentation
  • Speed brakes
  • decrease lift/increase drag for landing or rejected t/o `
87
Q

Aileron control?

A

Ailerons are aerodynamically positioned by control tabs mechanically connected to
the control wheels
 Aerodynamic forces on the control tabs position the ailerons
 For greater roll control (with more than 5 degrees of control wheel input) the flight
spoilers extend a proportionate amount on the downward moving wing

88
Q

Recall how pitch control is maintained if either control column jams

A

 An override mechanism, installed on the torque tube connecting the two control
columns, allows each column to operate independently, in the pitch axis, should
either side jam
 A substantial amount of force must be applied to the operable, free column, for the
mechanical disconnect to occur
 Once disconnected, maintenance is required

89
Q

Recall how roll control is maintained if either control wheel jams

A

 The aircraft control wheels are linked together by a torque tube and an override
mechanism
 In the event one control wheel or control tab cable system becomes jammed, roll
control is still possible with the other control tab by overriding the jammed component

90
Q

Recall how ground spoilers are auto-deployed for a rejected takeoff or on landing

A

When armed, the spoilers operate automatically to increase braking during a rejected takeoff
or on landing
 Selecting reverse thrust deploys the spoilers for a rejected takeoff
 When landing, main wheel spin-up OR a ground shift signal from the nose gear
deploys the spoilers

91
Q

How can stick pusher be inhibited?

A

Stick pusher PUSH TO INHIB switchlight

Manually override with aft pressure on control column. (temporary override)

92
Q

Recall the function of the two aircraft Versatile Integrated Avionics units (VIAs)

A

 Two VIAs provide the following functions: data display, flight management computing,
central aural warning, master warning/caution light activation, and flight data acquisition
 Normally VIA-1 provides data for the DUs 1 – 3 and VIA-2 provides data for the DUs 4 - 6
 In case of failure, either VIA unit will automatically provide data for all DUs

93
Q

Recall the function of the two aircraft Versatile Integrated Avionics units (VIAs)

A

 Two VIAs provide the following functions: data display, flight management computing,
central aural warning, master warning/caution light activation, and flight data acquisition
 Normally VIA-1 provides data for the DUs 1 – 3 and VIA-2 provides data for the DUs 4 - 6
 In case of failure, either VIA unit will automatically provide data for all DUs

94
Q

When will flight director automatically display?

A

Go-Around and Windshear detected.

95
Q

IRS NAV OFF Light

A

 ADIRU is off
 ADIRU is in align
mode
 ADIRU failure

96
Q

IRS Flashing NAV OFF Light

A

 During alignment, ADIRU does not receive present
position initialization within 5 to 10 minutes of turn on
 Present position entry fails the comparison test with
either the stored or calculated present position

97
Q

Norm and backup power for ADIRUs? (IRS)

A

 ADIRU-1 is powered by the EMER AC bus and backed up by the aircraft battery if
normal AC power is lost
 ADIRU-2 is powered by the R AC bus and backed up by an independent battery for
a minimum of 30 minutes if normal AC power is lost (retains heading, attitude and
position)

98
Q

When is FDR on and how many hours of data does it record?

A

Records 25 hours of flight operation

 Operative when aircraft parking brake is released and either fuel switch is on

99
Q

How are DMEs and VORs tuned?

A

Normally auto tuned, but can be manually tuned on the MCDU NAV RAD page

100
Q

FMS Speed consideration at 12,000’ in descent?

A

During descent, at or below 12,000 feet, FMS speed edits ABOVE 245 KIAS will not
be honored due to an FMS preloaded 245 KIAS/10,000 restriction

Over ride to meet a higher speed restriction (ex: 11,000 and 280kias) by using speed select passing 12,000.

101
Q

Recall when FMS Speed and PROF will auto-engage if PROF is selected on the ground
prior to takeoff

A

400 AGL

102
Q

Recall when FMS NAV will auto-engage if NAV is selected on the ground prior to
takeoff

A

100 AGL

103
Q

Before takeoff, which climb thrust setting to select?

