Systems Flashcards
1
Q
When will the Emer exit lights illuminate if armed?
A
DC Bus #1 fails or AC power is turned off
2
Q
When will fasten belts light automatically illuminate?
A
With AUTO selected, by reference to the LDG and Flap positions:
- ON when Flaps or Gear are extended
- Off when flaps and gear are retracted
3
Q
When is the pax o2 system activated automatically?
A
Cabin Alt of 14,000’ (14, 650 for Tails 550WN and 551WN)
4
Q
how long will the pax o2 system provide o2?
A
Approximately 12 minutes. Pulling 1 mask activates all 4 and cannot be shut off
5
Q
How can a locked flight deck door be accessed from the pax cabin?
A
Emer access code, after expiration of the time delay. Continuous unlock chime and AUTO UNLK light flashes.
6
Q
How can teh flight deck be alerted in the event of an attendant handset failure?
A
By pressing 1 then ENT keys on the emergency access panel, the flight deck chime will sound.
7
Q
-800/8 Max: what does ZONE TEMP light indicate?
A
Illuminated (without recall)
- CONT CAB indicates a duct overheat or failure of pri & STBY control
- FWD or AFT CAB indicates duct overheat
Recall:
- CONT CAB = fail of flight deck pri or STBY temp control
- FWD or AFT CAB = fail of associated zone control
- Lights will extinguish when MC is reset
8
Q
What additional functionality does a MAX BLEED light provide compared to the NG?
A
An incorrect bleed air configuration after takeoff or go-around (45” after flap retraction)
- Turning either BLEED sw ON extinguishes both BLEED lights if lights illuminated for config error
9
Q
What could the illumination of both PACK lights in a MAX indicate?
A
An incorrect pack config after t/o or G-A (45” after flap retraction)
- Turning either pack ON extinguishes both if caused by config error
- A 10-minute time-out is associated that will extinguish the bleed lights even if config is not changed before that time elapses
10
Q
What does illumination of the Cabin Pressurization Panel AUTO FAIL light indicate?
A
Amber: Auto pressurization system failure detected:
- Indicates a single controller failure when ALTN light is also illuminated
- Indicates dual controller failure when illuminated alone
With illumination of auto fail light, system auto transfers to the ALTN. Moving switch to ALTN will extinguish the AUTO FAIL light, however the ALTN light remains illuminated
11
Q
What is risk with a DUAL BLEED light?
A
APU and 1 or more engine bleeds are open, which could allow for a back pressure of the APU. Thrust must be limited to IDLE with a DUAL BLEED
12
Q
How can cabin alt be controlled manually?
A
Man Control on the panel, then open/close the outflow valve. Monitor cabin altitude panel and valve position indicator.
13
Q
How can maximum airflow for ventilation be provided when APU is only source?
A
Force “APU high airflow” by placing either or both pack switches to HIGH.
14
Q
What caution light illuminates if the aircraft begins to descend without reaching the preset cruise altitude?
A
OFF SCHED DESCENT. Controller automatically programs field elevation of departure airport.
15
Q
How can the operation of the window heat be verified if a Window Heat switch is turned on and the green Window Heat ON light does NOT illuminate?
A
Window Heat Test switch to PWR TEST (“Confidence Test”)
16
Q
When will the Probe Heat automatically turn on with the switch in auto?
A
When either engine is running
17
Q
Difference between NG and MAX Engine A/I ops?
A
NG: Individual control, per engine, for Cowl Heat only. Illuminate = pressure problem
MAX: Individual control of cowl heat but core heat automatically functions in the engine via the EECs.
18
Q
NG and MAX both have COWL ANTI-ICE lights. What do they indicate?
A
Overpressure condition in the duct downstream of the engine A/I valve
19
Q
MAX has ENG ANTI-ICE and COWL VALVE lights. What do they indicate?
A
A/I: cowl TAI inhibited due to system failure or when an engine core A/I valve fails closed
Cowl Valve:
- Momentary: valve in transit
- Steady: valve position disagrees with the related switch position
20
Q
What do the Wing A/I valves and switches do if the wing A/I switch is on during T/O?
A
Both valves close if either TL is above T/O warning or either temp sensor senses duct overheat.
Wing A/I automatically trips OFF when Air/Ground sensor goes to air mode.
