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PlaneSense > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What is the body of the aircraft?

A

Primarily aluminum

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2
Q

What is the height of the tail?

A

14’

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3
Q

What is the distance between mains?

A

14’ 10”

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4
Q

What is the wingtip clearance?

A

5’4”

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5
Q

What is the propeller diameter?

A

8’9”

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6
Q

What is the wing span?

A

53’ 4”

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7
Q

What is the direct view window?

A

Small window on pilots side
Normal-ventilation on the ground, must be closed in takeoff
Emergency-smoke evacuation, pilot vis if needed

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8
Q

What is important about the cargo area?

A

400 lbs max

Coat rack, cargo net, doctors bag, vacuum, blanket, light

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9
Q

What is the turbine design called?

A

Free turbine

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10
Q

What type of flow does the engine have?

A

I reverse flow

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11
Q

What is the thermodynamic HP?

A

1605

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12
Q

What is the HP flat rating?

A

1200

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13
Q

Engine inlet

A

Air air comes in
Mesh screen to reduce FOD
Most air is used for cooling

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14
Q

What is the air taken into to engine used for?

A

25% combustion
65% cool combustion chamber
10% secondary air system

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15
Q

What parts make up the cool section of the engine?

A

4-stage axial compressor

1 centrifugal compressor

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16
Q

What helps drive the accessory gear box?

A

The rotational energy from the compressor

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17
Q

What is the secondary air system?

A

Air taken from compressor section and used for other things

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18
Q

Where is P2.5 air taken from?

A

Between the axial compressor and the centrifugal compressor

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19
Q

Where is P3 air taken from?

A

After the centrifugal compressor

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20
Q

What is secondary air used for?

A

Environment control system
Pneumatic de-icing boots
FCU
Fuel purge valve

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21
Q

What is the power section?

A

Hot section
Produce and extract the energy from the hot expanding gases driving the compressor turbine, compressor, and AGB accessories
Drives turbines and propeller to propel aircraft

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22
Q

What is the reduction gear box?

A

Reduces the power turbine speed to a subtle speed for turbine operation
Converts high speed/low torque to low speed/high torque
Planetary gear arrangement

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23
Q

What is the rpm stepped down from in the rejection gear box?

A

30,000 to 1700 rpm

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24
Q

How is speed and torque transmitted to the RGB?

A

Through the turbine shaft

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25
Q

What is the compressor turbine?

A

Extracts energy from the hot gases to the compressor rotor unit
Max rpm of aprox 39,000 rpm at aprox 104%Ng

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26
Q

How many fuel nozzles are there?

A

14

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27
Q

Where does the fuel get out into the engine?

A

Into the combustion chamber

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28
Q

What do the igniters do?

A

Provide spark to initiate and maintain combustion

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29
Q

What is included with the igniters?

A

Exciter box
Ignition cables
Spark igniters (4 and 9 o clock)

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30
Q

How does the ignition usually come on?

A

Automatically

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31
Q

When should the ignition be turned on?

A

Heavy precipitation

Strong turbulence

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32
Q

What happens in the combustion chamber?

A

Compressed air and fuel are ignited and burned
Air not used creates a cushion of air around flame
Too much and the flame will go out
Too little air and the flame will expand and create fire
FCU makes the ratio

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33
Q

What is the bleed air valve?

A

Prevent compressor stall at low Ng

Bleeds excess air to prevent reverse flow at low power settings

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34
Q

What is the accessory gear box?

A

Mounted to rear of the engine

Contains low and high fuel pump, FCU, Fuel/air heat exchanger, oil pumps, generators, starter

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35
Q

What kind of oil system do we have?

A

Pressure oil system

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36
Q

What type of oil do we use?

A

BP 2380 oil

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37
Q

How many scavenge pumps are in the oil system?

A

4
2 in AGB
2 at rear of AGB

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38
Q

Where is the oil cooler?

A 
Under engine air inlet 
2 cooler doors 
One controlled by a thermocouple 
Second controlled by nose landing gear 
Gear down, door open
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39
Q

How does the oil/fuel heater work?

A

Warm ok passes through exchanger to gear up fuel
Amount of oil depends on temp of fuel
No pilot interaction
Provides consistent temp of fuel to FCU for fuel metering

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40
Q

Will you get a low oil quantity CAS with anyone running?

A

No

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41
Q

When should oil be checked?

A

Within 10 min of the engine shutdown

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42
Q

How many engine oil pumps are there?

A

1 being forward to engine

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43
Q

What is the chip detector?

A

2 chip detectors for ferrous material

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44
Q

Where are the two chip detectors?

A

Reduction gear box

Accessory gear box

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45
Q

When will the the CAS message occur from the chip detectors?

A

When the gap between poles fills and the circuit closes

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46
Q

How does the torque system work?

A

Engine oil pressure, goes into a metering office, and then there’s a spring measuring this, through an electric torque signal

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47
Q

What two gases are in the fire detection system?

A

Helium and hydrogen internal core

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48
Q

How does the fire detection system work?

A

If tube is heated over a temp threshold, pressure increases and activates the fire pressure switch

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49
Q

What has will get heated up if it’s the general area?

A

Helium

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50
Q

What gas will be heated up if a local area is heated up?

A

Hydrogen

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51
Q

What is the minimum operating temperature of the fire detection system?

A

-55C

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52
Q

What should be done with the ACS when fire is detected?

A

Shut off

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53
Q

What are the three primary engine controls?

A 
Power control lever (PCL)
Condition lever (Idle Ng)
Manual override (MOR)
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54
Q

What does the manual override lever do?

A

Used in emergencies

Uncommanded Ng rollback of the engine
PCL stuck at idle power

Mannual controls fuel flow

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55
Q

Can MOR be used in reverse mode?

A

No

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56
Q

What does the power control lever?

A

Controls Ng in both forward and reverse

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57
Q

What is Ng?

A

Compressor speed

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58
Q

What is reverse called?

A

Beta mode

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59
Q

What is the condition lever used for?

A

Cut off engine, and choose flight and ground idle

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60
Q

How many fuel tanks do we have?

A

4

2 main, 2 collector tanks

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61
Q

What is the total fuel capacity?

A

406, 402 useable

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62
Q

What do we always get put in our fuel?

A

Prist

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63
Q

What is the purpose of the collector tank?

A

In order to always keep constant fuel supply

Important in turns

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64
Q

How many fuel drains are there?

A

2 per wing, on each tank
Air separator
Fuel filter

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65
Q

What kind of fuel can we use?

A 
Jet A
Jet A-1
Jet B
Jp-4
100LL
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66
Q

What are the rpm limits on the propeller?

A

350-950rpm

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67
Q

What three things govern the prop?

A

Constant speed unit
Overspeed governor
Nf Governor

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68
Q

What does the transfer jet pump do?

A

Venturi

Main to collector

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69
Q

What does the delivery jet pump do?

A

Moves fuel from collector tank to fuel delivery system

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70
Q

What are the three times you’d use the electric boost pumps?

A

Engine start
Low fuel conditions
Fuel tank imbalance

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71
Q

What if the order on parts going down the fuel system?

A 
Tanks
Boost pump
Mx shutoff
Filter
Air separator 
Low pressure switch 
Firewall shutoff 
Low pressure pump 
Fuel/ oil heat exchanger 
High pressure fuel pump 
Filter
FCU
Fuel flow transducer 
Fuel flow divider and dump valve 
Fuel nozzle
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72
Q

What does the MX shutoff look like?

A

Stick that come out of access panel

73
Q

What is important about the fuel filter?

A

Bypass valve if blockage occurs

Red turkey stick shoots out

74
Q

What does the air delegator do?

A

Separates vapors from he fuel system and returns back to main fuel tank
Low pressure switch located at the end

75
Q

What is the low pressure switch connected to?

A

Accessory gear box

76
Q

What does the low pressure pump do?

A

Provides fuel to the engine system and motive flow lines

Can be substituted with electric boost pumps

77
Q

Where is the firewall shutoff?

A

I’m between pilots on the left side

78
Q

What does the fuel/oil heat exchange do?

A

Warms engine oil to increase temperature of the fuel before it enters the FCU

79
Q

What controls the the amount of oil that flows trough the heat exchanger?

A

A thermal couple valve

80
Q

What controls the FCU?

A

PCL, Condition lever, MOR

Mechanical driven by gear box

81
Q

What does the fuel flow transducer do?

A

Monitors fuel flow down stream from FCU and display on EIS panel

82
Q

What does the fuel flow divider do?

A

Automatically divides fuel flow into a primary and secondary supply

83
Q

What does the purge air accumulator do?

A

Forces pressurized air through fuel nozzles on shutdown forcing unburned fuel into combustion chamber

84
Q

How many fuel nozzles are there?

A

14

85
Q

When using the boost pumps what shuts off the other fuel tank?

