Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology > Systemic Microbiology > Flashcards

Systemic Microbiology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

List some of types of microbe.

A 
Viruses
Prions
Protozoa
Fungi
Bacteria
Helminths
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name some of the common relationships between host and microbiota/

A

Symbiosis
Commensals
Parasites
Mutualism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Breifly describe the differences between a Eukaryote and a Prokaryote.

A

Prokaryote has a nucleoid, a capsule a cell wall and a flagellum
Eukaryote has a membran-enclosed nucleus, a nucleolus, and mitochonria
They both have ribosomes and a cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is taxonomy?

A

Classification of organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Organisms are identified by two names, indicating what?

A

The genus and the species

  • e.g. Staphylococcus aureus
  • Streptococcus pyogenes
  • Pseudomonas aerugiosa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe gram staining.

A 
Widely used stain
Separates bacteria into two groups
- gram negative
- gram positive 
Also allows the shape of the bacteria to be identified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which gram group has a thicker cell wall?

A

Gram positive (doesn’t have periplasm or an outer membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What colour are gram negative and gram positive bacteria stained?

A

Positive - purple

Negative - pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe two exceptions on gram stain.

A

Mycoplasma doesn’t stain as it doesn’t have a cell wall. They are also weakly gram positive but stain best with an acid-fast stain
Spirochetes have a gram negative wall but are too small to be seen with a light microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the different groupings of cocci bacteria?

A 
Coccus - single round bacteria
Diplococci
Encapsulated diplococci
Staphylococci - pyramid 
Streptococci - long chain
Sarcina - cube 
Tetrad - group of four
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the different groupings of bacilli bacteria?

A 
Coccobacillus - oval
Bacillus - single bacteria
Diplobacilli
Paslisades - joined on the long side
Streptobacilli - long chain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some different groupings of non cocci or bacilli bacteria?

A 
Enlarged rod
Vibrio - kidney shape
Comma's form
Club rod
Helical form
Corkscrew's form
Filamentous 
Spirochete
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give some examples of gram positive bacilli.

A

Clostridia
Bacillus
Listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give some examples of gram negative bacilli.

A 
E.Coli
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas 
Salmonella
Shigella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give an example of a gram negative cocci.

A

Neisseriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List the four classifications of growth atmosphere for bacteria.

A

Obligate aerobes
Facultative anaerobes
Microaerophilic bacteria
Anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are endospores?

A

Metabolically dormant forms of bacteria that are more resistant to disinfectants, drying or heating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When do bacteria form endospores?

A

When there is a shortage of needed nutrients - can lie dormant for years
Becomes active again when exposed to favourable environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which bacteria genres can form endospores?

A

Bacillus and Clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 5 types of classification of bacteria?

A

1) Gram Stain
2) Shape
3) Growth Atmosphere
4) Endospores
5) DNA sequencing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the structure of a basic bacteria?

A 
Cell envelope
Cytoplasmic membrane 
Cell wall (gram negatives have an outer membrane of LPS called endotoxin and a periplasm)
Capsule
Flagella
Pili/Fimbriae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List the four main ways bacteria can be pathological.

A

Toxins
Adhesions
Enzymes
Capsules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do bacteria reproduce and adapt?

A

They reproduce by binary fission - this allows alteration of genetic material which enables adaptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are three of the methods of gene transfer?

A

Transformation
Transduction
Conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the non-specific immune defences of a host against bacteria?

A

External biochemical and mechanical barriers

Phagocytic cells, complement and NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the specific immune defences of a host against bacteria?

A

Recognition of antigens and production of immune factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What host factors increases their susceptibility to infection?

A

Immunosuppression
Asplenia
Breaches in physical barriers - wounds, medical devices (CVL, urinary catheter and ETT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the two routes of infection?

A 
Endogenous
Exogenous 
- person to person
- food/water/airborne
- vector borne
- fomites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How are bacteria directly and indirectly diagnosed in the laboratory?

A 
Indirect - antibodies
Direct
- microscopy
- culture
- antigen detection 
- DNA detection
- MALDI-TOF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the aerobic gram positive cocci bacteria that forms in clusters?

A

Staphylococcus

- catalase positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the aerobic gram positive cocci bacteria that forms in chains?

A

Streptococcus and Enterococcus

- catalase negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Name three staphylococci species.

- say whether than are coagulase positive or negative

A

S.aureus - coagulase positive
S.epidermidis - coagulase negative
S.saprophyticus - coagulase negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What infection does S.saprophyticus commonly cause?

A

UTIs in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What infections do S.aureus commonly cause?

A 
Pneuomonia 
Cellulitis 
Septic arthritis 
Infective endocarditis 
Line associated infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name three diseases caused by exotoxin release

A

Toxic shock syndrome (TSST-1)
Scalded skin syndrome (exfoliatin toxin)
Food poisoning (enterotoxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How are the different types of streptococci described?

A

According to haemolytic activity

  • beta haemolytic strep
  • alpha haemolytic strep
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the Lancefield groupings of Beta haemolytic strep?

A

A (strep pyogenes)
B (strep agaloactiae)
C
G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What kind of infections can group A streptococcus cause?