21
Q
What does positioning the Wing A/I switch to ON in-flight do to the stall warning logic?
A
Activates stall warning for icing conditions.
1. Adjusts stick shaker and min maneuver bars. FMC VREF is NOT adjusted automatically.
2. Stall logic remains in icing mode for remainder of flight, regardless of switch position.
22
Q
At what altitude does the MCP IAS/MACH display auto switch from IAS to Mach?
A
~FL 260
23
Q
What are the criteria to arm VNAV on the ground?
A
- Route loaded
- Valid PWB
- Both FD’s on
VNAV guidance activates at 400’ AGL
24
Q
What does selecting ATL INTV do if at VNAV cruise?
A
- If MCP alt is above FMC cruise, resets cruise alt to MCP and initiates cruise climb
- If MCP is lower (but at or > any constraint), a CRZ DES occurs if the acft is >50nm from TOD. The result is cruise alt reset to the MCP ALT and VS commands 1,000 fpm to new cruise.
— If < 50nm from TOD, Early Descent mode is invoked - If > 50nm to TOD and MCP alt below current alt AND a descent constraint, enters Early Descent VS of 1,000fpm until path intercept or MCP ALT level-off occurs
25
What does TOGA AFCS command when engaged for takeoff?
Pitch in the following order:
- 10 degrees ND until 60 KIAS
- 15 degrees NU after 60 KIAS
- 15 degrees NU after lift-off until sufficient climb rate is acquired, then commanded to maintain MCP speed plus 20 KTS
26
What does the AFDS pitch command* if an engine failure occurs (1) at, (2) after lift-off? (* Think speed)
- At (on ground): targets V2 or airspeed at lift-off, whichever is greater
- After:
— V2 if A/S < V2
— Existing speed, if between V2 and V2+20
— V2 + 20 if A/S is > V2+20
27
What guidance does the GA mode of the AFDS provide?
- 1st push: thrust for 1-2,000 fpm climb. A/T mode of “GA” on FMA
- A/P disengages
- Pitch is TOGA and pitch mode of “TO/GA” on FMA
- F/D pitch commands 15 degrees NU until reaching programmed rate of climb, then target A/S for each flap setting based on max t/o weight calculations
- Roll holds current ground track (“Roll Mode” FMA) at or < 50’ AGL. >50’ AGL = LNAV engages.
- IAS/Mach display blanks
- Commanded A/S cursor auto moves to target airspeed for existing flap base on max TOW
28
What do the FD and A/P do if windshear is encountered during an ILS approach?
Attempt to hold the acft on altitude or on G/S (if captured), without regard to AOA or stick shaker limits. A/S could decrease < shaker and into a stall if pilot does not intervene by pushing TOGA or disconnecting the A/P & flying manually
29
How can the CVR be erased?
Push the erase switch (red) for 2”. All 4 channels are erased. Only works on ground with parking brake set
30
If the VHF radio has the Alt Mode selected, what radios are available for Xmit and Rec at the degraded station?
- Capt: VHF 1
- FO: VHF 2
- Observer: VHF 1
The speaker and speaker switch are inop at that station and flight interphone/service interphone cannot be used.
31
How can WiFi be limited to Crew Only?
Push the button to cycle to CREW ONLY (green) or
Broadband System Switch: Crew Only
32
Why does the QRH direct the gen drive DISCONNECT switch to be placed in the Disconnect position?
Prevents generator drive damage
33
What could cause the DRIVE light to illuminate?
- IDG Failure
- IDG auto disconnect due to high oil temp
- IDG disconnect through IDG Disconnect switch
- Engine shutdown
34
How is the transfer bus powered if the respective IDG is disconnected?
With the Transfer bus switch in AUTO = automatically transfers through the bus tie breaker
35
How does load shedding function for a single generator operation?
System is designed to auto-shed electrical load incrementally based on actual load sensing.
36
What does a TR UNIT light indicate?
Ground: any 1 TR has failed
Air: Either TR 1 failed or both TR 2 & 3 failed
37
Why does the QRH prohibit the use of the AFDS approach mode? (Think electrical system)
At G/S capture, the cross bus tie relay automatically opens, isolating DC bus 2 to prevent a single failure from affecting both navigation receivers and FCCs
38
What does the STANDBY PWR OFF light indicate?
