Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What causes the FUEL PRESS annunciator to illuminate?

A

UB - <2 psi in the low pressure line

UC - <10 psi in the low pressure line

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2
Q

What is the pressure of the high pressure, engine driven fuel pump?

A

850 psi

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3
Q

What is the max imbalance on the fuel system?

A

UB - 300 lbs

UC - 200 lbs

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4
Q

What is the minimum fuel for TO?

A

363 lbs (54 gal) - yellow arc on the fuel gage

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5
Q

What kind of electrical system does the 1900 have?

A

28 VDC negative ground system.

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6
Q

Components of the electrical system

A

2 - 300 amp starter/generators, 2 generator buses,
1 center bus, 1 triple fed bus, 2 avionics buses
2 inverters, 2- 250 amp current limiters, 3- 275 Hall Effect Devices (HED), 1–24v, 42 amp hr battery located inside right wing stub.

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7
Q

How do the 250A Current Limiters work?

A

They are placed between the center bus and the left and right generator busses for short circuit protection.

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8
Q

If using a GPU cart, what should it be set to for starting the aircraft?

A

30 volts and 1000 amps

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9
Q

Describe the AC inverters

A

2 - 115/26VAC 400Hz

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10
Q

Describe the Hall Effect Devices (HED)

A

3 of these are on board.
They send a signal to the computer that actuate the associated relay when a current of 275 amps or greater is supplied from a single source. This will isolate the affected source.

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11
Q

Describe the load shedding system

A

Automatic load shedding capability. When the battery is the only power source, the system automatically isolate both generator buses. If both generators are secured (or fail), both generator bus ties open, shedding all electrical loads on the generator buses. The battery will continue to power the center, triple fed, and hot battery buses.

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12
Q

What prevents asymmetric flap extension?

A

4 comparator circuits (one on each flap panel) that will disconnect power to the electric flap motor whenever any of the flap panels exceed 3 to 6 degrees out of phase with any other flap panel. Flaps may be deferred for 10 days per MEL.

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13
Q

How long can the landing gear motor run before a time delay will stop it? What else goes wrong?

A

16 seconds. It also shorts out a 2 amp circuit breaker labeled LANDING GEAR RELAY.

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14
Q

Where is the landing gear safety switch located?

A

Right main gear.

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15
Q

How much pressure keeps the landing gear in the unlock position during flight?

A

2775 psi. If this falls below this value to 2320, the hydraulic pack will energize and return the pressure to 2775 psi.

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16
Q

What does the HYD FLUID LOW Annunciator mean?

A

The fluid in the Hydraulic fluid is low in the power pack.

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17
Q

What events will trip the gear warning horn?

A
  1. Whenever the gear is not down and locked (3 green) and either (or both) power levers are reduced to approx 84-86% N1 or less.
  2. With the flaps UP through TAKEOFF, the horn can be silenced by pressing the WARN HORN SILENCE button near handle.
  3. With the flaps set beyond the APPROACH detent, the horn cannot be silenced until the gear is down and locked (3 green).
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18
Q

When will the red “in transit” light in the gear handle illuminate?

A
  1. While the gear is in transit
  2. Whenever the gear is not down and locked (3 green) and either (or both) power levers are reduced to approx 84-86% N1 or less.
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19
Q

What items does the left main gear squat switch operate?

A
  1. Stall vane heat control
  2. Nose wheel steering disconnect
  3. Pressurization system (preset and dump valves)
  4. Hobbs meter (ground path)
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20
Q

What does the right main gear squat switch operate?

A
  1. Ground idle low pitch stop solenoid
  2. Landing gear power pack motor relay and selector valve
  3. J-Hook
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21
Q

How is steering accomplished in the 1900?

A

Through mechanical linkage through the rudder pedals. Wheel will center after takeoff through the squat switch after the aircraft becomes airborne.

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22
Q

What should the gauge indicate during preflight inspection on the hydraulic accumulator and where is it located?

A

Normal indication is about 800 psi and is found in the left main wheel well.

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23
Q

How much pressure is in the hydraulic power pack reservoir?

A

18 psi

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24
Q

Describe the brake system in the 1900?

A

Main wheels are equipped with dual, multi disc, hydraulic brakes actuated by toe brakes on the pilot and copilot rudder pedals. Each toe brake has its own master cylinder.

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25
Q

How is the parking brake used?

A

By depressing the toe brakes, then applying the parking brake.

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26
Q

How does the fire detection system work?

A

Through a loop that is placed near likely areas in the engine area where fire can be found. The loop is triggered when the control amplifier senses a drop in electrical resistance at around 100 ohms and will trigger the appropriate FIRE PULL T handle.

27
Q

How many fire bottles are in each engine?

A

2 bottles - 1 in each engine.

28
Q

Describe the engine inlet heat system

A

This is provided through engine exhaust that is scavenged from the left side of the bifurcated exhaust duct, routed through the hollow stainless steel lip of the cowl, and then returned to the exhaust stream on the right side of the engine. This is automatic and pilot controlled.

29
Q

What is the max allowable time for the ice vanes to deploy?

A

30 seconds

30
Q

Describe the auto-ignition system

A

When this is armed, this will automatically operate the engine ignition whenever the torque falls below 525ft/lbs. Whenever the igniters are energized, the applicable L or R IGNITION ON annunciators will be illuminated.

31
Q

Describe the ice protection for the propeller

A

Electrical elements on the root of each blade heats up the left propeller, then the right prop. The sequence switches every 90 seconds and a full sequence every 3 minutes. Do not operate on the ground except for testing.

32
Q

How is the windshield heat regulated?

A

Through a controller embedded in each windshield which will keep the temperature around 90 to 110 degrees F.

33
Q

Describe the pneumatic system

A

Provided by compressor discharge air (P3) where it is routed to a pressure regulator (18 psi). This air is routed to the pneumatic device boots, bleed air warning tubing (EVA), landing gear hydraulic power pack, Hobbs meter, and vacuum ejector.

34
Q

How does the pressurization system work?

A

The air comes from the left and right bleed air systems where it is delivered to the pressure vessel (forward and aft bulkheads). In the aft bulkhead are 2 outflow valves that “leak” air pressure from the interior of the aircraft to the outside atmosphere as needed to maintain a specified pressure vessel internal pressure. The difference between cabin altitude and outside atmosphere is referred to as “differential pressure” in psi. The limit is 4.8 +/- .1.

35
Q

Describe the oxygen system

A

1 single tank with internal plumbing to 2 masks located overhead with a pull ON valve to supply pressure to the masks. High pressure relief is provided through a cap that will blow out when pressure exceeds 2775 psi. Minimum pressure for dispatch is 1100 psi anytime the flight will be more than 30 min over 10,000 MSL.

36
Q

What 3 sources does the pneumatic fuel control unit receives its inputs?

A
  1. Power selection input from you via the power levers.
  2. Engine speed input via the accessory case (centrifugal flyball assembly)
  3. Pressure input from the P3 section of the engine via pressure tubes.
37
Q

How does the FUEL TOPPING governor work?

A

If the PRIMARY AND OVERSPEED governors were to fail, an uncontrolled propeller overspeed condition could result. The fuel topping governor is part of the Primary Governor and is set to operate when the propeller speed exceeds 6% above the primary governor setting.

38
Q

What is the N1 values for the condition lever for low and high idle?

A

Low - 58%

High - 70%

39
Q

Describe he CLiP check

A
  1. Turn on the Right GEN and observe the R DC GEN annunciator extinguish, 28 V on the CTR bus, and a load on the right load meter.
  2. Shut the Right GEN off, observe the L/R GEN TIE OPEN and R DC GEN annunciator illuminate. The CTR bus voltage should drop to 24V and the right load meter should drop to 0.
  3. Turn on the L GEN and observe the L DC GEN annunciator extinguish, 28V on the CTR bus, and a load on the left load meter.
  4. Turn on the R GEN and check that the R DC GEN annunciator extinguishes and that both loadmeters parallel.
40
Q

What is the Bleed Valve Test?

A
  1. Open both Bleed Air Valves
  2. Select the “T” position on the mode control knob.
  3. Both ENVIR FAIL and ENVIR OFF annunciators should illuminate within 30 sec.
  4. Return the mode control knob to the “OFF” position.
  5. Return both Bleed Air Valves to the ENVIR OFF position and check that both ENVIR FAIL annunciators extinguish.
  6. Move the left bleed air valve to INST and ENVIR OFF and check for pneumatic pressure and gyro suction Gage’s to remain in the green arc.
  7. Move the Right Bleed Air Valve to INST and ENVIR OFF and check that the pneumatic and gyro suction gages drop to zero and both BL AIR FAIL annunciators illuminate.
  8. Move the Left Bleed Air valve to ENVIR OFF and check that the pneumatic and gyro suction gages are back in the green.
  9. Move the Right Bleed Air Valve to ENVIR OFF.
    5.
41
Q