A

Non-invasive infections such as pharyngitis, scarlet fever and skin/soft tissue infections.
Invasive infections such as strep toxic shock syndrome, necrotising fasciitis and bacteraemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are virulence factors?

A

Molecules produced by pathogens (including bacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the virulence factors of Group A streptococcus?

A 
Fimbriae/pili
M protein
Haemolysins
Exotoxins
- streptokinase
- hyaluronidase 
- strep pyrogenic exotoxin (Super antigen leading to massive release of cytotkines)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is delayed antibody-mediated disease?

A

Diseases caused by group A streptococcus

  • Rhuematic fever (fever, myocarditis, arthritis, chorea, nodules, erythema marginatum)
  • Acute post-strep glomerulonephritis
42
Q

What group is the leading cause of neonatal infection?

A

Group B Streptococcus

- colonisation in 10-40% of women

43
Q

What can group B strep infections cause in adults?

A 
Pneumonia
Cellulitis
Bone infection
UTI
Bacteraemia
Endocarditis
44
Q

Which strep haemolytic is streptococcus pneumonia classified as?

A

Alpha haemolytic

- gram positive diplococci

45
Q

What are the risk factors for a strep pneumoniae infection?

A

Asplenia
Co-morbidities
Viral infection may be a precursor for pneumonia
Immune deficiencies

46
Q

What infections does strep pneumoniae most commonly cause?

A

Pneumonia in adults
Otitis media in children
Bacterial meningitis in adults

47
Q

What are some of the viridans streptococci?

- alpha haemolytic strep

A

S.Sangius
S.Mutans
S.Mitis
S.Salivarus

48
Q

Which bacteria group are commensals of the upper respiratory and GI tract, with few virulence factors and are associated with dental caries?

A

Viridans streptococci

- a cause of bacterial endocarditis

49
Q

Which strep group is a frequent cause of abscesses in the abdominal cavity, chest and brain?

A

Strep milleri group

- includes strep anginosus, S.constellatus and S.intermedius

50
Q

Which haemolytic group does strep milleri belong to?

A

Often alpha haemolytic, but can be beta or non-haemolytic

51
Q

Which Lancefield group antigen does Enterococcus carry?

A

Group D antigen

52
Q

Which infections do entercocci commonly cause?

A

UTIs, endocarditis, biliary tract and abdominal infections

53
Q

Gram positive bacilli can be split into spore forming and non-spore forming. Name some examples of each.

A 
Spore forming
- Bacillus 
- Clostridium 
Non-spore forming
- Corynebacterium
- Listeria
54
Q

Describe bacillus species bacteria.

A

Large chain gram positive bacilli
Aerobic
Human pathogens include B.anthracis and B.cereus

55
Q

Describe Bacillus anthracis.

A

Cutaneous/inhalational/GI infection
Capsulated
Medusa head appearance
Exotoxin - oedema factor, protective antigen, lethal factor

56
Q

Describe the B.cereus bacteria.

A

Causes food poisoning

They are heart resistant spores that produce enterotoxins.

57
Q

Breifly describe the Clostridium class.

A

Spore forming, gram positive bacilli

Anaerobic

58
Q

What are the common infections caused by Clostridium infections?

A

Botulism
Tetanus
Gas Gangrene
Pseudomembranous colitis

59
Q

Describe the what happens in the body when you get a C.botulinum infection.

A

Toxin binds to presynaptic nerve endings.

This blocks ACh release, causing descending flaccid paralysis

60
Q

Describe the what happens in the body when you get a C.tetani infection.

A

This is a terminal spore (drumstick appearance)
The toxin here prevents release of inhibitory neurotransmitters leasing to sustained tetanic contraction
- e.g. lockjaw

61
Q

Describe the pathogenic effects of gas gangrene (C.perfingens, C.novyi and C.septicum)

A

Clostridium myonecrosis

Rapidly spreading oedema, myositis, tissue necrosis and toxaemia

62
Q

What problems/infections does C.difficilie cause?

A

Antibitoic associated diarrhoea

Pseudomembranous colitis

63
Q

Describe Listeria monocytogenes.

A 
Non-spore forming gram positive rods
Exhibit beta haemolysis
Has an endotoxin
Usually transmitted by food
Grows over a wide range of temperatures, including refrigeration
64
Q

In what classes of patients is Listeria particularly important.

A

Pregnant women - risk of foetal infection
Neonates - maculopapular rash
Immunocompromised patients
Elderly patients

65
Q

Describe Corynebacterium diptheriae (diptheria).

A

Gram positive rods in angular or palisade arrangements

Almost eradicated worldwide due to vaccinations

66
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of Corynebacterium diptheriae.

A

It causes respiratory infection, with toxin production, which leads to pseudomembrane formation and associated swelling and obstruction

67
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Corynebacterium diptheriae

A

Bull neck

Pseudomembrane

68
Q

Give some examples of gram negative diplococci

A

Neisseria (e.g. N.meningitidis and N.gonorrhoea)

Moraxella

69
Q

What is special about the Moraxella bacteria?

