Synovial joints and rheumatoid arthritis Flashcards

(Hand anatomy too)

1
Q

What are the 8 carpal bones of the hand

A

scaphoid
lunate
triquetrum
pisiform
hamate
capitate
trapezoid
trapezium

so long to pinky, here comes the thumb

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2
Q

how many of each type of bone are in the hand

A

8 carpal bones
5 metacarpals
5 proximal phalanges
4 intermediate phalanges
5 distal phalanges

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3
Q

joints of the hand from proximal to distal

A

radiocarpal (wrist)
midcarpal
carpometacarpo
metacarpophalangeal
interphalangeal (proximal and distal)

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4
Q

the three grips

A

power grip, hook grip, precision handling grip

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5
Q

4 groups of muscles in the hand

A

thenar
hypothenar
lumbricals
interossei

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6
Q

3 divisions of thenar/hypothenar muscles

A

OAF
opponens (deep)
abductor (most lateral)
flexor (medial)

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7
Q

what does the term pollicis refer to

A

thumb

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8
Q

what does the term digiti minimi refer to

A

pinky finger

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9
Q

what does brevis mean

A

short

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10
Q

where do the lumbricals arise from

A

flexor digitorum profundus tendon

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11
Q

what are the two groups of interossei

A

palmar and dorsal

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12
Q

what does PAD stand for

A

palmar adduct

controlled by palmar interossei

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13
Q

what does DAB stand for

A

dorsal abduct

controlled by dorsal interossei

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14
Q

how many palmar interossei are there

A

3

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15
Q

how many dorsal interossei are there

A

4

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16
Q

what innervates the intrinsic muscles of the hand

A

the ulnar nerve (and median)

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17
Q

what are the boundaries of the cubital fossa

A

base = imaginary line between epicondyles
medial = pronator teres
lateral = brachioradialis
floor = brachialis and supinator

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18
Q

what does the cubital fossa contain

A

radial nerve
termination of brachial artery and accompanying veins
median nerve
tendon of biceps brachii

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19
Q

where are venipunctures placed

A

superficial veins which lie superficial to the cubital fossa

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20
Q

where is the carpal tunnel

A

between carpal bones and flexor retinaculum

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21
Q

what ten structures are contained in the carpal tunnel

A

4 flexor digitorum superficialis tendons
4 flexor profundus tendons
tendon of flexor pollicis longus
median nerve

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22
Q

what is the flexor retinaculum

A

strong connective tissue which runs between carpal bones at the top - turning carpal arch into tunnel

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23
Q

what structures do not pass through the carpal tunnel

A

ulnar nerve and ulnar artery, radial nerve and radial artery

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24
Q

function of retinaculum

A

prevents bow stringing (keeps tendon down in place) as tendons cross joints

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25
Q

where does the dorsal scapular nerve originate

A

C5 root

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26
Q

where does the phrenic nerve originate

A

C5 root

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27
Q

where does the suprascapular nerve originate

A

superior trunk of brachial plexus

C5, C6

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28
Q

where does the lateral pectoral nerve originate

A

lateral cord of brachial plexus

C5 - C7

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29
Q

where does the long thoracic nerve originate

A

C5, C6, C7 roots

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30
Q

where does the upper, mid and lower subscapular nerve originate

A

posterior cord

think that theyre on the back

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31
Q

where does the thoracodorsal nerve originate

A

posterior cord

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32
Q

where do the medial cutaneous nerves of the arm and forearm originate

A

medial cord

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33
Q

where does the medial pectoral nerve originate

A

medial cord

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34
Q

where does the lateral pectoral nerve originate

A

lateral cord

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35
Q

where does the musculocutaneous nerve innervate

A

anterior compartment of the arm

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36
Q

where does the axillary nerve innervate

A

“badge patch” upper posterior arm

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37
Q

where does the radial nerve innervate

A

lower posterior arm, posterior forearm, lower lateral anterior arm, lateral dorsal hand

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38
Q

where does the median nerve innervate

A

dorsal fingertips and lateral lumbricals and OAF of thenar (palmar lateral 3.5 digits)

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38
Q

where does the ulnar nerve innervate

A

palmar medial 1.5 digits, dorsal medial 1.5 digits

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39
Q

What is achondroplasia

A

A lack of cartilage growth

Autosomal dominant condition that affects endochondral ossification via cartilage. Caused by a mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3.

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40
Q

What are the two cell types within the synovium

A

Type A - similar to macrophages, remove debris

Type B - similar to fibroblasts, produce extra matrix proteins in synovial fluid (hyaluronic acid, collagen, fibronectin)

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41
Q

What are limbs developed from

A

small buds of undifferentiated mesoderm cells, which are covered by ectoderm

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42
Q

when does limb morphogenesis take place

A

between weeks 4 and 8

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43
Q

where is mesenchyme derived from

A

dorsolateral mesoderm cells of the somites

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44
Q

what is the apical ectodermal ridge

A

ectoderm at the distal border which is thickened. the AER has an inductive relationship with the mesoderm. Secretes signals that tell the cells next to it not to differentiate? Also promotes mitosis.

45
Q

What happens in limb development without the AER

A

limbs fail to develop as the AER is a key signalling centre

46
Q

What corresponds to the border between the dorsal and ventral ectoderm

47
Q

What happens in week 6 og limb development

A

Terminal portion of buds become flattened (handplates and footplates)

Parts of limb becomes separated from the proximal segments by constriction (wrist and elbow)

48
Q

How does digit separation occur

A

Cell death in the AER separates ridges into 5 parts. Mesenchyme condense to form cartilaginous digits

By d56, digit separation = complete

49
Q

What is developed from the stylopod

A

humerus and femur

50
Q

What is developed from the zeugopod

A

radius/ulna and tibia/fibula

think Z looks like a 2, 2 bones in calf and 2 bones in forearm

51
Q

What is developed from the autopod

A

carpels, metacarpals, digits, tarsals/metatarsals

52
Q

what do HOX genes regulate

A

positioning of the limbs along the craniocaudal axis

53
Q

what is polydactyly

A

extra digits - defect is mesoderm caused by mutation in Hox genes (Shh or Wnt)

54
Q

when does limb rotation occur

A

week 7 of development (upper and lower limbs rotate in opposite directions)

55
Q

where do the upper limbs rotate

A

90° laterally

extensor muscles lie on the lateral and posterior side

56
Q

where do the lower limbs rotate

A

90° medially

extensor muscles lie on anterior surface

57
Q

what happens in week 6 of bone development

A

cartilage models of bone form

58
Q

what happens in week 8 of bone development

A

ossification begins

59
Q

what happens in week 12 of bone development

A

primary centres of ossification in all long bones of limbs

60
Q

Symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Pain and altered sensation in a median nerve distribution
shaking hand relieves symptoms
can waken patients at night
worse when wrist is flexed

61
Q

treatment for carpals tunnel

A

stopping habits
splints
steroid injection
carpal tunnel decompression

62
Q

what is held in guyon’s canal syndrome

A

ulnar nerve and artery

63
Q

symptoms of guyon’s canal

A

numbness and tingling in an ulna nerve distribution
pain
weakness

64
Q

symptoms of cubital tunnel syndrome

A

reduced sensation in ulna nerve distribution in hand, altered sensation in dorsum of hand too
intrinsic muscle weakness and wasting (elbow)

65
Q

what is tinel’s test

A

tapping over a nerve to test sensation

66
Q

what is durkan’s test

A

pressure over a nerve to test sensation

66
Q

what is phalens test

A

holding hands pointed downwards with backs towards each other, flexed at the wrist and seeing how long it takes for fingers to begin tingling

66
Q

What does a swollen synovium contain

A

Fibroblasts
macrophages - activated to produce TNFa, IL-1, IL-6
T cells
B cells

67
Q

what is the use of NSAIDs

A

used to relieve pain and swelling
no evidence of effect on erosions/progression

67
Q

what do NSAIDS target

A

COX-1 and COX-2
this reduces prostaglandins and thromboxane

67
Q

what are some contraindications of NSAIDs

A

active bleeding
acute kidney injury
drug interactions ?

67
Q

what are the mechanisms of action of corticosteroids

A

Blocks phospholipase A2

decrease in monocytes and macrophages
decrease in T cells
increase in neutrophils
decrease in vessel permeability
decrease in proliferation of endothelial cells

67
Q

what are some comorbidities of corticosteroids

A

diabetes, osteoporosis, immunosuppression

68
Q

what are the three regimes of corticosteroids

A

oral - prednisolone
intramuscular - triamcinolone
intra-articular - depomedrone or kenalog

68
Q

three options of DMARDs

A

conventional, biologic and targeted synthetic

69
Q

4 most common DMARDs

A

methotrexate
sulfasalazine
hydroxychloroquine
leflunomide

70
Q

describe the mechanism of methotrexate

A

Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor
increases T cell apoptosis, allowing immune system to settle down

71
Q

describe the mechanism of sulfasalazine

A

comprised of sulfapyridine and5-ASA

intact SSz may act like MTX as a folate antagonist, also ihibits TNF binding to membrane bound receptors. Individual components may decrease prostaglandin synthesis.

72
Q

mechanism of leflunomide

A

reversible inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, reducing pyrimidine synthesis and thus exhibiting antiproliferative properties

think anti proLiferative

73
Q

mechanism of hydroxychloroquine

A

action is unclear but it decreases prostaglandins, decreases TNFa and decreases IL-6

74
Q

what is the prevalence of rheumatoid arthritis in the UK

A

around 1.5 men and 3.6 women developing RA per 10,000 people per year in the UK

75
Q

Symptoms of RA

A

Painful joints, stiffness, swelling, affects small joints more than large joints, presents symmetrically, DIP joints not affected, persistent swelling (doesn’t settle)

76
Q

Non-specific tests for RA

A

CRP/ESR - often elevated
FBC - anaemia common
Urate - can be falsely low during gout

77
Q

Specific tests for RA

A

RhF
CCP

not diagnostic

78
Q

What is Rheumatoid Factor

A

IgM antibody, directed against Fc portion of IgG Ab

Sensitivity around 70%
Specificity around 80-85%
%% of population without RA are positive

79
Q

What is CCP Ab

A

Inflammation leads to cellular damage
Enzymatic process leads to the conversion of arginine residues to citrulline

Sensitivity 66%
Specificity 90%

positive test for anti-ccp ab normally means RA

80
Q

First changes in X-Ray imaging for RA

A

Periarticular osteopenia
Joint space narrowing
Soft tissue swelling

81
Q

Late changes in X-Ray imaging for RA

A

Erosions
Joint destruction
Subluxation

82
Q

oral steroid side effects

A

Renal impairment, anti-coagulation, liver disease, heart failure, can be hard to get off steroids

83
Q

4 theories of immune regulatory failure

A

Loss of central tolerance
loss of peripheral tolerance
molecular mimicry
Inappropriate activation

84
Q

What does positive selection of the thymus ensure

A

T cells are functional and well equipped

85
Q

What does negative selection of the thymus result in

A

contributes to self-tolerance

86
Q

What is central regulation of the immune system

A

The thymus - positive and negative selection

87
Q

Examples of peripheral regulation of the immune system

A

Regulatory B and T cells
dendritic cells
costimulation
ignorance and privilege

88
Q

What causes Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome

A

A result of a mutation in Fas - uncontrolled lymphocyte proliferation in the absence of infection

89
Q

What is IPEX (immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy X-linked syndrome)

A

A defect in peripheral tolerance leading to dermatitis, diarrhoea and diabetes

90
Q

What is the hygiene hypothesis

A

Exposure to microorganisms in early life will improve the immune system

Some autoimmune diseases are prevented by infections

91
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of autoimmune diseases

A

Susceptibility genes ->
failure of self tolerance - >
persistence of functional self reactive lymphocytes - >
+Environmental trigger ->
activation of self-reactive lymphocytes ->
immune responses against self tissues

92
Q

what are immune mediated inflammatory diseases

A

Chronic diseases with prominent inflammation, often caused by a failure of tolerance or regulation

May result from autoimmunity or microbial agents
May be caused by T cells and antibodies
May be systemic or organ-specific

93
Q

Describe Grave’s disease

A

Targets the TSH receptor

Non regulated “activating” auto-antibodies that bind to the TSH receptor, leading to overstimulation of the thyroid hormones

94
Q

Describe organ specific autoimmune disease

A

Autoimmune attack vs. self-antigens of given organ, resulting in damage of organ structure and function

95
Q

Describe non-organ specific autoimmune disease

A

Widespread self-antigens are targets for autoimmune attack

Damage affects such structures as blood vessels, cell nuclei etc.

96
Q

Examples of organ specific autoimmune diseases

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis, Multiple Sclerosis (CNS), Guillain Barre syndrome (PNS)

97
Q

Examples of non-organs specific

A

Systemic Lupus (affects skin, kidney, CNS)
Rheumatoid arthritis (affects joints, lungs, vessels/vasculature)

98
Q

What is a transient auto-immune disease

A

Transient - does not necessarily result in chronic autoimmunity

99
Q

Describe Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

Example of molecular mimicry
Disease of the peripheral nerves
Triggered by infections including Campylobacter jejuni
common cause of acute paralysis

100
Q

What are the three phases of RA

A
  1. Pre-articular or lymphoid phase
  2. Transition phase
  3. Articular phase

Loser Takes it All

(think hunger games edit)

101
Q

Describe the pre-articular/lymphoid phase of RA

A

The presence of factors that may suggest RA but no clinical presentation yet

Autoimmunity
CCP-specific antibody
Rheumatoid factor
Collagen-specific response
GP39-specific response

102
Q

Describe the transition phase of RA

A

Microbial insult?
Bio-mechanical events
Neurological events
Microvascular dysfunction

103
Q

Describe the articular phase of RA

A

Articular localisation
cardiovascular disease
osteoporosis
functional decline