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SWA > General Acft & Limitations > Flashcards

General Acft & Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Once the ops agent opens the door, can s/he leave the WN-966 form unattended on the FA workstation

A

No

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2
Q

First flight of day in NG or Max, RECOMMENDED stabilization times from start to takeoff power:

A

5 minutes

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3
Q

Can we use a pack to assist the ground preconditioned air if it’s still too hot?

A

No.

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4
Q

Can only use flight deck Wifi for ___ and __.

A

EFB devices and applications

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5
Q

Shoulder harnesses on from ___ (dept) until ___ (arr)

A

Before push back until flaps indicate up.
Approach checklist until clearing the runway.

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6
Q

At what bank angle will the lower ventral strake on the split scimitar winglets strike the ground? Mitigate by NOT doing ONLY wing-low for X-W component > __ knots.

A

8.8 degrees of bank // 15 knots

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7
Q

If PWB wind entries must be manually entered from TAF, METAR, SPECI into PWB, you must first ___

A

Convert them to magnetic

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8
Q

What is max wind velocity for takeoff and landing? ___ Steady state ___ max gust

A

50 steady and 70 peak gust

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9
Q

Limitation if window heat is inop?

A

</= 250 Kts below 10K

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10
Q

Max turbulent air penetration speeds >15K

A

280 kts / 0.76

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11
Q

Flap extension policy?

A

Extend / Retract using PFD flap maneuvering speed (not placard limits)

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12
Q

What reverse thrust must we use during landing rollout?

A

If operable, min of detent 2 on all landings unless higher is specified

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13
Q

How much time between APU start attempts? ___. Do not exceed __ attempts.

A

90” and 3 (do not attempt start #4)

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14
Q

Idle thrust cooldown time limit for NG and Max?

A

NG: 1 min (3 recommended) // Max: 3 minutes.

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15
Q

How long should APU run before being used as bleed air source?

A

2 minutes

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16
Q

When can you use engine / APU bleed air after deicing?

A

1 minute

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17
Q

How long do you need to wait after turning off the APU to turn the battery switch off?

A

2 minutes (NG), 5 minutes (Max) after the APU GEN OFF BUS light extinguishes

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18
Q

When scheduling fuel in the center tank, when must the wing tanks be full?

A

If center tank >1,000#

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19
Q

Is capt responsible for instructing the FO?

A

Yes.

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20
Q

If capt does not fully brief, what is FO’s responsibility?

A

Speak up about deviations from policies, procedures, and/or regulations.

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21
Q

When should cell phones be turned off by crew?

A

Off and stowed prior to pushback.

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22
Q

Can we leave the MC light illuminated? Why?

A

No. It would prevent a new warning from generating a caution.

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23
Q

What 4 requirements to arm VNAV for takeoff?

A
  1. Valid Flt Plan loaded
  2. PWB entered and executed
  3. Both FD switches on
  4. MCP speed set to V2
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24
Q

How can airspeed be limited for airspace or ATC restrictions, if VNAV is armed for T/O?

A
  1. SPD INTV to set restriction at 1,000 AAE
  2. When window opens, MCP speed may be higher than the UP bug
  3. Program the CLB page SPD REST to it. When no longer req’d, re-enter applicable speed
  4. Enter speed restrictions at appropriate waypoints only if more restrictive than LARGE font speeds on the LEGS page
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25
Q

At what alt do LNAV and VNAV become active if armed before T/O

A

LNAV = 50’ // VNAV = 400’ (RA for both)

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26
Q

Airborne, try SATCOM to dispatch. LOG 2/2 pg shows all 3 channels display FAIL. What now?

A

Go to AOM Ch 5 SATCOM malfunctions where it will direct me to pull the CB

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27
Q

With flaps at 1 and IAS disagree, what pitch & power setting?

A

80% N1 and 10 degrees NH

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28
Q

If unable to ID which A/S indicator is malfunctioning, where should I locate pitch and thrust settings for various phases of flight?

A

Flight with unreliable airspeed table in the performance chapter of the QRH

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29
Q

Where in QRH would you continue the checklist after the QRC is complete?

