syncope, PE, AMS Flashcards

1
Q

medications that can prolong the QT interval

A

erythromycin, clarithromycin, haloperidol, amiodarone, droperidol, and others

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2
Q

in the evaluation of syncope, ?are the only level A recommendations from the American College of Emergency Physicians (ACEP)

A

a good thorough history, a physical examination, and ECG

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3
Q

The San Francisco Syncope rule uses five criteria to predict who requires hospitalization

A

history of CHF, abnormal ECG, hematocrit less than 30, shortness of breath, and/or systolic BP of less than 90 mm Hg at triage

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4
Q

The OESIL score is based upon

A

abnormal ECG, history of cardiac disease, age less than 65, and syncope without prodrome

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5
Q

The ROSE predictors are:

A

BNP +300, positive fecal occult blood, hemoglobin less than 9.0, oxygen saturation less than 94%, and Q waves present on ECG

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6
Q

V/Q scans to dx PEs are used in ?

A

renal failure and pregnant pts (actually Q without the P in preggos)

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7
Q

gold standard of PE dx

A

CTPA: CT pulmonary angiography
even better: MDCTA (high resolution)
used to be pulmonary angiography, but more invasive and higher M/M
The Prospective Investigation of Pulmonary Embolism Diagnosis II (PIOPED II) study

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8
Q

if low pretest probability of DVT

A

get US
if normal, DVT r/o
if abnormal, tx DVT

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9
Q

if medium pretest probability of DVT

A

get US
if abnormal, tx DVT
if normal, get D dimer

if D dimer is negative, DVT r/o
if D dimer positive, tx DVT
if no D dimer available, US in 1 week

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10
Q

if high pretest probability of DVT

A
get US 
if abnormal, tx DVT
if normal, get venography
if abnormal, tx DVT
if normal, DVT r/o
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11
Q

“gold standard” for DVT dx

A

Venography
However, due to its invasiveness, risk of reaction to contrast dye, and the advent of newer technologies that are just as accurate, venography is rarely used in clinical practice

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12
Q

All patients diagnosed with a DVT where? should be treated with anticoagulation
which anticoagulants for DVT/PE?

A

at or above the popliteal level
UFH
LMWH: enoxaparin (Lovenox), dalteparin, fondaparinux
long term: warfarin

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13
Q

PE s/s

A
sudden onset cough (3%-55%)
blood-streaked sputum (3%-40%)
sudden onset of dyspnea at rest or with exertion (75%)
splinting of ribs with breathing
chest pain (50%-85%)
diaphoresis (25%-40%)
Nonspecific signs of PE include *tachypnea (50%-60%)
tachycardia (25%-70%)
rales/crackles (50%)
low-grade fever (7%-50%)
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14
Q

Unusual clinical presentations of PE

A

seizure, syncope, abdominal pain, high fever, productive cough, adult-onset asthma, new-onset supraventricular arrhythmias, or hiccups

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15
Q

Wells Criteria for pretest probability of PE

A

Suspected DVT- 3
An alternate diagnosis is less likely than PE- 3
HR +100 bpm- 1.5
Immobilization or surgery in the previous 4 weeks- 1.5
Previous DVT/PE- 1.5
Hemoptysis- 1
Malignancy (being treated currently or in the last 6 months)- 1

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16
Q

Scoring of Wells Criteria

A

0-2: 4% LOW
3-6: 21% MODERATE
6+: 67% HIGH RISK

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17
Q

PERC Rule Criteria

if 8 present, very low likely PE (used if low PTP)

A
Age less than 50 years
Pulse less than 100 bpm
SaO2 +94%
No unilateral leg swelling
No hemoptysis
No recent trauma or surgery
No prior PE or DVT
No hormone use
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18
Q

initial CXR in PE

A
abnormal in 76% to 90% of patients
no diagnostic findings, few rare classic signs:
Westermark sign (peripheral lung vasoconstriction) and Hampton hump (pleural wedge-shaped density associated with pulmonary infarction)
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19
Q

CXR progression in PE

A

suggestive of atelectasis, pleural effusion, and elevated hemidiaphragm. After 2 to 3 days, the CXR in one-third of patients with PE demonstrates focal infiltrates mimicking pneumonia
but VARIABLE, so limited use

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20
Q

4 groups of V/Q scan

A

normal, low probability, indeterminant, and high probability

21
Q

ABGs are commonly done in suspected PE but limited how?

A

normal PaO2, normal PCO2, and normal A-a oxygen gradient does not exclude the diagnosis of PE

22
Q

Thrombolytic therapy in PE?

A

advocated for those individuals with a massive PE, such as those with hypotension for whom mortality is as high as 20% to 30%.
There are no conclusive studies that prove a survival advantage for thrombolytic therapy in PE

23
Q

80% of PEs develop from DVTs involving what veins?

A

the iliac, femoral, or popliteal veins

24
Q

Healthy patients without any use of antimicrobials in the past 3 months with presumed CAP are best treated with ?

A

a macrolide (azithromycin)

25
Q

pneumonia pts with comorbid diseases or recent antimicrobial use should receive ?

A

a respiratory fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin) or a β-lactam (cefpodoxime) plus a macrolide as a reasonable alternative

26
Q

abx for pneumonia pts admitted to the ICU

A

β-lactam (ceftazidime) plus either azithromycin or a fluoroquinolone

27
Q

Patients with concern for HAP or HCAP who are at a risk for multidrug-resistant pathogens should receive a 3-drug combination therapy:

A

(1) antipseudomonal cephalosporin (cefepime, ceftazidime), antipseudomonal carbapenem (imipenem or meropenem), or pip-tazo (zosyn); (2) antipseudomonal FQ(ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin); and (3) anti-MRSA coverage (linezolid or vancomycin)

28
Q

HCAP/HAP pts without risk factors for multi-drug-resistant (MDR) organisms may be treated with a single agent:

A

ceftriaxone, ampicillin/sulbactam (unasyn), ciprofloxacin, moxifloxacin, levofloxacin, or ertapenem

29
Q

ddx AMS in elderly

A

underlying infection (eg, sepsis, meningitis, UTI), electrolyte and metabolic abnormalities (eg, hypo- or hyperglycemia, hyponatremia), delirium, and hypoxia

30
Q

What is physiologically responsible for our level of arousal?

A

The reticular activating system (RAS)
Signals from the RAS run through the pons in the brainstem, through the thalami, then project to both cerebral hemispheres

31
Q

AEIOU TIPS for treatable causes of AMS

A

http://casefiles.mhmedical.com/ViewLarge.aspx?figid=141654008&gbosContainerID=70&gbosid=218369

32
Q

GCS
EYES (4)
WORDS (5)
MUSCLE (6)

A
EYES:
spontaneous
verbal
painful
no response
WORDS:
oriented
disoriented
inappropriate words
incomprehensible sounds
no response
MUSCLE:
obeys commands
localizes to pain
withdraws to pain
abnormal flexion
abnormal extension
no response
33
Q

AMS causes

A

infectious (meningitis, UTI, pna)

metabolic (hypoglycemia, hypo/hypernatremia, hypo/hypercalcemia)

34
Q

consider meningitis if any combo of these 4 symptoms

A

fever, AMS, headache, nuchal rigidity
The classic triad of fever, neck stiffness, and a change in mental status is present in less than 50% of patients with bacterial meningitis

35
Q

other symptoms to consider in meningitis

A

others: seizures (S. pneumo), focal neurologic deficits (Listeria), rash (meningococcal), septic arthritis (meningococcal), papilledema and photophobia

36
Q

Who does not require neuroimaging prior to LP?

A

Younger patients that are otherwise healthy if they have a normal neurologic examination including mental status

37
Q

Initial meningitis antimicrobial therapy in adults

A

third-generation cephalosporin (Ceftriaxone or cefotaxime 2g) and vancomycin to cover drug-resistant S pneumoniae

38
Q

Who should have should have ampicillin added to the empiric antimicrobial therapy to cover L monocytogenes

A

Patients older than 50 years, alcoholics, and immunocompromised patients
(at higher risk for additional organisms including Listeria, H.flu, and aerobic gram-negative bacilli)

39
Q

steroids in meningitis?

A

Dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg IV every 6h) prior to or with the 1st dose of abx has been shown to decrease neurologic sequelae as well as M/M
meningitis leads to significant M/M as a result of the inflammatory response in the CSF
This response can be heightened when antimicrobials are administered, which will lead to bacterial lysis and release of additional inflammatory mediators

40
Q

timeline in meningitis diagnosis/treatment

A

When it is expected that there will be a significant delay in obtaining the LP (i.e. to get CT), it is recommended to obtain blood cultures and then initiate treatment with antibiotics with or without dexamethasone, prior to obtaining the CSF

41
Q

when to get CT prior to LP

A

altered consciousness, AMS, focal neuro deficit, immunocompromised, hx of CNS disease, new-onset seizure, papilledema, hx/evidence of head trauma
also to identify those patients that may be at risk of brain herniation during the LP

42
Q

CSF values indicative of bacterial meningitis

A

elevated protein +220 mg/dL indicative of bacterial/fungal (normal: 14-45 mg/dL)
low glucose less than 40 mg/dL(normal 50-80 mg/dL) or CSF/serum glucose less than 0.4
elevated CSF lactate (normal less than 35 mg/dL)

43
Q

cryptococcal meningitis diagnosis

A

India ink only positive 33% of the time
Cryptococcal Ag has 90% accuracy
opening pressure will be elevated (normal is less than 200 mm H20)

44
Q

meningitis in kid younger than 1 month, consider what organisms? how to treat?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae, Escherichia coli, Listeria monocytogenes, Klebsiella species
Ampicillin plus cefotaxime OR ampicillin plus an aminoglycoside

45
Q

what meningitis organisms to consider in 1-23 month olds? how to tx

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, S agalactiae, Haemophilus influenzae, E coli
Vancomycin plus a third-generation cephalosporin

46
Q

what meningitis organisms to consider in 2-50 yo?

how to tx?

A

N meningitidis, S pneumoniae

Vancomycin plus a third-generation cephalosporin

47
Q

what meningitis organisms to consider in +50 yo?

how to tx?

A

S pneumoniae, N meningitidis, L monocytogenes, aerobic gram-negative bacilli
Vancomycin plus a third-generation cephalosporina plus ampicillin

48
Q

meningitis ppx for close contacts?

A

rifampin or FQ for close contacts of pt with Neisseria meningitides
not recommended for Hib meningitis contacts due to vaccination

49
Q

vaccination against N meningitidis is recommended for who?

A

freshmen college students who live in dormitories, as they are at moderately increased risk of contracting this disease