asthma, bites, stroke Flashcards

1
Q

simple, inexpensive ways of measuring the severity of airway obstruction in severe asthma exacerbation and are commonly used to monitor response to treatment in the ED

A

peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) or FEV1
Severe asthma is defined as an FEV1 of less than 50% of predicted (typically less than 200 L/min in an adult) or one’s own personal best measurement

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2
Q

when to get ABG in asthma exacerbation

A

To determine degree of hypercapnea or assess degree of deterioration in tiring patient not yet sick enough to warrant endotracheal intubation

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3
Q

when to get CXR in asthma exacerbation

A
Temp +38°C
Unexplained chest pain
Leukocytosis
Hypoxemia
Comorbidities/alternative diagnosis
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4
Q

when to get EKG in asthma exacerbation

A

Persistent tachycardia

Comorbidities/alternative diagnosis

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5
Q

heliox in asthma? how does it work

A

produce a more laminar airflow and potentially deliver nebulized particles to more distal airways, but they have not been shown to consistently lead to improved ED outcomes, may be beneficial only in patients who present with severe asthma that is refractory to initial treatment

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6
Q

Oxygen should be provided to maintain a pulse oximetry reading of at least ? in adults and higher in whom?

A

90%

at least 95% in infants, pregnant women, and patients with coexisting heart disease

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7
Q

mainstay of asthma treatment

A

Albuterol
Typically 2.5 to 5 mg intermittently nebulized every 15 to 20 minutes for the first hour of therapy and then repeated every 30 minutes thereafter for 1 to 2 more hours

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8
Q

patients with severe obstruction or who cannot tolerate inhalation therapy (eg, children) are given

A

subQ administration of epi or terbutaline
Epi 0.3 to 0.5 mg subcutaneously every 20 minutes to a maximal combined total dose of 1 mg
Terbutaline is given 0.25 mg subcutaneously every 20 minutes up to a maximum of three doses. -preferable because of its beta-2 selectivity and fewer cardiac side effects
Levabuterol

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9
Q

typical dose for ipratropium bromide is ?

A

two puffs from a MDI with spacer device, or 0.5 mL of the 0.02% solution

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10
Q

when to use steroids in AE

A

Acute asthma in patients with moderate/severe asthma attack
Worsening asthma over many days (+3 days)
Mild asthma not responding to initial bronchodilator therapy or asthma that develops despite daily inhaled corticosteroid use

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11
Q

steroid dosing for AE

A

Oral administration of prednisone (dose 40-60 mg) is usually preferred to IV methylprednisolone (dose 125 mg), because it is less invasive and the effects are equivalent
alternatively: IM methylprednisolone, IV/oral dexamethasone, IV hydrocortisone

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12
Q

leukotriene antagonists and their role in asthma

A

zileuton (Zyflo Filmtab), zafirlukast (Accolate), and montelukast (Singulair)
only in the management of chronic asthma

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13
Q

what may benefit asthmatics with severe airway obstruction

A

magnesium sulfate given IV at dosages of 2 to 4 g
compete with Ca2+ for entry into smooth muscle, inhibit the release of Ca2+ from the SR, prevent acetylcholine release from nerve endings, and inhibit mast cell release of histamine

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14
Q

BiPAP in AE?

A

Severe asthmatics (defined as FEV1 less than 60% and RR +30) with impending respiratory failure should receive a trial of BiPAP prior to being intubated

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15
Q

Immediate rapid-sequence endotracheal intubation should be reserved for ?.
In an awake patient, an appropriate induction agent (eg, ?) and paralytic agent (eg, ?) should be used prior to intubation

A

unconscious or near-comatose patients with respiratory failure
ketamine
succinylcholine

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16
Q

why is ketamine the induction agent of choice?

A

it stimulates the release of catecholamines and causes relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle, leading to bronchodilation
IV infusion of 1 mg/kg, followed by a continuous infusion of 0.5 to 2 mg/kg/h

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17
Q

Once an asthmatic patient is intubated, the ventilator should be set to promote the goal of ?

A

permissive hypercapnea which aims at minimizing dynamic hyperinflation (ie, breath stacking or auto-PEEP) with low tidal volumes, and increased time for expiration, while limiting plateau pressures

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18
Q

Suggested initial settings for AE: Assist Control mode with what settings

A

respiratory rate of 8 to 10 breaths per minute, tidal volume 6 to 8 mL/kg, no extrinsic PEEP, inspiratory-to-expiratory (I/E) ratio of 1:4, and an inspiratory flow rate of 80 to 100 L/min. To prevent barotrauma, plateau pressures should not exceed 30 cm H2O

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19
Q

when can AE pts go home

A

An improvement of PEFR or FEV1 to greater than 70% predicted or personal best can also be used as a sign of objective improvement

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20
Q

Asthmatics who are discharged from the ED should receive ?

A

albuterol, an MDI spacer device, and a 5- to 10-day course of oral steroids

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21
Q

Glucagon has become an accepted antidote to ? poisoning because ?

A

beta-blocker

it stimulates cAMP synthesis independent of the beta-adrenergic receptor

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22
Q

use what to irrigate a wound

A

Sterile saline

povidone iodine, hydrogen peroxide, and detergents should be avoided because of their toxic effects on tissue

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23
Q

local anesthetic combos and uses (TAC and LET)

A

TAC (tetracaine, 0.25%-0.5%; adrenaline, 0.025%-0.05%; cocaine, 4%-11%) was commonly used initially, but was associated with seizure, arrhythmia, and cardiac arrest.

LET (lidocaine, 4%; epinephrine, 0.1%; tetracaine, 0.5%) is generally safer than TAC and is used for anesthesia of the face and scalp

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24
Q

avoid what LAs in large wounds and mucus membranes because of possibility for systemic absorption

A

lidocaine and tetracaine

25
Q

repair of the scalp should be done with ?

repair of the forehead should be done with ?

A

4-0 monofilament suture of different color than the patient’s hair or staples removed after 7-10 days
6-0 nonabsorbable interrupted sutures, and removed after 5 days

26
Q

Nasal septal trauma may lead to ?

A

hematoma formation, which can lead to necrosis of the septum or chronic obstruction of the nasal passageway

27
Q

intraoral wounds are ? Therefore, give ?

A

dirty wounds and are at high risk for infection

prophylactic penicillin or clindamycin

28
Q

look out for this in ear trauma

A

basilar skull fracture or tympanic membrane rupture

29
Q

Patients with tetanus should receive ?

A

passive immunization with tetanus immunoglobulin (TIG) 3000 to 6000 units IM on the side opposite of the tetanus toxoid injection
PCN often given but questionable

30
Q

tetanus dosing

A

http://casefiles.mhmedical.com/ViewLarge.aspx?figid=104716597&gbosContainerID=70&gbosid=218349

31
Q

Postexposure prophylaxis for rabies

A

combination of immediate, passive (rabies IgG) immunization and active immunization (human diploid cell vaccine)
give tetanus vaccine should be administered if the patient has not received it within the last 5 years

32
Q

what bites are left open?

A

puncture wounds, bites of the hand or foot, wounds more than 12 hours (or 6hrs?) old, and infected tissues

33
Q

Oral flora in dogs and cats include

A

Staphylococcus aureus, Pasteurella spp, (P multocida most common org in cats) Capnocytophaga canimorsus, Streptococcus, and oral anaerobes

34
Q

Humans usually have mixed flora, including

A

S aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, Eikenella corrodens and beta-lactamase-positive oral anaerobes

35
Q

Good initial-choice antibiotics for cat/dog/human bites include
for how long?