A

After the condition and objective section, enter below the red separator symbol

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30
Q

What actions consider after completing APU Fire immediate action items? (On the ground)

A
  • Assess if actual fire
  • Request external assistance
  • Determine need to evacuate
  • Develop a shared mental model with FAs and Pax
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31
Q

While assessing APU fire indications, Ground says smoke at the tail. You decide to evacuate. Is use of the evac checklist required?

A

Rely on RRM. Expectation is to execute the checklist without delay, methodically, and in its entirety. If cannot execute checklist due to deteriorating conditions, shut down both engines and command the evacuation.

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32
Q

If engine fails while on final approach, what options are available (3)?

A
  1. Continue flaps 30/40 (may not be able to maintain GS)
  2. Continue flaps 15
  3. Go around
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33
Q

FAs report activation of Lav smoke detector. What resource is available to determine if that smoke detector activation constitutes a fire emergency on board?

A

AOM 5.6. Fire protection and Smoke/Fumes on the Aircraft

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34
Q

Factors associated with determining method of evacuation?

A
  1. Urgency (injury or loss of life if delayed?)
  2. Possibility of pax injuries using escape slides
  3. Type of threat (strut, fire, bomb)
  4. Possibility of fire spreading rapidly from spilled fuel/other flammable materials.
  5. Extent of damage to the aircraft
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35
Q

“Caution Terrain” sounds + Amber TERRAIN on the ND. How respond?

A

Correct flight path, config, or airspeed

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36
Q

TERRAIN, PULL UP aural alert + PULL UP on ND = what response?

A
  1. Disengage A/P & A/T, [PM: ensure Emer thrust, verify actions, monitor & call ]
  2. aggressively apply Emer thrust, [out any omissions, monitor VS & Alt ]
  3. wings-level 20-degree climb, retract SBS,
  4. if still threatened-up to the pitch limit indicator (“respect the stick shaker/initial buffet)
  5. Do not change config until terrain avoid is assured
  6. Monitor RA for sustained or increasing terrain sep
  7. When clear of terrain, decrease pitch and accel
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37
Q

During T/O, “monitor radar display” alerts and windshield icon appears on ND. Response?

A

Continue t/o and use precautionary T/O profile (rotate at V1 + 20 but NLT 2,000’ remaining)

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38
Q

During T/O, “Windshear ahead” and icon on ND. Response?

A

Reject T/O if possible, or continue using precautionary profile

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39
Q

What are the only reasons the Capt should reject T/O > 80 knots?

A
  1. Engine failure
  2. Fire or fire warning
  3. Predictive windshear warning
  4. Aircraft is unsafe/unable to fly
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40
Q

(PF) Windshear escape maneuver is:

A

Disengage A/P & A/T; Press TOGA
Aggressively apply emergency thrust
Wings-level and pitch to 15 degrees NH
Retract SBS; Follow FD.
Monitor VS and ALT
Do not change config or attempt to regain lost airspeed until clear

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41
Q

PM responsibilities during Windshear ahead warning

A

Verify emergency thrust
Verify all actions completed and call out omissions
Monitor VS and Alt
Call any trend towards terrain contact, descending flight path, or significant A/S changes

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42
Q

How distinguish between GPWS Terrain/Obstacle cautions and warnings?

A

All GPW warnings include the words PULL UP (Terrain or Obstacle, PULL UP)

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43
Q

When responding to GPWS warning, what actions if ground contact becomes a threat while following FD guidance?

A

Continue rotation up to pitch limit indicator or respect the stick shaker or initial buffet

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44
Q

Describe the BLUE circuit breaker collar color system used by SWA

A

Blue collars are used exclusively to ID CBS that are required to be pulled by the flight deck crew as part of a NN procedure

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45
Q

What are the other (not blue) CB collars used for?

A

All others are MX

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46
Q

When must a crew land at the nearest suitable airport?

A

When directed by the QRH, eng failure, eng fire, APU fire, wheel well fire, cabin smoke/fire that persists, one main AC power source remaining, 1 Hydr system remaining, any other situation deemed by the flight deck crew to present a significant adverse effect on safety if the flight is continuted

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47
Q

With the loss of both A & B hydraulic systems, once landed, why does the checklist instruct you NOT to taxi after stopping?