1 or more of the following are unpowered:
- AC or DC standby bus
- Batt bus
39
What does a SOURCE OFF light indicate?
No manually selected source or the manually selected source has been disconnected.
(Note: If a source has been selected to power the opposite transfer bus, both transfer busses are powered.)
40
Can the APU gen supply power to both AC transfer buses in flight?
Yes
41
How much time will a fully charged batter provide standby power?
- 2 batteries ~60 min
- 1 battery ~30 min
42
What is the normal batt voltage if checked on the DC metering panel?
22-30V
43
How is standby power provided if all engine and APU electrical power is lost?
With STBY SW in AUTO, loss of all A/C electrical power causes the batteries to power the standby loads (air and ground). AC STBY bus is powered from the batteries via static inverter. DC Standby Bus, Batt Bus, Hot Bat Bus, and Switched Hot Bat Bus are powered directly from the battery(ies)
44
What flight instruments are available if the battery is the only source of electrical power?
Capt’s:
- inboard display with navigation display
- outboard display with PFD
Clocks
Left EFIS Control Panel
- Some 700: integrated standby flight instrument display, standby mag compass
- Some 700, All 800: RMI, standby airspeed/altimeter, SAI, standby mag compass
45
How does the EEC indicate an impending hot start?
White blinking EEC senses condition that may lead to hot start or stall during ground. Current versions of EEC software will automatically cut fuel for an impending hot start or stall on ground.
46
What is indicated if the oil quantity is displayed in reverse video accompanied by “LO”?
Low oil quantity.
- Note: oil qty may decrease significantly during STTO. If this occurs, engine operation is not impacted and the correct oil qty should be indicated during level flight.
- Note: oil qty as low as zero is normal if windmilling N2 RPM is <~8%
47
What structural limit protection does the EEC provide?
N1 and N2 redline over speed in both norm and alt. Does NOT provide overtemp protection
48
What do icing idle and approach idle provide in a MAX?
Icing idle is required to meet the bleed demand of the TAI. Approach idle improves acceleration time in the event of a G-A. When in icing mode, EEC begins to transition from min flight idle at 30,400’ and increases idle to provide full icing idle at or below 22,000’. Approach idle is w/flaps 15 or greater, or any time they’re not up and TAI is on.
49
What happens if the oil filter becomes saturated w/contaminants?
Oil automatically bypasses the filter. Prior to that, OIL FILTER BYPASS alert illuminates on upper display unit
50
What protection does the EEC provide for normal starts?
Turn off ignition and shuts off fuel for impending hot start. If EGT exceeds limit, EGT display, both box and dial, turn red. EEC auto turns off ign and shuts off FF. Alert terminates and returns white < start limit. > shutdown, of both engines, EGT box turns red to remind crew of exceedance. A wet start = EGT does not rises after IDLE. EEC turns off ign and shuts off FF 15” after start lever moved to idle
51
What methods are available for inflight engine start?
Windmill and cross bleed.
52
How long should the APU be operated before using as (1) bleed source? (2) How long should the APU be operated with no bleed air load prior to shut-down?
(1) 2 minutes
(2) 1 minute
53
What does the MAX crew alert THRUST indicate?
Steady:
- Thrust is > or < commanded
- Displayed in conjunction with amber N1 command sector for affected engine
Blinking:
- With condition of more than or less than commanded thrust. The alert and entire block will blink for 10” then the alert will remain steady until the condition no longer exists
54
What does the MAX crew alert FUEL FLOW indicate?
Steady:
- Engine FF is abnormally high when compared to FMC expected FF
Blinking:
- With Engine FF is abnormally hi, alert and entire block blink 10” then steady until cleared (blinking is inhibited)
- During T/O from 80 Kts to 400’ RA, or 30” > reaching 80 Kts (whichever first)
- During landing <200’ RA until 30” > touchdown
- During periods when blinking is inhibited, alerts illuminate steady
55
What does the REVERSER LIMITED light indicate on a max?
Ground: a fault has occurred in the reverser system
Air: fault in the reverser system limits reverse thrust. May not deploy or be limited to idle
56
What is the diff btw NG and MAX APU panel besides the common OFF/ON/START switch and identical meaning LOW OIL PRESSURE, FAULT, and OVERSPEED lights?