A

Flap valves

86
Q

What does the overspeed governor do?

A

Control prop pitch and RPM when a CSU failures occurs by controlling oil flow

87
Q

What is the max RPM of the overspeed governor?

A

1802

88
Q

What happens when the condition lever is moved to cutoff/feather?

A

Electric switch in the condition lever will open feathering solenoid
Engine oil will flow out of the hub and pitch goes the feather

89
Q

When is the Nf governor used?

A

I’m the event of a CSU and overspeed governor failure

Control prop in beta and reverse

90
Q

What RPM does the Nf governor limit the engine to?

A

1870

1650 in reverse

91
Q

How does Nf governor control RPM?

A

By bleeding by Py air so that FCU assumes less pressure and delivers less fuel

92
Q

What is the constant speed unit?

A

Controls pitch by supplying pressurized oil to the propeller hub

93
Q

What is the max RPM for the constant speed unit?

A

1700

94
Q

What is connected to the beta ring and valve?

A

The PCL

95
Q

How does the beta ring and valve work?

A

PCL moved aft
Linkage will begin to open beta valve
Engine oil flows into hub
And prop changes the beta ring will close the beta valve

96
Q

Which aileron is the trim tab on?

A

Left

97
Q

What does the cleaner tab do?

A

Decreases roll control forces needed

Servo

98
Q

How main trim motors are there I. The stabilizer?

A

2

Main and secondary

99
Q

Which stabilizer trim does the autopilot use?

A

Use autopilot

100
Q

When should the pitch trim be set to the diamond?

A

When the CG is 236 inches or aft of the datum

101
Q

What does the yaw damaged use?

A

Rudder trim

102
Q

How many motors are stopped using the trim interrupt switch?

A

All

103
Q

What kind of falls do we have?

A

Slotted Fowler

104
Q

What does the flap control warning unit do?

A

Monitors for abnormalities

105
Q

What happens if he flaps are manually interrupted?

A

Flaps will be disabled for remainder of flight and require mx on the ground

106
Q

How does the flap control and warming unit sense asymmetry?

A

Rotation sensors at the end of flexible shafts

Sense binding and twisting through sensors at each jack screw

107
Q

When will you get the pusher caws?

A

Flaps two degrees, go into

Pusher safe mode

108
Q

In pusher safe mode when will the shaker and pusher activate?

A

5 kts faster

109
Q

How does the flap power drive unit work?

A

Single motor drives two flexible shafts to jack screws

110
Q

What is the dynamic speed bug based off of?

A

1.3 Vso

111
Q

When will shaker activate?

A

5-10 kts above pusher speed

112
Q

How many computers are needed for shaker and pusher mode?

A

Shaker-1

Pusher-2

113
Q

How many pounds of force is the pusher?

A

65 one

114
Q

When is the pusher inhibited?

A

With the switch

5s after takeoff

115
Q

How will you enter pusher ice mode?

A

Separator open

Prop heat on

116
Q

In pusher ice mode when will the pusher occur?

A

8 degrees sooner

117
Q

When will pusher safe mode occur?

A

Asymmetry with flaps

118
Q

When will the pusher activate with pusher safe mode?

A

5 kts faster

119
Q

How many volts is the electrical system?

A

28V DC

120
Q

How many generators and batteries are there?

A

Two of each

121
Q

How many volts and amps are the batteries?

A

24 V 40 amp

122
Q

How many volts and amps are the generators?

A

28 volts 300 amp

123
Q

How high can the generators spike?

A

450 amp for 2 min/hour

124
Q

How many power lines does the system have?

A

2

Primary and secondary

125
Q

What is the emergency power supply?

A

24V 5ah

126
Q

What connects gen 1 and 2?

A

Bus tie

127
Q

Is the bus tie open or closed when the system is working properly?

A

Open

128
Q

Where are the power junction boxes for each generator?

A

On either side of the pilots

129
Q

What does the battery and external power junction box contain?

A

Batteries, external power, hot battery bus, hot battery bus, associated circuit breakers

130
Q

Where is the BEPJB?

A

Rear fuselage

131
Q

When would the emergency power system provide power?

A

Dual generator and battery failure

132
Q

What charges the EPS? P

A

Essential bus from either battery

133
Q

What will the EPS power?

A

ESIS- electronic standby ADI
Cabin altitude sensor
CPCS channel 1 motor for outflow valve
Mag compass light

134
Q

If you lose generator 2, what will you lose?