A

The NWS and alt NWS are inoperative

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48
Q

Who performs flight deck door access system test? Describe the test.

A

Normally the FO but either may. Access switch in NORM. Open the door. Arm door (red guard AUTO). Type access code and press enter = alarm and Auto Unlock light. Select DENY. Light extinguishes, alarm stops. Select UNLKD = door unlocks. Select UNLKD; LOCK FAIL light illuminates. Access system to Norm/Guarded; lock fail light extinguishes.

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49
Q

Who performs the preflight of the lockout/tag out box?

A

Capt

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50
Q

Who can select <LOAD FMC prompt on the PWB after reviewing PWB data?

A

Either pilot

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51
Q

Where is the emergency flashlight on the MAX flight deck?

A

Behind the cap’s seat on the lower front of the 4th jump seat

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52
Q

When is the IGN switch placed to both for the first flight of the day?

A

Above 2,000’ MSL, <5/41 degrees, 1st start of the day.

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53
Q

What lateral mode does FD select if VNAV is armed for T/O but LNAV is not?

A

At 400’ AGL, HDG SEL auto roll mode. CAUTION. HDG SEL mode commands a turn in the shortest direction to the set heading

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54
Q

What is required prior to selecting LOAD FMC after receiving PWB data?

A

Must review each page of PWB T/O Data including fuel audit, EFP, pertinent notes, and remarks

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55
Q

Hand signals may only be used for pushback, engine start, and towing operations under what conditions?

A
  1. Acft’s comm panel is OTS (deferred)
  2. Ramp agent is under yellow alert for lightning w/in 8 miles
  3. Station does not have headset ability
  4. All available headsets are OTS
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56
Q

Are crews authorized to make electrical or hydraulic power changes during pushback?

A

No, momentary pressurization of NWS may cause towbar damage and injuries

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57
Q

How would the pilots verify the new W&B report number after pushback has commenced?

A

Contact dispatch to verify

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58
Q

On the first flight of the day, in what position should the ignition select switch be placed? (For start)

A

Right

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59
Q

The FO completes the < start flow and stars number 2. What defines “rollback?”

A

EGT start limit redline is no longer displayed

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60
Q

How is stabilization / warmup time determined?

A

After rollback, the FO starts his clock

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61
Q

During taxi, dispatch notifies you of an error in the W&B report. What is required of me before departure?

A

Must request new TO dat, review/upload, and complete departure plan checklist.

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62
Q

During the engine start, the FO should observe 25% N2 or max motoring. What is the indication of max motoring?

A

< 1% N2 rise in approx 5”. Min N2 for start is 20%

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63
Q

Normal starter cutout speed (NG & Max)

A

NG: 56%
Max: 63%

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64
Q

What are the recommended breakaway thrust settings to begin taxi?

A
  1. 35% congested ramps
  2. 40% non-congested ramps
  3. 45% taxiways
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65
Q

When does the capt perform the thrust lever check?

A

Immediately after pressing the ATTEND button, approaching the departure runway.

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66
Q

When does a route change NOT require accomplishing the departure plan checklist?

A

When route change does not affect runway, SID, or transition

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67
Q

When shall the < T/O checklist be completed?

A

Prior to crossing the hold short line

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68
Q

What additional checklist is required after receiving updated PWB T/O data?

A

Departure plan checklist must be accomplished if any changes to FMC programming or PWB after pushback has commenced and following accomplishment of the < taxi checklist

69
Q

How can crew determine if an intersection t/o can be used?

A

Intersection t/o may only be performed if the crew determines perf data is available and used for that intersection takeoff

70
Q

Because the r/w is considered a critical zone, what should pilots consider before entering the departure runway?

A

Do not perform flight tasks, except momentary items (lighting). Monitor the movement of other acft & vehicles. Ensure r/w and intersections are clear. Be vigilant for acft/vehicles crossing without clearance.

71
Q

After T/o, when does the capt turn off the taxi light?