Max has no EGT gauge or MAINT light but has a new DOOR light
57
What does the illumination of the FAULT light on the Ovht/Fire Pro Panel indicate?
Detector in Norm = both detector loops for an engine have failed.
In A or B = selected loop for an engine has failed.
NOTE: MC and OVHT/DET system annunciation lights do NOT illuminate
58
What powers the engine overheat and fire detection? Extinguishing?
1. Detection by the battery bus
2. Extinguishing by the hot battery bus
59
What are the indications of an APU fire when conducting an exterior preflight?
Wheel well APU fire warning horn sounds and fire warning light flashes
60
How can the APU be shut down using the ground control panel?
- Pull the fire control T-handle down
- Move the safety wired APU bottle discharge switch left
- Fire alarm can be silenced by pushing the cutout switch
61
What fire protection do the cargo compartments have?
Smoke detectors in dual loop config. Normally both must detect to cause an alert.
- ETOPS have 180 minutes to land + 15 min protection.
- Non-ETOPS have 60 minutes to land + 15 min reserve
62
What indications of Lav fire?
Smoke detector system:
- Aural warning
- Red status indicator light
- No flight deck indication
Silenced at the activated detector or after 30” of no detection
63
What happens when Flt Ctl switch moved to STYB RUD?
Activates standby hydraulic system pump and opens standby rudder shutoff valve to pressurize standby rudder control unit
64
When does rudder become aerodynamically effective during T/O?
Between 40-60 knots
65
How can the usable system be identified if the ailerons or spoilers are jammed?
Break the controls free.
- If captain’s works, ailerons work (spoilers jammed)
- If FO’s works, spoilers work (ailerons jammed)
66
What does the Force Fight Monitor do?
Detects opposing pressure between A and B actuators. FFM will automatically turn on the standby hydraulic pump, open the standby rudder shutoff valve to pressurize standby rudder PCU, and illuminate STBY RUD ON, MC, and FLT CONT lights
67
What will the spoilers do if the SB lever is in the down position during landing?
Will operate when:
- MLG wheels spin-up >60 knots
- Both thrust levers are retarded to IDLE
- Reverse thrust levers are positioned for reverse thrust
…then SB lever automatically moves to the UP position and spoilers deploy
68
When are 15 flaps used during normal operations?
Where approach climb performance is a factor
69
For what flap positions will the slats extend to the full extend position?
700: >5
800/Max: >25
70
How do autoslats enhance stall characteristics?
When the aircraft approaches the stall angle, the slats automatically begin driving to full extend prior to stick shaker activation
71
How does the alt flaps system actuate the trailing edge flaps and leading edge flaps/slats?
- TEF are extended / retracted via an electric motor
- LEF/S are extended by standby hyd pressure and do not retract
72
What does illumination of the SB EXTENDED light indicate in flight?
NG & MAX: the SB lever is beyond armed and TE flaps extended more than 10, or RA <800’.
Max: thrust levers are above idle with the SB extended > armed
73
What does the speed trim system provide?
Best for low GW, aft CG, and Hi thrust when autopilot not engaged. Trims to maintain speed.
In MAX: STS also provides MCAS pitch stab augmentation
74
How does the Maneuvering Characteristics Augmentation System (MCAS) enhance pitch stability?
> an AOA threshold, nose-down stab incrementally. Attempts to mitigate stall but stops stab at point where elevator control exceeds stab control
75
How does the MAX maintain an acceptable nose landing gear contact margin on landing?
Flaps 30 or 40 = landing attitude modifier symmetrically deploys flight spoilers on approach to reduce lift and force the aircraft to use a higher AOA
76
What does the “shark’s tooth” on A/S tape indicate during T/O? Approach?
T/O: V2 + 15
Approach:
700: Vref +15
800/Max: Vref +20
77
What does the IAS DISAGREE alert indicate?
Capt & FO A/S indicators disagree by >5 kts for 5 continuous seconds
78
What is the diff between a CDS* MAIN alert and a CDS FAULT alert (NG)
*Common Display System> AOM 3.11.3 doesn’t help explain what this is at all.
CDS MAINT (White): a dispatchable CDS fault has occurred
CDS FAULT (Amber): a non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred
79
How could the use of the A/P be regained if a DEU fails and the FD Pitch command bar disappears and the A/P engages in CWS pitch?