A

Gen 2 bus
Non essential bus
Cabin bus

135
Q

What order do we turn on the switches?

A

Standby bus
EPS
Batt 2
Batt 1

136
Q

What does the shuttle valve do?

A

Allows either pilot or co pilot to apply brake pressure to the system

137
Q

What will the parking brake do?

A

Traps fluid in the brake assembly

138
Q

What is the brake assembly made of?

A

Puck assembly

Steel friction surfaces

139
Q

How can you know if the brake is good to go?

A

Three fusible plugs if there’s too much heat

Brake lining wear indicators, when flush overhaul is needed

140
Q

How is the gear held up in the hydraulic system?

A

Hydraulic pressure

141
Q

How is the gear held up in the electrical system?

A

Mechanical brake

142
Q

How is the gear held down in the electric system?

A

Over center

143
Q

How is the war held down in the hydraulic system?

A

Pin locking mechanism

144
Q

When will you get a warning that your gear is still up?

A

Airspeed less than 130 and PCL idle
Flaps at more than 15 degrees
Radar altitude less than 200, power less than 10 psi

145
Q

How does MAU determine the air/ground state?

A

WOW sensors
Radar altimeter
Calibrated airspeed

146
Q

What is controlled by Air/Ground signals?

A 
Hydraulics
Flaps
Stick pusher computers 
Logo lights 
Prop deice 
Flight time counter 
Weather radar
147
Q

What will happen when the air/ground system fails?

A

Default to air mode

148
Q

How does the ECS control temperature?

A 
ACS temperature control valve
Vent fans
Flood fan
Cabin heater
VCCS
149
Q

How do pilots manipulate the different components of the ECS?

A

They don’t, it’s automatic

Some functions can be inhibited

150
Q

What is used for ECS in normal mode?

A

ACS

Some supplemental portions

151
Q

What is used in ground mode for ECS?

A

Supplemental hearing and VCCS

No ACS

152
Q

What is the highest temperature that can be split between cabin and cockpit?

A

5

153
Q

In general, what are the three steps of the pressurization system?

A

ACS provides bleed air
Cabin fills with compressed air
Cabin pressure control unit controls exhaust of air through outflow valve

154
Q

What is the max pressure differential?

A

5.75

155
Q

When will the safety pressure relief valve engage?

A

6-6.35

156
Q

What are here ways that the CPCS can regulate cabin pressure?

A

Aircraft altitude
Landing field elevation
System mode

157
Q

What are the three system modes for the pressurization?

A

Normal
Low cabin
High field

158
Q

What is normal mode for pressurization?

A

Climbs and descends based on schedule
Max cabin differential at 30,000
Climb and descend together after 1300 feet

159
Q

What is low cabin mode for pressurization?

A

Used to maintain lowest cabin altitude and maximum differential

Cabin altitude will be set to the higher of landing field elevation or cabin altitude with maximum differential

160
Q

What is high field for pressurization?

A

Automatically happens when landing field elevation is higher than 10,000

161
Q

When does the pressure relief valve open?

A

When do fertile exceed 6.35 or negative pressure relief

Pneumatic pressure

162
Q

How many negative pressure relief valves are there?

A

2

163
Q

What do the negative pressure relief valves do?

A

Prevent a negative cabin differential

Top of bulkhead

164
Q

What does he dump toggle do?

A

Fully opens the outflow valve

165
Q

How much can you be pressurized for landing?

A

.7

166
Q

When does cabin oxygen activate?

A

13,500

167
Q

When will you get a red warning for cabin altitude?

A

10,500

168
Q

When will you get an amber caution for cabin differential?

A

6

169
Q

When will you get a red warning for cabin differential?

A

6.35

170
Q

What is the max cabin differential?

A

5.75

171
Q

What should the oxygen be charged to?

A

1841 psi

172
Q

How much oxygen will be provided to passengers and crew?

A

10 min

173
Q

How does the oxygen tank prevent being over pressurized?

A

Pressure relief disk will rupture at 2775 psi

174
Q

What order the boots go in?

A 
Stabilizer 
Lower inner 
Upper inner
Lower outer
Upper outer
175
Q

How is the intake heated?

A

Use exhaust gases

176
Q

What is the inertial separator?

A

Prevents FOD from entering engine compressor section

177
Q

What is the range of the Honeywell RDR 2000?

A

10 degree beam width

40 nm

178
Q

What is the range on the lightening detection?

A

200 nm

PlaneSense (11 decks)

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