A

When the flaps are up

72
Q

What is the proper rotation rate for t/o in degrees/sec?

A

2-3 degrees/second else tail strike

73
Q

If an engine exceedance occurs past V1, when is the min alt that the thrust lever may be retarded?

A

400’ AGL

74
Q

Should you follow the FD for t/o rotation rate?

A

No

75
Q

For SWA standard noise abatement t/o, what speed should be held from flap retraction until 3K AAE (unless SIP, NOTAM, airspace requirements dictate lower)?

A

FUMS

76
Q

You plan to use speed intervention for a flaps 15 t/o. What is the proper callout sequence upon reaching min cleanup alt?

A

Set speed, flaps 5, climb thrust

77
Q

What are the flap retraction calls at min cleanup alt?

A

Set speed (if required) then:
- Climb thrust (for flaps 1 t/o)
- Flaps 1, climb thrust (for flaps 5 t/o)
- Flaps 5, climb thrust (for flaps 10 or 15 t/o)
- Flaps 15, climb thrust (for flaps 25 t/o)

78
Q

How many miles out from the top of descent should crews begin the TOD tasks?

A

In general, 50nm. For airports where ATC gives stepdown arrivals, or low altitude, start about 150nm out.

79
Q

What is the minimum alt to delete a reduced climb?

A

5,000’ AAE. Occasionally sooner (ATC requests best rate for traffic)

80
Q

Why do we NOT delete the reduced climb settings at 5K’ AAE in the max?

A

GE has determined that wear and tear on the hot section is reduced by running the engine cooler for longer period of time. Reduction is phased out by 15K’

81
Q

At 280 kts idle descent, what is the average number of NM travelled for each 1,000’ of alt loss?

A

About 2.5-3 (depending on weight)

82
Q

What is the max holding airspeed and timing for turns when between 6K and up to and including 14K?

A

230 kts and 1 minute legs

83
Q

What are the max speeds for timing and holding when below 6,000’

A

200 and 1 minute legs

84
Q

How do you determine if your intended r/w is grooved?

A

Jepp-9A for that airport

85
Q

what are some performance considerations when landing in moderate or heavy rain?

A

Pilots must confirm data using PWB input of 2-MED TO POOR results in + stopping margin for:
- Grooved or porous friction course (PFC) w/heavy rain (+RA) or
- Non-grooved r/w with moderate or greater rain (RA/+RA)
If PWB does NOT = + margin, the flight must go-around, hold, or divert

86
Q

Why do we set MCP Alt to zeros on all instrument approaches except circles?

A

To ensure the ALT ACQ doesn’t interrupt the VNAV PATH or VS descent to the DA/DDA

87
Q

When is the PF required to have their hands and feet on the controls?

A

Prior to final approach segment when A/P engaged and flaps are extended for maneuvering or approach

88
Q

While on an approach using VNAV, flaps extended, what is the airspeed cursor set by and how can this be changed?

A

FMC unless SPD INTV is used (which is how the FMC speed can be changed)

89
Q

What operational requirements must be met regarding the Jepp approach page to conduct a CAT III approach?

A

CAT III Authorized must be in the title and CAT III approaches are authorized only when using a tailored approach chart labeled “SOUTHWEST HGS ONLY”

90
Q

What is required to get the HGS 4000 to auto capture AIII approach?

A

The STBY mode key must be pushed when AIII is displayed on the right side of the standby line

91
Q

Are we required to change the RNP value for an RNAV (GPS) approach.

A

No. It’s always .30 nm

92
Q

What RNP value should we choose for an RNP approach?

A

The largest that allows successful completion of the approach given the reported vis/ceiling and RAF

93
Q

If flap maneuvering speeds are not displayed on the PFDs, what ref speed is used to calculate flap maneuvering speeds?

A

Vref 40

94
Q

At what alt must the plane be in the planned landing config?

A

1,000’ above TDZE

95
Q

Whose mandatory duty and responsibility is it to call a go-around/missed approach if a stabilized approach is not obtained?

A

Any flight crew member

96
Q

If only approach lighting system is visible, what other lights must be in sight to descend below 100’ above TDZE?

A

Red termination bars or the red side row bars distinctly visible and identifiable

97
Q

What criteria should be considered when conducting an RNAV (RNP) approach?

A
  1. A/P use required for RNP < 0.3
  2. Both FDs must be operative & used
  3. Either pilot may fly the approach and land
98
Q

When continuing a NPA in VS, by when must the acft be fully configured and what initial descent rate will you fly after the FAF?

A

Select landing flaps < FAF. Descent rate of 750 fpm

99
Q

Barring charted or ATC assigned airspeeds, what guidance is in the AOM for normal flap extension sequence?

A

5, 15, then landing

100
Q

If ATC instructs a missed approach while flying an RNAV approach and on an RF leg, how will you navigate and what altitudes will you fly?

A
  1. Max airspeed on the RF leg
  2. Lateral flight path tolerances
  3. Setting missed approach altitude
101
Q

What effect does selecting TOGA have on LNAV active roll mode? (On RNAV approach)

A

LNAV remains the active mode because you are on an RNAV approach in LNAV

102
Q

When must the captain disengage the A/P and A/T during an HGS AIII approach?

A

NLT 1,000’ above TDZE

103
Q

When is use of the HGS required for T/O and/or landing?

A
  • T/O: vis < 500 RVR, where allowed
  • Landing: less than 1800 RVR, depending on the approach or “SW HGS ONLY” is published on the approach plate
104
Q

Who initiates the 1,000’ above TDZE call on HGS AIII approach?

A

The FO. “1,000’ AIII mode.”

105
Q

When does the FO’s instrument monitoring end on an AIII approach?

A

When slowed to taxi speed, or 500’ AGL on G-A

106
Q

Where do we find the correct runway distance when inputting HGS data for landing?

A

From PWB. If r/w length >13,500, enter 13,500

107
Q

At what point is a go-around no longer possible?

A

TR levers are raised

108
Q

What statement within the QRH procedures always requires the crew to re-request landing data ensuring the performance limiting NN checklist is selected within PWB?

A

Compute non-normal PWB perf data

109
Q

How are non-normal procedures listed in the PWB system compared to the QRH?

A

NN conditions are grouped by system, appear in the same order as the QRH, and titled the same

110
Q

What color is a runway distance remaining sign?

A

White number on a black background

111
Q

What does landing longer than 1500’ from the threshold invalidate?

A

PWC calculated stopping margin

112
Q

When is landing in excess of the max strux weight permitted?

A

Only in abnormal or emergency where captain exercises command (emergency) authority. The declaration of an emergency is not required solely for an overweight landing but the situation that caused it may

113
Q

Recommended flap setting for overweight landing?

A

30

114
Q

What are the reporting requirements for an overweight landing?

A
  1. Notify station ops
  2. Notify dispatch
  3. Logbook entry
  4. Complete an IR
115
Q

If r/w conditions are RCC 3-MED or less, recommended flap setting?

A

40

116
Q

What are you required to do when your braking action is < GOOD

A

Provide PIREP when braking action advisories are in effect any time actual braking action is < Good

117
Q

What is the purpose of RCCs?

A

Determine T/O and Ldg performance calculations when more than 25% of r/w surface is contaminated. 0-6

118
Q

What is the significance of three RCC values for a specific runway?

A

First / middle / last third. Most restrictive is used for planning

119
Q

What is the purpose of the Pilot Braking Action Descriptor table in the FOM?

A

To assist in determining which braking action PIREP to report after landing

120
Q

Can the capt shut down #2 prior to the APU being on the bus?

A

Yes. Acceptable from shutdown until selecting ground power

121
Q

When may the captain release the parking brake after shut down?

A

After the Marshaller provides the “inserted chocks” signal

122
Q

When can the capt call for flaps up? (After landing)

A

Any time after the flight deck clears the runway side stripe marking

123
Q

On terminating flight, when can you turn off air conditioning?

A

After the last passengers are deplaning

124
Q

On a terminating flight, does the capt need to do a cabin check if the FAs say, “all clear?”

A

Yes, to ensure girt bars stowed, no one in lavs, and Emer exit lights are off

125
Q

Who is the capt required to contact when there is an open Mx defect with a terminating acft?

A

Dispatch and ask for a patch with MX Ctl to inform both parties, whether MX personnel have met the aircraft or not.

126
Q

How long after the APU GEN OFF BUS extinguishes should you wait to position the battery to OFF?

A

NG: 2 min
MAX: 5 min

127
Q

What are optimum cooling procedures?

A

Both packs: HIGH
ISO valve: OPEN
ENG BLEEDS: OFF
APU BLEED: ON
Recirc Fan Swithes: AUTO

128
Q

Besides normal de-ice/anti-ice procedures, ENG ANTI-ICE switch—ON, are there any other considerations regarding the engines?

A

Yes, engine run-up procedures

129
Q

How do we perform the (anti-icing) run-up in an NG?

A

Min of 70% N1 for ~30” duration at intervals no greater than 30 minutes

130
Q

What is the difference for the engine anti-ice run up procedure change if you have extended ground ops in moderate icing conditions?

A

Min 70% N1 for ~1” duration at intervals no greater than 10 minutes

131
Q

How do the anti-ice engine run-up times (ground) differ for the max?

A

Different N1 and run-up times

132
Q

When should the precautionary takeoff profile be used?

A

Any time there is a possibility of windshear

133
Q

To use precautionary T/O profile, what must be selected within the PWB system, specifically in the ACARS TO COND 1/2 page?

A

WINDSHEAR prompt, changing default NO to YES

134
Q

What is crucial when fight into forecast turbulence is unavoidable?

A

Timely notification to the FAs

135
Q

How can you mitigate risk associated with LL Windshear on departure?

A
  1. Do not takeoff into known windshear
  2. Use (& brief) the precautionary t/o profile
  3. Review the windshear recovery procedure
  4. Use the longest suitable runway
136
Q

What consideration should be taken after landing on a contaminated r/w in icing conditions, or if accumulation of airframe ice is observed with flaps extended?

A

Flaps should not be retracted to <15

137
Q

You are cruising at FL 260 and radar indicates a t’storm in your path. What is recommended avoidance distance?

A

Above 23,000’, avoid by 20nm. If possible, circumnavigate by flying on upwind side

138
Q

What do 2 rings from the FAs indicate?

A

Request flight deck crew to answer the service interphone

139
Q

What additional resources are available for reference when performing an engine start using ground air?

A

AOM supplemental engine start procedures

140
Q

What extra briefings are required when performing an engine start using ground air?

A

Capt must brief with the ground crew

141
Q

What considerations must be given when transferring fuel while on the ground?

A

Deplane all pax and non-essential crew during de-/transfer from a tank that has a fuel quantity <2,000 lb

142
Q

What resource is available when a reset of the lav smoke detector is required?

A

AOM 16.8.3 Lav smoke detector reset

143
Q

Is a T/O and LDG report required for flight?

A

No, however it is normally included with the flight paperwork

144
Q

What would you do if you didn’t receive a T/O and Ldg Report (TLR) w/ flight paperwork?

A

Not required, but can request Ops Agent to print it. TLR can be used to review and brief Engine Failure Procedures (EFPs) < the PWB data is available

145
Q

On the dispatch release, what fields are populated under the ALTERNATE DATA section for takeoff alternates compared to landing alternates?

A

T/O alternates only have ELEV and MSA field data

146
Q

What are the 2 possible terrain analysis methods for LOE that can be listed on the Dispatch Release (NON-ETOPS)? Describe.

A

Enroute: ATOG allows performance to have OEI from V1 to destination, achieve climb at least 1,000’ above terrain and obstructions w/in 5 SM of track. Also a 1500’ + climb gradient at DEST

Drift down: ATOG allows flight to continue to diversion point and clear all terrain/obstructions within 5 SM of track by at least 2,000’ vertically and have 1500’ + climb gradient at DEST

147
Q

When dispatched under Exemp 15466, what must be included in the remarks section of the dispatch release?