Select opposite A/P
80
What does a (NG) DSPLY SOURCE/(MAX) DSPLY SOURCE 1 alert and the illumination of the EEC ALTN light indicate and which QRH checklist should be used?
DEU ha failed. Loss of DEU = loss of signal to both EECs. The EEC ALTN lights illuminate and each EEC reverts to ALT mode. The root cause of a DEU would lead to the selection of the DISPLAY SOURCE QRH checklist but either the DISPLAY SOURCE or EEC ALTERNATE MODE will address the situation
81
What does illumination of flashing IRS ALIGN light indicate?
No position, wrong position, or aircraft movement sensed
82
What are the costs/benefits of a derated thrust T/O and Climb?
Lower EGT and extended engine life. Used whenever perf limits and noise abatement procedures permit.
Increases total trip fuel
83
What speed does VNAV command at the all engine acceleration height if the VNAV climb page is not manually programmed and speed intervention is not selected?
- Last MCP speed (V2) + 20 until accel height
- Flap placard speed minus 5 kts
- 230 or less, when LEF not fully retracted
- 250 kts with flaps retracted
- Active target speed
- Waypoint speed constraints
- Speed restriction associated with the origin airport, whichever is more restrictive
84
What does the selection of DES NOW on the VNAV DES page do?
1,000fpm at ECON speed. Upon reaching planned descent path, VNAV transitions to maintain the planned descent path
85
How does entering an EFC on the FMC HOLD page affect arrival fuel?
Computation of destination fuel assumes that departure from the holding fix will occur at this time
86
How does the FMC calculate Hold Available time
Displays holding HR + MIN remaining if destination is to be reached with planned fuel reserves as entered on the PERF INIT page
87
Does illumination of a fuel LOW PRESS light cause the MC light to illuminate?
- 2 in the same tank = yes.
- 1 = only on recall.
- W/Ctr tank pumps on, continuous illumination of 1 or both for 10” = MC and FUEL lights
- W/1 CTR tank pump off, illuminated of opposite light = MC and FUEL lights
88
What does the FILTER BYPASS light indicate?
Impending fuel filter bypass from contaminated fuel
89
Where are the charts used for verifying fuel with measuring sticks?
NG MEL Appendix or MAX MEL Special Procedures
NG MEL App 28-6, MAX MEL SP 28
90
What does the FUEL FLOW alert indicate (MAX)?
Diff between actual engine FF and FMCS exceeds threshold value for 5 continuous minutes. Displayed independently for each engine
91
What additional fuel alert indications does the max provide compared to the NG?
- FUEL DISAGREE: total and FMC calculated disagree
- USING RSV FUEL: FMC fuel at destination is predicted to be < entered RESERVES fuel
- INSUFFICIENT FUEL: FMC fuel at destination is predicted to be <2,000#
92
How can an engine draw fuel in the event of main tank fuel pump low pressure?
Suction feed line that bypasses the pumps. At high altitude, may lose thrust or flameout
93
What is required if both fuel FILTER BYPASS lights illuminate during flight?
Land at nearest suitable airport
94
What does the FLT CONTROL LOW PRESSURE light indicate?
Low A or B pressure to ailerons, elevator and rudder
95
What is the significant difference in capability between an engine-driven pump and an electric hydraulic pump?
Engine pump supplies ~6x the volume than the electric
96
What occurs if an overhead condition is detected in an electric hydr pump?
Related OVERHEAT light, power removed, and LOW PRESS light illuminates
97
The stab hydr system draws fluid from B reservoir. How will B system leak affect the standby hydraulic system?
As long as fluid to the top of the B-system standpipe, enough fluid remains to operate the power transfer unit. A leak in B does not affect operation of the standby hydraulic system
98
How are the autoslats to be operated if B EDP volume is … (? They didn’t finish the sentence)
Power Transfer Unit uses A pressure to power hydraulic motor-driven pump, which pressurizes B hydraulic fluid. PTU operates automatically
99
How can landing gear be raised if the #1 engine fails?
LDG Transfer unit supplies volume of fluid needed to raise when A system engine-driven pump volume is lost. The B-pump supplies the volume of fluid needed t operate the LGTU
100
How can standby hydraulic pump be activated?