A

 When TOGW is greater than 100,000 lbs, select CLB1
 When TOGW 100,000 lbs or less, select CLB2
 When the sustained climb rate decreases to less than
1,000 fpm, select the next higher climb thrust setting
(CLB1 or CLB); i.e., CLB2, then CLB1, then CLB

104
Q

Recall an important FMS speed consideration reaching 12,000 MSL in descent

A

During descent, at or below 12,000 feet, FMS speed edits ABOVE 245 KIAS will not
be honored due to an FMS preloaded 245 KIAS/10,000 restriction

pilot should take speed control away from “FMS SPD”
by preselecting 280 KIAS in the IAS window and pulling the IAS knob (Speed Select)

105
Q

How can DME and VOR be manually tuned?

A

MCDU NAV RAD Page.

Auto tune will be disabled until manual tune is deleted.

106
Q

Is Ballast Fuel entered into MCDU?

A

No, it is incoporated into AWABS

107
Q

How to perform the FUEL SYSTEM TEST?

A

It is a maintenance function only.

108
Q

What is the purpose of the START PUMP?

A

A DC start pump, located in the right main tank,
provides fuel pressure for starting the APU or
engines when AC power is not available

109
Q

Fuel tank capacities?

A

Mains - 9,300 lbs
Center - 6,000 lbs

Total: 24,600 lbs

110
Q

Recall the Fuel Return to Tank (RTT) process

A

 Excess warmed fuel cycling through the engine fuel system is returned to the inboard,
cooled corner of each main tank
 This process warms the fuel in the tank and retards wing ice formation due to cooled
fuel
 Fuel return to tank flow may be inhibited by the EEC for many reasons, including:
takeoff, landing, main tank fuel low, or high fuel temperature

111
Q

Describe the use of FUEL X-FEED lever

A

A FUEL X-FEED lever, on the pedestal, permits
routing of fuel from either main fuel tank to one
or both operating engines. Cross-feeding is
enabled when the valve is opened and the
boost pumps on the receiving side are turned off

It may also be used to balance left and right
main tank fuel quantities

112
Q

Recall features of the Fuel Venting system

A

 The fuel vent system permits equalization of pressure between tanks during all fuel
conditions and also prevents siphoning and spilling of fuel during normal flight and
ground maneuvers
 Right and Left main tanks are vented to the center tank. This also permits overflow
from the main tanks to drain into the center tank during fuel return to tank operation
with the main tanks full
 Center tank fuel is vented to the wingtip vent boxes

113
Q

Recall how the APU is supplied fuel

A

The APU normally is supplied fuel from the right main tank, however, if the center tank
contains fuel and its pumps are on, the center tank will supply the APU

114
Q

Recall APU fuel usage for ground operations

A

Recall APU fuel usage for ground operations

115
Q

Recall the function of the AUX hydraulic switch

A

The electrically driven auxiliary pump, located in the right wheel well has two
purposes: to back up the right engine-driven pump and to pressurize the hydraulic
systems on the ground when the engines are not running

If the right engine driven pump fails, or the right engine fails, the AUX pump may
be used to operate all right system components, including the landing gear

The auxiliary pump has built-in thermal protection and automatically shuts down if
it overheats

116
Q

Recall the function of the HYD CONT RUDDER switch

A

Allows selection of manual rudder operation

When the switch is pushed, OFF illuminates,
hydraulic power to the rudder is shut off, and the
rudder reverts to manual operation

117
Q

Recall the function of the TRANS pump switch

A

The transfer pump, located in the left wheel well,
enables a pressurized system to mechanically power
an unpressurized system when both system reservoir
quantities are normal

ON – opens valve on each side of Power Transfer Unit (PTU) to connect left and right
systems
OFF - closes valve on each side of PTU to disconnect left and right systems