A

amoxicillin-clavulanic acid (augmentin), ticarcillin-clavulanic acid (timentin), ampicillin-sulbactam (unasyn), or a second-generation cephalosporin
10 to 14 days and 3 to 5 days for prophylaxis

36
Q

antivenom

A

Crotalidae polyvalent immune Fab CroFab

37
Q

effects of poisonous snake bites

A

hematological: DIC, ecchymosis, and bleeding disorders
neuro: weakness, paresthesia, paralysis, confusion, and respiratory depression

38
Q

stroke M and M?

A

third leading cause of death in the United States and the number one cause for disability

39
Q

aphasia usually corresponds to a ? stroke; neglect generally indicates a ? stroke; crossed signs (eg, right-sided facial droop with left-sided extremity weakness) typically indicate ?

A
left hemispheric (dom)
right hemispheric (nondom)
brainstem involvement
40
Q

dominant hemisphere stroke

A

Contralateral numbness and weakness, contralateral visual field cut, gaze preference, dysarthria, aphasia

41
Q

nondominant hemisphere stroke

A

Contralateral numbness and weakness, visual field cut, contalateral neglect, dysarthria

42
Q

anterior cerebral artery lesion

A

Contralateral weakness (leg more than arm); mild sensory deficits; dyspraxia

43
Q

MCA lesion

A

Contralateral numbness and weakness (face, arm more than leg); aphasia (if dominant hemisphere)

44
Q

PCA lesion

A

Lack of visual recognition; AMS with impaired memory; cortical blindness

45
Q

vertebrobasilar syndrome

A

Dizziness, vertigo; diplopia; dysphagia; ataxia; ipsilateral cranial nerve palsies; contralateral weakness (crossed deficits)

46
Q

basilar artery occlusion

A

Quadriplegia; coma; locked-in syndrome (paralysis except upward gaze)

47
Q

lacunar infarct

A

Pure motor or sensory deficit

48
Q

intracerebral hemorrhage

A

May be clinically indistinguishable from infarction; contralateral numbness and weakness; aphasia, neglect (depending on hemisphere); headache, vomiting, lethargy, marked HTN more common

49
Q

cerebellar hemorrhage

A

Sudden onset of dizziness, vomiting, truncal instability, gaze palsies, stupor

50
Q

NIH stroke scale measures

A

several aspects of brain function such as consciousness, vision, sensation, movement, speech, and language

51
Q

NIH stroke scale

A

http://casefiles.mhmedical.com.mwu.idm.oclc.org/ViewLarge.aspx?figid=104716820&gbosContainerID=70&gbosid=218351

52
Q

stroke protocol

A

physician evaluation within 10 minutes of arrival, specialist/neurologist notification within 15 minutes, CT of head within 25 minutes and CT interpretation within 45 minutes. For ischemic strokes, the guideline for the administration of rtPA (recombinant tissue-type plasminogen activator) in eligible patients is within 60 minutes

53
Q

early CT findings in ischemic stroke

A

loss of the grey-white differentiation due to increased water concentration in ischemic tissues—leading to a loss of distinction among the basal ganglia nuclei, gyri swelling, and sulcal effacement
increased density within the occluded vessel, which represents the thrombus

54
Q

how to administer tPA

A

rtPa is usually administered 0.9 mg/kg with a maximum dose of 90 mg, with 10% of the dose administered as an IV bolus and the remainder infused over 60 minutes

55
Q

tx of elevated BP in ischemic stroke

A

generally left untx to promote CPP

if BP +220/120 mmHg tx with IV labetalol and nitrates

56
Q

tx of hemorrhagic stroke

A

nimodipine, possibly reversing any anticoagulation with cryoprecipitate or platelets, and consultation with a hematologist and neurosurgeon

57
Q

upper level of normal for the corrected QT interval is approximately ?

A

440 msec for men and 460 msec for women
look for medications, family history, and potential electrolyte imbalances
Prolonged QT syndrome is associated with sudden death

58
Q

IV tPA guidelines

A

http://casefiles.mhmedical.com.mwu.idm.oclc.org/ViewLarge.aspx?figid=104716822&gbosContainerID=70&gbosid=218351