Manual
- FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD, or
- ALT FLAPS to Master ARM
Auto:
- loss of A & B + flaps extended + airborne or wheel speed >60 kts, and FLT CTRL switch A or B on
- Force Fight Monitor activation
101
What components can the standby hydraulic system power?
Thrust reversers
Rudder
TEFs & LEFs (extend only)
Standby YD
102
What are the maximum LDG retraction and extension speeds?
Retraction: 235
Extension: 270
103
What should be checked if all LDG are red and green indicator lights are illuminated after raising the LDG lever?
Manual gear extension access door.
104
How can braking be applied if both normal and alt brake system pressure is lost?
Brake accumulator = several braking applications or parking brake
105
When is anti skid protection available?
Normal and alternate brake systems provide A/S, even with loss of both hydraulics (i.e. when using the brake accumulator)
106
How should braking be accomplished if anti skid is inop?
Locked wheel protection is lost. Min braking consistent with R/W length and conditions to reduce possibility of blowout.
107
How do the auto brakes function during a RTO with RTO selected?
- If RTO prior to wheel speed 90, then they do not activate, they remain armed, and AUTO BRAKE DISARM light does not illuminate
- If RTO > 90 kts wheel speed, max braking when thrust levers retarded to idle
108
When do the MC lights illuminate?
Any caution outside the normal field of vision.
Single faults do NOT trigger a MC (“simple fault”) but will illuminate upon recall.
109
When would the first indication of a fault be provided to the crew if a simple fault is sensed but he PSEU inflight?
30” after landing (inhibited from T/O until then)
110
The PSEU light has illuminated for a simple fault and has gone unnoticed by the crew. When does the light extinguish?
Parking brake is set, or both engines turned off
111
What do all GPWS warnings have in common?
The aural alert “PULL UP” (Terrain, obstacle, or by itself for sink rate)
112
What are the predictive windshear aural alerts and when available?
C: Monitor radar display
Wx RDR begins scanning at power-up for T/O. Alerts avail ~12” after that. Enabled prior to T/O by pushing the EFIS ctrl WXR switch. Enabled below 1200’ RA
113
What is the GPWS windshear aural alert and when is it enabled?
2-tone siren followed by WINDSHEAR-WINDSHEAR-WINDSHEAR
Begins at rotation; enabled < 1500’ RA
114
How is tail skid inspected (-800/Max)?
Serviceable when cartridge shows both green and red. Shoe contacts runway and also shows wear dimples that indicate replacement. Check the shoe is not scraped and green is visible on the cartridge
115
What provides the A/P arrival fuel for the PWB Ldg conditions input?
Dispatch release planned arrival fuel
116
When should a runway climb gradient be entered into the PWB landing conditions page?
When an approach has a remark or note referencing a climb gradient
117
How can the correct PWB Non-normal checklist be selected when called for by QRH?
Landing Conditions 2/2:
- NON-NORMALS
- AIRCRAFT MODEL
= CHECKLISTS
- NEXT PAGE until find correct match
118
What does remark “Eng anti-ice not req’d when OAT is above 10C. Return to PWB takeoff conditions - select TAI NO” indicate?
Engine A/I is selected as YES when automatically or manually entered temp is above 10 degrees C
119
What are some thunderstorm planning considerations based on radar returns?
- Avoid magenta and red area cells by 20 NM, if possible
- Do not deviate downwind unless absolutely necessary. Severe turbulence and hail risks drastically reduced upwind
120
What is max range the radar can detect turbulence?
RDR-4B: 40 NM
RDR 4000: 60 NM
121
What types of precipitation does the radar detect?
Rain drops, wet hail
Not clouds, fog, snow, or ice
122
What info does the tail Strike Pitch Limit symbol provide?
At or approaching the tail strike pitch limit (will if strike symbol meets acft ref symbol).
During rotation and below 10’ AGL
123
HGS 4000: what information does the HGS Tail Strike Warning Provide
Indicates a tail strike is likely during landing. Active below 100’ until acft touchdown
124
What occurs to the HGS guidance cue when windshear is detected?
When windshear is detected and FD is in TOGA mode, the guidance cue changes to windshear guidance cue (solid circle). Displays until GPWS warning no longer active.