118
Q

Recall associated precautions with Hydraulic System Test

A

WARNING: Do not establish hydraulic power which will result in flap, slat, or spoiler
movement unless the wing/flap area has been cleared of personnel and equipment

If possible, coordinate with ground crew or another flight deck crewmember to obtain
clearance to turn on the TRANS and AUX HYDRAULIC pumps. If no outside observer is
available, the TRANS and AUX pumps may be turned on using an alternate procedure
(SP.13)

119
Q

Recall the effect of electrical failure on the Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps

A

When electrical power is removed from an engine-driven pump, the pump defaults to ON

120
Q

Recall what items are controlled by the left hydraulic system

A 
Left Hydraulic System
 Left and right inboard
spoilers
 Left engine thrust
reverser
 Elevator augmentation
system
121
Q

Recall what items are controlled by the right hydraulic system

A 
Right Hydraulic System
 Left and right
outboard spoilers
 Rudder
 Right thrust reverser
 Landing gear
122
Q

Recall what items are controlled by both hydraulic systems

A

Recall what items are controlled by both hydraulic systems

123
Q

Recall the effect on a hydraulic system when pulling an engine fire handle

A

The associated engine hydraulic shutoff valve is closed and fluid supply to the engine
is stopped

124
Q

Reasons for a Takeoff Warning Horn?

A 
Both Throttles Advanced and:
 Brakes – parking brake engaged
 Flaps – Not in agreement with setting entered into FMS
 Slats – Not in takeoff
 Spoilers – Not stowed
 Stabilizer – Not in green band
 Rudder Trim – Not centered
125
Q

When is Predictive Windshear Active?

A

In Flight: Below 2,300’ RA (even if radar is off)
On takeoff, Radar must be ON

Aural Alerts active below 1,200’ RA

126
Q

3 levels of Predictive Windshear Alerts:

Warning
Caution
Advisory

A

WARNING:
Takeoff (inhib 100kts to 50’ AGL) range 3nm
Landing (inhib below 50’ AGL) range 1.5nm
“WINDSHEAR AHEAD” or “GO AROUND-WINDSHEAR AHEAD)
PFD and ND display

CAUTION:
same inhibits as warning
range 3nm
"MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY"
PFD and ND display

ADVISORY:
outside warning and caution range
range 5nm
WINDSHEAR on ND only

127
Q

EIS Alert levels

3
2
1
0

A

Level 3 - BOXED RED
Emergency - require immediate attn.
Master Warning

Level 2 - BOXED AMBER
Abnormal - require immediate attn.
Master Caution

Level 1 - AMBER
may require mx attn before takeoff
Master Caution MAY illuminate

Level 0 - CYAN
a/c status info

128
Q

When are EIS Alerts inhibited on takeoff?

A

Level 3 - V1-400AGL but not longer than 25 seconds

Level 2 or 1 - throttle advance, 80 kts, or V1-20 UNTIL 400AGL, 25 seconds, OR 1000 AFE

Level 0 - not inhibited

129
Q

what is the indication of Takeoff Essential items complete?

A

Green Box on EAD

130
Q

what is the indication of Landing Essential items complete?

What are the items checked?

A

Green Box on EAD

o Landing gear down
o Flaps in landing range
o Spoilers armed

131
Q

GND PROX WARN Switch

FLAP OVRD
NORM

A

 FLAP OVRD – Inhibits warning when landing with less than normal flaps (25 or 40)
 NORM – Normal position

132
Q

BELOW G/S Switch function/inhib?

A

 Indicates excess deviation below glideslope
 Light accompanied by vocal warning “GLIDE SLOPE”
 Pushing switch below 1,000’ RA inhibits or cancels warning

133
Q

When is Reactive Windshear Active?

When does Windshear escape guidance come on?

A

Active Below 1500’

Guidance displayed:
On takeoff - automatically

On landing / go around - only after GAs are pushed OR throttles advanced > 95%

AT and FD will come on automatically if off

Delta 717 IQ (4 decks)

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