Describe the Run Up procedure

A
  1. Set park brake.
  2. Increase propeller RPM to 1500 utilizing power.
  3. Push and hold Prop Test to Overspeed and slowly advance power levers until propeller RPM stops from 1520-1610, but torque continues to rise. Pull the power levers back to 1500 rPM and release the Overspeed switch.
  4. Reduce propeller RPM to 1400 utilizing propeller levers, then return to full forward.
  5. Arm auto ignition and place Autofeather switch in the “Test” position, and observe both AUTOFEATHER annunciator illuminate.
  6. Reduce left power lever below 525 torque (left auto ignition light should illuminate and right autofeather should extinguish.)
  7. Close left power lever (left engine should start to autofeather, release autofeather switch one propeller RPM decreases through 700.)
  8. Return left power lever to 1500 RPM.
  9. Place autofeather switch in the “Test” position.
  10. Repeat for the right side.
42
Q

What items will abort an engine start?

A
  1. No ITT rise within 10 seconds of fuel introduction.
  2. Rapidly rising ITT through 800 degrees C
  3. Hot or Cold hung start.
  4. Runaway N1 increasing above 70%.
  5. Abnormal indications that will exceed limitations.
43
Q

What is the engine abort procedure in the event that you need to abort engine start?

A
  1. Move condition lever to IDLE CUTOFF
  2. Keep start switch in IGNITION and START
  3. Motor for 20 seconds or until clear.
  4. Do not exceed starter limitations.
44
Q

What call outs are used in the sequence needed during engine start?

A
  1. TURNING #2
  2. ROTATION
  3. IGNITION
  4. OIL PRESSURE RISE
  5. STABILIZED ABOVE 13%
  6. ONE THOUSAND ONE, ETC …. ITT RISE
  7. Monitor engine for need for abort
  8. 50% STARTER OFF
  9. ITT ROLL BACK
  10. Engine checks before starting #1, with the same call outs from #2.
  11. Be sure to do the CLiP check after both engines are running.
45
Q

What are the six (6) anti ice switches that are to be on for all operations on the before takeoff flow?

A
  1. Left pitot heat
  2. Right pitot heat
  3. Left fuel vent heat
  4. Right fuel vent heat
  5. Stall warn heat
  6. Alternate static heat
46
Q

The Generator Control Unit (GCU) has 6 functions, what are they?

A
  1. Voltage regulation
  2. Over voltage protection
  3. Paralleling/load sharing - load within 10% of each meter
  4. Reverse current protection
  5. Line contactor control
  6. Cross start current limiting (400 amp)
47
Q

What does the CLiP stand for?

A

Current limiting
Load shedding
Isolation
Parallel loading

48
Q

How much excess power will lockout the external power?

A

32 V +/- .5 V

49
Q

What 6 items are on the hot battery bus?

A
Baggage door 
Cabin lights 
Captain clock 
Emergency lights 
Fire extinguisher system 
External power announciator
50
Q

What brand of oil and type can we use?

A

BP 2380

51
Q

How much oil is in the engine at full quantity?

A

4 gallons

52
Q

When does the prop overspeed kick in?

A

4% over max RPM

53
Q

When does the fuel topping governor kick in?

A

6% over set RPM and pulls back engine power to slow prop down.

54
Q

What kind of oil can we use for the engine?

A

BP 2380

55
Q

How much oil does the engine hold? Internal tank?

A

4 gallons, 2.5 gal internal?

56
Q

At what point does the overspeed governor kick in?

A

4% over MAX RPM

57
Q

At what point does the fuel topping governor kick in?

A

6% over set RPM

58
Q

What 6 things does the Generator Control Unit (GCU) control?

A
  1. Voltage regulation
  2. Over voltage protection
  3. Paralleling/load sharing
  4. Reverse current protection
  5. Line contractor control
  6. Cross start current limiting (400 amp)
59
Q

What point does the external power lockout start?

A

32.5 volts +/- .5

60
Q

What does CLiP stand for?

A

Current Limiting
Load shedding
Isolation
Parallel

61
Q

What temperature and pressure does the P3 bleed air come out at?

A

90-150 psi

800 degrees F

62
Q

At what temperature and pressure does the precooler bring the bleed air to?

A

450 degrees F +/- 25 degrees

38 psi +/- 2 psi

63
Q

What trips the red ENVIR FAIL annunciator?

A

500 degrees F or 44 psi