A

It is a normal respiratory flora, that occasionally causes infection

70
Q

Which diseases can Neisseria meningitidis cause?

A

Meningococcal disease

  • meningitis
  • bacteraemia
71
Q

What are the virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Capsule (Serotypes A, B and C usually cause meningitis)
Endotoxin (causes vascular necrosis and haemorrhage into skin causing classical rash)
IgA1 protease

72
Q

Which Neisseria meningitidis caspsuel serotypes can be vaccinated against?

A

Vaccine for A and C are available

73
Q

What infections does Neisseria gonorrhoea cause?

A

STI - urethritis in men
PID in women
Septic arthritis/bacteraemia
Opthalmia neonatorum

74
Q

Name some Enterobacteriacae gram negative bacilli.

A 
E.Coli
Enterobacter
Klebsiella
Proteus 
Serratia
Shigella
Salmonella
75
Q

Which of the gram negative bacilli are lactose fermenting coliforms?

A

E.Coli
Enterobacter
Klebsiella

76
Q

Which of the gram negative bacilli are non-lactose fermenting coliforms?

A

Serratia
Proteus
Salmonella
Shigella

77
Q

What infections does E.Coli (a commensal of the intestinal tract) cause?

A

UTIs- commonly

Pneumonia, intra-abdominal infection, bacteraemia (most common bacteraemia) and meningitis in neonates

78
Q

Which bacteria is the most common cause of gram negative bacteraemia?

A

E.Coli

79
Q

What are the types of Enteropatogenic E.Coli?

A

Entertoxigenic E.Coli
Enteropathogenic E.Coli
Verocytotoxin producing E.Coli (VTEC)

80
Q

What illness does Enterotoxigenic E.Coli produce?

A

Produces cholera like illness

81
Q

What illness does Enteropathogenic E.Coli produce?

A

Produces infantile gastroenteritis

82
Q

What illness does Verocytotoxin producing E.Coli produce?

A

E.Coli 0157 can lead to HUS and TTP

83
Q

What infection can the normal intestinal flora bacteria of Klebsiella, Enterobacter and Serratia cause?

A

Pneumonia
UTIs
Wound infections

84
Q

Describe the Proteus bacteria.

A

This is a non-lactose fermenter, highly motile bacteria that moves in swarms.
A common cause of UTI infections

85
Q

Describe Salmonella bacteria.

A

This is a non-lactose fermenter, non-capsulated (except S.typhi) bacteria that is not a normal inhabitant of the gut.
It has over 2000 antigenic types

86
Q

What kind of infections can Salmonella bacteria cause?

A

Diarrhoeal disease
S.typhi and S.paratyphi can cause typhoid
If the patient has sickle cell anaemia, they have an increased risk of an osteomyelitis infection

87
Q

Describe the Shigella bacteria.

A

This is a non-lactose fermenter with a very low infective dose (10-100 organisms)

88
Q

What are some of the types of the Shigella bacteria?

A

S.Sonnei (causes mild disease), S.Boydii, S.Dysenteriae (exotoxin) and S.Flexneri

89
Q

What infections can the Shigella bacteria cause?

A

Gasteroenteritis with fever, cramps, diarrhoea (blood and mucous)

90
Q

Name some non-Enterobacteriacae gram negative bacilli.

A

Pseudomonas aeurginosa
Burkholderia cepacia
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
Acinetobacter species

91
Q

Describe Pseudomonas aeurginosa.

A

Strict aerobes
Normal commensals of the GI tract
Can colonise in other sites (e.g. leg ulcers)
Can cause infections in burns patients, CF, bronchiectasis and UTIs
Often treated with multiple antibiotic

92
Q

Describe Burkholderia cepacia.

A

This is a significant pathogen in Cystic Fibrosis patients.

93
Q

Describe Stenotrophomonas maltophilia.

A

This is often a cause of hospital acquired infections as they are an antibiotic resistant organism.

94
Q

Describe the Acinetobacter species.

A

Survive well in the environment and can be multiply resistant.

95
Q

Describe Haemophilus influenzae (a gram negative cocco-bacilli).

A

Can be encapsulated.

Less common due to vaccinations

96
Q

What infections does Haemophilus influenzae commonly cause?

A

Commonly causes LRTIs and Otitis media

H.influenzae type B is a major human pathogen causing epiglottitis and meningitis

97
Q

Describe Legionella pneumophilia.

A

An atypical pneumonia.
Slow growing, requiring special media (found in water systems - transmission through aerosolisation of contaminated water)
Urinary Ag used in diagnosis
Serology is also useful

98
Q

List some curved gram negative rods.

A

Campylobacter
Helicobacter
Vibrio Cholerae

99
Q

Describe how Campylobacter and V.Cholerae are spread and the infections they cause.

A

Campylobacter - foodborne pathogen causing cramping, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea
V.Cholerae - contaminated water pathogen, causing watery diarrhoea and rice-water stools

100
Q

Name some Spirochaetes and the infections they cause.

A

Treponema pallidum - causes Syphilis
Borrelia burgdorferi - lyme disease
Leptospira - Leptospirosis

Microbiology (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions