Shoulder and Elbow Flashcards

1
Q

What is the pectoral girdle

A

The clavicle and the scapula

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2
Q

What bone is contained in the arm

A

The humerus

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3
Q

What bones are contained in the forearm

A

Radius and ulna

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4
Q

What is the conoid tubercule

A

A ridge on the clavicle where a ligament attaches

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5
Q

Two articular surfaces of the clavicle

A

Sternoclavicular joint (medial)
Acromioclavicular joint (Lateral)

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6
Q

Which epicondyle of the humerus projects out more (and hence can be used for identification in an x-ray)

A

Medial

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7
Q

What shape is the sternoclavicular joint

A

Saddle

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8
Q

What is the only joint that attaches the upper limb to the axial skeleton

A

Sternoclavicular joint

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9
Q

What type of joint is the acromioclavicular joint

A

Synovial plane joint (with fibrocartilaginous articular disc

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10
Q

What type of joint is the glenohumeral joint

A

Synovial multiaxial (ball and socket) joint

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11
Q

What type of joint is the elbow joint

A

Synovial complex hinge joint

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12
Q

What type of joint is the proximal radioulnar joint

A

Synovial unixial pivot joint
(Between radial head and radial notch of ulna)

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13
Q

Function of annular ligament

A

Holds proximal radioulnar joint in place

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14
Q

What type of joint is the distal radioulnar joint

A

Synovial, uniaxial pivot joint
(between ulnar head and ulnar notch of radius)
(articular disc between)

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15
Q

what connects the radius and ulna all the way down the bones

A

interosseous membrane

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16
Q

what happens in pronation of the forearm

A

ulna stays in place
radius “radiates” around the ulna to cross over it

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17
Q

what is the brachial

A

the arm

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18
Q

what is the brachial plexus

A

intricate nerve network of the arm

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19
Q

what are the spinal roots for the brachial plexus

A

C5 - T1

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20
Q

the sections of brachial plexus

A
  • Roots (formed by anterior rami)
  • trunks
  • divisions
  • cords
  • terminal branches (peripheral nerves)

Really Tired Drink Coffee Now

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21
Q

What nerves supply the musculocutaneous nerve

A

C5-C7

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22
Q

What nerves supply the median nerve

A

C5 - T1

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23
Q

What nerves supply the Axillary nerve

A

C5 and C6

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24
Q

What nerves supply the Radial nerve

A

C5-T1

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25
Q

What nerves supply the Ulnar nerve

A

C8 - T1

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26
Q

what does the antebrachial fascia cover

A

The entire forearm both anteriorly and posteriorly

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27
Q

what does the brachial fascia cover

A

the entire arm (upper arm)

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28
Q

what are the three functions of fascia

A

Increases surface area of attachment for muscle = greater efficacy
group of muscles can work together for one action
limits space = limits inflammation and infection

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29
Q

what muscles are contained in the anterior compartment of the arm

A

(Flexor compartment)
- biceps brachii
- coracobrachialis
- brachialis

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30
Q

what nerve supplies the flexor compartment of the arm and forearm

A

musculocutaneous

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31
Q

what muscles are contained in the posterior compartment of the arm

A

(Extensor compartment)
- triceps brachii
- anconeus

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32
Q

what nerve supplies the extensor compartment of arm

A

radial

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33
Q

what nerve supplies the extensor compartment of the forearm

A

radial

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34
Q

what nerve mainly supplies the flexor compartment of the forearm

A

median

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35
Q

what are the exceptions to “the median nerve supplies the flexor compartment of the forearm”

A

The ulnar nerve supplies
- the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle
- HALF of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle

Fists Can Uppercut Me
1/2 of Folk Die Practicing Medicine

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36
Q

What nerve supplies the hand

A

Ulnar nerve
(except thumb muscles and two lateral lumbricals)

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37
Q

what nerve supplies the deltoid and the teres minor

A

axillary nerve

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38
Q

what are the posterior axioappendicular muscles of the pectoral girdle

A

superficial - trapezius and latissimus dorsi
deep - levator scapulae and rhomboid major/minor

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39
Q

general origins and insertions of trapezius

A

from midline between skull and T12 to acromion, spine of scapula and lateral clavicle

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40
Q

nerve supply of trapezius

A

spinal accessory nerve (CNXI)

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41
Q

function of trapezius

A

elevation, depression, rotation and retraction of scapula

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42
Q

general origins and insertions of latissimus dorsi

A

midline from T7, iliac crest and scapula to intertubercular groove

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43
Q

nerve supply of the latissimus dorsi

A

thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8)

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44
Q

functions of latissimus dorsi

A

extension, adduction and medial rotation of the humerus

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45
Q

what nerve supplies the levator scapulae and rhomboids

A

dorsal scapular nerve (C4-C5)

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46
Q

function of levator scapulae and rhomboids

A

retraction and elevation of scapula

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47
Q

general origin and insertions of rhomboids and levator scapulae

A

medial border of scapula to cervical and thoracic vertebrae

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48
Q

origin of rhomboid major

A

inferior to scapular spine

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49
Q

insertion of rhomboid minor

A

spine of scapula

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50
Q

origin of levator scapulae

A

superior angle (superior to) scapular spine

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51
Q

general origins and insertion of pectoralis major

A

clavicle and sternum to intertubercular groove

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52
Q

which nerves supply the pectoralis major

A

medial and lateral pectoral nerves (C5-T11)

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53
Q

two heads of pectoralis major

A

clavicular head and sternocostal head

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54
Q

functions of pectoralis major at the GH joint

A

adduction, medial rotation, flexion (clavicular head) and extension (sternocostal head)

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55
Q

functions of pectoralis major at the scapulothoracic joint

A

draws scapula anteroinferiorly

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56
Q

general origin and insertions of the pectoralis minor

A

coracoid process to the costal cartilages of ribs 3-5

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57
Q

what nerve supplies the pectoralis minor

A

medial pectoral nerve (C8-T1)

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58
Q

function of pectoralis minor at the scapulothoracic joint

A

draws scapula anteroinferiorly

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59
Q

general origin and insertions of serratus anterior

A

medial border of scapula to ribs 1-9

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60
Q

which nerve supplies the serratus anterior

A

long thoracic nerve (C5-C7)

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61
Q

functions of the serratus anterior

A

protraction and rotation of the scapula

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62
Q

general origin and insertion of subclavius

A

clavicle to first rib

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63
Q

which nerve supplies the subclavius

A

nerve to subclavius (C5-C6) ??

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64
Q

function of subclavius

A

anchors and depresses clavicle

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65
Q

general origins and insertion of deltoid muscle

A

lateral clavicle, acromion and spine of scapula to deltoid tuberosity of humerus

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66
Q

which nerve supplies the deltoid muscle

A

axillary nerve (C5-6)

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67
Q

function of the clavicular region of the deltoid muscle

A

flexions and medial rotation of the arm

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68
Q

what is the function of the acromial region of the deltoid muscle

A

abduction of the arm

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69
Q

what is the function of the scapular spine region of the deltoid muscle

A

extension and lateral rotation of the arm

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70
Q

general origin and insertion of the teres major

A

inferior lateral border of scapula to intertubercular groove

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71
Q

which nerve supplies the teres major

A

lower subscapular nerve (C5-C6)

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72
Q

what is the function of the teres major

A

medial rotation and extension of the arm

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73
Q

what makes up the rotator cuff

A

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis and teres minor muscles

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74
Q

where do the three posterior muscles of the rotator cuff insert

A

the greater tubercle of the humerus

(the anterior muscle attaches to the lesser tubercle)

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75
Q

what is the collective action of the rotator cuff

A

holds the humeral head in the glenoid cavity during all movements of the GH joint

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76
Q

which nerve supplies the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles of the rotator cuff

A

suprascapular nerve (C4-C6)

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77
Q

which nerve supplies the subscapularis muscle of the rotator cuff

A

subscapular nerve (C5-C7)

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78
Q

which nerve supplies the teres minor muscle of the rotator cuff

A

axillary nerve (C5-C6)

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79
Q

function of the supraspinatus muscle

A

abduction of the arm to 15 degrees

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80
Q

function of the infraspinatus and teres minor muscles

A

lateral rotation of the arm

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81
Q

function of the subscapularis muscle

A

medial rotation of the arm

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82
Q

origin of long head of biceps brachii

A

supraglenoid tubercle

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83
Q

origin of short head of biceps brachii

A

coracoid process

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84
Q

attachments of biceps brachii

A

radial tuberosity and antebrachial fascia via bicipital aponeurosis

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85
Q

functions of biceps brachii

A

flexion and supination of forearm
weak extension of arm

86
Q

origin and insertion of coracobrachialis

A

coracoid process to humerus midshaft

87
Q

function of coracobrachialis

A

flex and adduct arm

88
Q

origin and insertion of brachialis

A

anterior humerus to coronoid process of ulna

89
Q

function of brachialis

A

strong arm flexor

90
Q

what are the three anterior arm muscles

A

biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, brachialis

91
Q

what are the two posterior arm muscles

A

triceps brachii, anconeus

92
Q

origin of long head of triceps brachii

A

infraglenoid tubercle

93
Q

origin of lateral head of triceps brachii

A

posterior humerus, superior to radial groove

94
Q

origin of medial head of triceps brachii

A

posterior humerus, inferior to radial groove

95
Q

insertion of triceps brachii

A

olecranon process of ulna

96
Q

function of triceps brachii

A

extension of forearm

97
Q

origin and insertion of anconeus

A

lateral epicondyle of humerus to lateral olecranon process

98
Q

function of anconeus

A

extension of forearm, stabilises elbow

99
Q

which nerve roots are involved in flexion of the elbow

100
Q

which nerve roots are involved in extension of the elbow

101
Q

how many muscles do each of the layers of the anteriorforearm have

A

superficial - 4
intermediate - 1
deep - 3

102
Q

what is the common origin of the 4 superficial muscles of the anterior forearm

A

medial epicondyle

103
Q

what are the four muscles of the superficial layer of the anterior forearm

A

pronator teres
flexor carpi radialis
palmaris longis
flexor carpi ulnaris

104
Q

which of the flexor carpi muscles is involved in abduction of the hand

A

flexor carpi radialis

(FC Ulnaris = adduction)

105
Q

which muscle is contained in the intermediate layer of the anterior forearm

A

flexor digitorum superficialis

106
Q

how many tendons does the FDS have

A

4 tendons; 1 to each middle phalanx of digits 2-5

107
Q

what are the three muscles of the deep layer of the anterior forearm

A

flexor digitorum profundus
flexor pollicis longus
pronator quadratus

108
Q

how many tendons does the FDP have

A

4 tendons; 1 to each distal phalanx of digits 2-5

109
Q

what is the common origin of the muscles of the posterior forearm

A

lateral epicondyle

110
Q

what are the five muscles of the superficial posterior forearm

A

brachioradialis
extensor carpi radialis longus
extensor carpi radialis brevis
extensor digitorum
extensor digiti minimi

111
Q

function of the brachioradialis

A

flexor of mid-pronated forearm

(think about having a drink)

112
Q

function of the extensor carpi radialis longus

A

extension of the wrist and abduction of the hand

113
Q

function of the extensor carpi radialis brevis

A

extension of the wrist and abduction of the hand

114
Q

what are the five muscles of the deep posterior forearm

A

supinator
extensor indicis
abductor pollicis longus
extensor pollicis longus
extensor pollicis brevis

115
Q

What is gastrulation

A

A process of cell division and migration resulting in the formation of the three germ layers

116
Q

what are the distinct regions of the mesoderm (medial to lateral)

A

notochord
paraxial mesoderm
intermediate mesoderm
lateral plate mesoderm
extraembryonic mesoderm

117
Q

what regions of the embryo have no mesoderm

A

oropharyngeal membrane and cloacal membrane

(form the mouth and anus and so no muscle formed)

118
Q

between which days of development are the paraxial, intermediate and lateral plate formed

A

days 17-21

119
Q

what forms the paraxial mesoderm

A

cells moving bilaterally and cranially from the primitive streak

120
Q

where dies the paraxial mesoderm lie

A

adjacent to notochord and neural tube

121
Q

what does the paraxial mesoderm form

A

the somites in the embryo

122
Q

what does the intermediate mesoderm form

A

the genitourinary system

123
Q

what is the name of the cavity that splits the lateral plate mesoderm

A

intraembryonic coelom

124
Q

what are the two layers of the lp mesoderm

A

somatic or parietal layer
splanchnic or visceral layer

125
Q

examples of smooth muscle that come from ectoderm instead of mesoderm

A

pupil, mammary, and sweat glands

126
Q

what forms skeletal muscle (mesoderm)

A

the paraxial mesoderm

127
Q

describe somitogenesis

A

paraxial mesoderm gets organised into somites
form alongside the developing neural tube in a craniocaudal sequence over time (from day 20)

3 pairs of somites form every day until the end of week five

128
Q

what genes control somitogenesis

A

FGF family, Wnt, Notch

129
Q

describe the clock and wave mechanism

A

somites form in a head to tail fashion via overlapping gradients.

Clock gene expression = notch
Once cells at right “time” they express notch, allowing them to react to the wave.

Wave of FGF8 is washing up the somites
It will only have an effect on the somites if the mesoderm is at the right “time”: and expressing notch

130
Q

How many pairs of somites are present at the end of the 5th week

A

42-44 pairs, these go on to form the axial skeleton

131
Q

what is a somite

A

a block of paraxial mesoderm that give rise to the axial skeleton

132
Q

what is the process of somite differentiation referred to as

A

epithelisation

133
Q

what becomes the sclerotome

A

cells in the ventral and medial area of the somite undergo an epithelial-mesenchymal transition

134
Q

what becomes the dermomyotome

A

cells in the dorsal half of the somite

135
Q

what does the dermomyotome split to form

A

the dermatome - dermis of the back
myotome - muscles

136
Q

what is a myoblast

A

a muscle cell precursor which undergo cell division under the influence of growth factors

137
Q

What forms primary myotubes

A

myoblasts aligned into chains and fuse, cell membranes disappear - multinucleated myotubes - primary myotubes

138
Q

what mediates the differentiation of myoblasts into myotubes

139
Q

function of MYOD and MYF5

A

transcription factors that activate muslce-specific genes.
they enable the differentiation of myogenic precursor cells in the dermomyotome into myoblasts

140
Q

what molecular regulation of somite differentiation occurs in both the neural tube and the lateral plate mesoderm

A

WNT proteins (activating) and BMP (inhibitory) combine to activate MYOD in the dermomyotome - creating a group of muscle cells precursors which express MYF5

141
Q

what molecular regulation of somite differentiation occurs in the notochord

A

‘sonic hedgehog’ and ‘noggin’ factors induce sclerotome formation

142
Q

what happens if you take away both MYF5 and MYOD (experimentally in mice)

A

loss of function mutation results in a complete lack of skeletal muscle formation

143
Q

from which type of mesoderm does cardiac muscle originate

A

splanchnic lateral plate

144
Q

what are the 2 directions of embryonic folding

A

lateral folding: driven by the somites

cephalocaudal folding: driven by the CNS

145
Q

what is the function of the amniotic membrane

A

protection of developing embryo and fetus

146
Q

what is the function of the notochord

A

important signalling structure during development of mesoderm and nervous system.
triggers development of CNS

147
Q

what does the sclerotome form

A

ribs and vertebrae

148
Q

what does the dermatome form

A

dermis and some muscles

149
Q

what does the myotome form

A

skeletal muscles

150
Q

what is appositional growth

A

growth on the surface

increase in width of bone - seen during development and in fractures. Chondroblasts deposit collagen matrix on cartilage beneath the periosteum and add bone

151
Q

what is interstitial growth

A

increase in length. Result of the growth plate of cartilage model producing bone during childhood up until puberty

152
Q

what is endochondral ossification

A

cartilage model is laid down as a precursor to bone

153
Q

what is intramembranous ossification

A

cartilage not involved. Condensation of mesenchyme straight to bone

154
Q

what is mesenchyme

A

connective tissue formed from mesoderm. Highly migratory and essentially a stem cell population of the MSK system

155
Q

what is a myotome (in embryology)

A

part of the somite that forms the muscles

156
Q

what are osteoclasts derived from

A

blood monocytes/macrophages

157
Q

what are osteoblasts derived from

A

osteoprogenitor cells

158
Q

what type of mesoderm fuses to close the body wall of the embryo during folding

A

somatic lateral plate mesoderm

159
Q

what is the ECM composed of

A

50% water
proteins
glycoproteins
proteoglycans
glycosaminoglycans (GAG)

160
Q

describe the structure and function of collagen

A

30% of protein mass - major component of connective tissue
Gly-X-Y repeat
triple helical structure
tensile forces

161
Q

what signifies collagen maturation

A

addition of sugar molecules

162
Q

what are two examples of enzymes that cleave off propeptides

A

C-proteinase (Bmp1) - tolloid family

n-proteinase (ADAMTS family members)

163
Q

what is the collagen turn-over half life

A

approx 120 years in the human body

164
Q

in what rhythm is collagen produced

A

circadian - synthesised at night, secreted during the day

165
Q

describe osteogenesis imperfecta

A

brittle bone disease
autosomal recessive and dominant forms
collagen type 1 related (major fibrillar collagen)
COL1A1 and COL1A2 heterotrimeric protomer

166
Q

what is a heterotrimeric protomer

A

macromolecule made up of three subunits - alpha, beta and gamma

167
Q

what is classical OI

A

autosomal dominant
COL1A1 or COL1A2 mutation

168
Q

describe type 1 OI

A

less severe, no symptoms at birth
early onset osteoporosis, few fractures
reduced collagen levels

169
Q

difference between normal and mild OI collagen levels

A

normal:
8 x proalpha1 + 4 x proalpha2 = 4 procollagen

mild OI:
4 x proalpha1 + 4 x proalpha2 = 2 procollagen

DUE TO MUTATIONS

170
Q

describe recessive OI-HSP 47

A

recessive OI = no collagen mutation but instead a mutation in HSP47 which leads to delyaed collagen secretion from cells

171
Q

describe the onset of severe OI

A

80% glycine missense mutations (Dominant negative)

effect on modification due to delay in folding
secretion of mutant chains

disruption of the gly-X-Y sequence slows the rate of folding resulting in over modification of the chains N-terminal to the disruption

172
Q

what is opsonisation

A

The process by which opsonins are used to tag foreign pathogens for phagocytosis.

172
Q

What mediates cell adhesion

173
Q

What mediates cell rolling

174
Q

What is cell rolling upregulated by

A

Interleukin 1 and TNF

175
Q

What stimulates cell adhesion

A

interleukin 1 and TNF

176
Q

What stimulates cell migration

A

Chemokines act on leukocytes to stimulate migration across endothelium

176
Q

Outline the steps of phagocytosis

A
  1. opsonization
  2. engulfment using pseudopodia
  3. formation of phagosomes
  4. fusion with lysosomes containing enzymes to form phagolysosomes
  5. material destroyed and removed from cell by pinocytosis
177
Q

Describe serous fluid

A

usually a transudate, found in pleural, pericardial, peritoneal spaces

177
Q

Compare exudate vs transudate

A

Exudate fluid has HIGH protein and HIGH cellular content

Transudate fluid has LOW protein and LOW cellular content

178
Q

describe Fibrinous exudate

A

fluid rich in fibrin, an exudate due to high protein content, often on serosal surface, meninges

179
Q

describe suppurative exudate

A

pus forming, an exudate rich in neutrophil polymorphs

180
Q

describe haemorrhagic exudate

A

severe vascular injury or depletion of coagulatory factors

181
Q

describe pseudomembranous exudate

A

surface exudate on mucosal/epithelial sites

182
Q

What is the function of exudate

A

allows delivery of nutrients, dilution of toxins, entry of antibodies and stimulates the immune response

183
Q

describe the kinin system

A

activated by coagulation factor XII
bradykinin alters vascular permeability and mediates pain

184
Q

beneficial effects of acute inflammation

A
  • dilution of toxins by oedema fluid
  • increased entry of antibodies and drug transport
  • fibrin traps microorganisms
  • delivery of nutrients
  • stimulation of immune response
185
Q

detrimental effects of acute inflammation

A
  • digestion of normal tissues
  • swelling
  • inappropriate response (eg type 1 hypersensitivity)
186
Q

what defines inflammation as chronic

A
  • it is persistent and lacks resolution when the inflamed tissue is unable to overcome the effects of the injurious agent.
  • it persists for weeks, months, or years with ongoing tissue damage
  • it is characterised by infiltrates of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages.
187
Q

what do Th1 cells activate

A

Il-2
INF y
TNF b
Il-3

188
Q

What do Th2 cells activate

A

IL-4
IL-5
IL-6
IL-9
IL-10
IL-13

189
Q

What differentiates between a macrophage and a monocyte

A

Macrophages reside in tissues
Monocytes are circulating

190
Q

What is the function of a macrophage/monocyte

A

Involve chemotaxis
Synthesise TNF, IL-1, IL-6
Phagocytosis
Antigen presenting cells that link between innate and adaptive immune response

191
Q

List the 6 activated macrophage products involved in tissue destruction

A

Toxic oxygen metabolites
Proteases
Neutrophil chemotactic factors
Coagulation factors
Arachidonic acid metabolites
Nitric oxide

192
Q

List the 4 activated macrophage products involved in fibrosis

A

Growth factors (PDGF, FGF)
Fibrogenic cytokines (TGF beta)
Angiogenesis factors
Remodelling collagenases

193
Q

what is a granuloma

A

Granulomas comprise groups of activated macrophages with a modified appearance (epithelioid macrophages) and giant cells (formed from fused epithelioid macrophages)

194
Q

What are some examples of causes of chronic granulomatous inflammation

A

infectious agents such as tuberculosis, leprosy, toxoplasmosis
foreign material such as talc
crohn’s disease
sarcoidosis
response to tumour such as hodgin lymphoma

195
Q

what are epithelioid macrophages

A

modified macrophages arranged in small nodules or clusters
they have a mainly secretory role rather than phagocytosis
multinucleated giant cells form where material is difficult to digest

196
Q

what cells are involved in granulomatous inflammation

A

epithelioid macrophages, lymphocytes CD4 and CD8

197
Q

describe how granulomatous inflammation can be delayed type hypersensitivity

A

T cell mediated immune reaction.

the antigen is presented to CD4+ T cells which in turn takes time to produce IFN gamma and other cytokines resulting in macrophage activation.

198
Q

three processes in wound healing

A

inflammation
proliferation
maturation

199
Q

what is healing by primary intention

A

healing of a simple wound such as an incised wound, where the edges are closely opposed

200
Q

what is healing by secondary intention

A

healing of a wound with a larger surface defect in which the edges cannot be closely opposed or one that is dirty or infected

201
Q

phases of (muscle?) healing

A

formation of blood clot
formulation of granulation tissue
cell proliferation and collagen deposition
scar formation
wound contraction
connective tissue remodelling
recovery of tensile strength

202
Q

describe the inflammatory phase of fracture healing

A
  • haematoma forms at the site of fracture
  • prostaglandins recruit neutrophil polymorphs, macrophages, lymphocytes and fibroblasts to the site of injury
  • granulation tissue, ingrowth of vessels, migration of mesenchymal cells occurs
  • nutrients and oxygen are supplied by the exposed bone and muscle
203
Q

describe the repair phase in fracture healing

A
  • fibroblasts lay down stroma to support ingrowing vessels
  • collagen matrix is laid down
  • osteoid is secreted and mineralised leading to soft callus formation
  • callus ossifies after 4-6 weeks by forming bridge of woven bone between fracture fragments
204
Q

describe the remodelling phase of fracture healing

A
  • occurs slowly over months and years
  • returns bone to its original shape, structure and mechanical strength
  • facilitated by mechanical stress
205
Q

local factors influencing wound healing

A
  • type, size and location of wound
  • movement within wound
  • infection
  • presence of foreign,necrotic material
  • irradiation
  • poor blood supply
206
Q

systemic factors influencing wound healing

A
  • age
  • nutrition
  • systemic disease
  • drugs
  • smoking