A

A remark identifying which rule was used. Ex: 15466 1-1-2 Rule or 1-1-3 Rule

148
Q

If a flight is being dispatched to Cuba, where would you locate the required communication equipment needed to operate the flight and what are they?

A

IFOM 2 region, SATCOM or HF radio

149
Q

What additional briefing is mandatory when departing Reagan Nat’l R/W 01?

A

P-56 avoidance briefing

150
Q

Where can crews find definitions for MOCA, MEA, MCA and Grid MORA

A

Jep B737 Route Manual, which can be accessed through Comply 365 or JeppFD Pro X

151
Q

When does PWB return an all engine climb thrust setting (CLB2, 1, CLB as indicated below the RDCD or MAX field on the T/O Data page)?

A

When a climb gradient is input into the PWB T/O conditions page

152
Q

Why do the pilots need to verify that the loaded PWB N1 data meets the requirements from the ACARS T/O Data message?

A

PWB all engine climb thrust settings do not autopopulate

153
Q

What information is displayed on the REMARKS page of the PWB LANDING DATA pg 2/x?

A

Any factors that affect landing performance

154
Q

What are some resources you have available to help determine if you should continue to your destination if adverse weather is reported on approach?

A

Establish a shared mental model with dispatch regarding destination weather and approaches available.

155
Q

When does an EFP prohibit arming VNAV for takeoff?

A

VNAV must not be armed if the EFP for the R/W contains conditions that require either:
1. The completion of a turn to a specified heading < accelerating; OR
2. Becoming established on a defined lateral course before accelerating

156
Q

If you choose to top off the main tanks, is any coordination required?

A

The capt determines if a change is necessary; the dispatcher must be notified. An amended release or amendment (pen and ink) may be required

157
Q

With the illumination of an anti skid master caution on approach, why is the current PWB data no longer valid?

A

Anti-skid is inoperative an manual speed brake deployment is required

158
Q

Which conditions require use of the PWB brake cooling module?

A

Any time an RTO is performed, a non-normal condition is selected, or the MQTW is exceeded

159
Q

Where are single engine performance charts located in the AOM?

A

Ch 18 in-flight performance data

160
Q

Where can you find the procedure regarding fuel measuring sticks for the center tank?

A

NG MEL Appendix or MAX MEL Special Procedures

161
Q

Who is required to visually monitor the fuel verification process if using measuring sticks is required?

A

The captain.

162
Q

What resources are available if a repetitive logbook entry is required?

A

FOM Acft Logbook Flight Deck Crew Responsibilities
FOM Logbook Binder Examples

163
Q

What resources are available for dealing with a blank fuel gauge?

A

Dispatch, MX (Tech Ops), MEL

164
Q

A blank fuel gauge defect is deferrable. According to the MEL, what methods are acceptable for verifying fuel quantity?

A
  1. Fuel measure stick readings after each refueling
  2. Tank is confirmed empty prior to departure by turning on the center tank boost pumps and verifying low pressure light remains illuminated for 15”
165
Q

You see that the PSEU system becomes inoperative as you taxi to the gate. What is required of you?

A

Logbook entry and must contact dispatch and Mx control

166
Q

Who must the crew coordinate with to use the HD10 Team Accommodation Delay Code?

A

Dispatcher and Ops Agent

167
Q

How do you rectify a situation where the Ops Agent hands you 2 copies of the NOTAC form and the dispatch release does not indicate “HAZMAT ON FIGHT — REFER TO NOTAC”, or something similar?

A

Coordinate with the dispatcher to make a pen and ink amendment.

168
Q

What is required of the PM when commanded to change the flap position?

A
  1. Verify the A/S is appropriate.
  2. Repeat the command, then move the flap lever
  3. Visually confirm selection is seated at the correct detent
  4. Cross-check the gauge and LE FLAPS TRANSIT light to ensure proper extension
169
Q

How do you determine the appropriate level of response when a passenger smokes in the lavatory and then is compliant with FA instructions to extinguish their cigarette?

A

Consult the smoking policy in the FOM and apply the correct criteria while determining the appropriate response.

SWA (3 decks)

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