Swine past questions Flashcards

1
Q

which vitamin deficiency causes hepatosis dietetica in pigs?

A

Vitamin E

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2
Q

what can cause stress in pigs?

  • malignant hypothermia
  • malignant hyperthermia
  • cardiac arrest
  • its burning
A

malignant hyperthermia

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3
Q

therapy for mulberry heart disease?

  • restricting the movement of the animal
  • vitamin E and selenium supplement through feed
  • digoxin 2 ppm with feed
  • furosemide 2-4 mg/kg PO
A

vitamin E and Se supplement through feed

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4
Q

examination of the swine heart?

  • by listening on the right side, all the heart sounds on the 7-8 ribs will go away
  • pulse of the a. facials and the a. femoral difficult to palpate
  • absolute heart sound can be knocked out
  • listening is only possible in young animals
A

pulse of the a. facials and the a. femoralis is difficult to palpate

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5
Q

symptoms of iron deficiency in pigs?

  • salivation
  • melaena faeces
  • sudden death
  • erythema
A

sudden death

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6
Q

it is characteristic of porcine pericarditis?

  • it is mainly caused by the barn being at the wrong temperature
  • it is primarily associated with the formation of transudates
  • the differential diagnosis includes infectious diseases (glasser disease)
  • the presence of fibrous sweat is unlikely
A

it is primarily associated with the formation of transudates

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7
Q

swine enteritis?

  • pathogen may cause clinical signs resulting from specific lesions
  • hyper secretion develops after lawsonia infection, so specific diarrhoea may occur
  • with appropriate diet for the treatment of oedema, a cure rate of over 90% can be achieved
  • inflammatory lesions of varying degrees in the gut occur in both bacterial and viral infections
A

inflammatory lesions of varying degrees in the gut occur in both bacterial and viral infections

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8
Q

therapy of oesophageal ulcer?

  • separation by age group
  • eliminate technological stress
  • metoclopramide
  • prostaglandin F2 alpha
A

elimination of technological stress

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9
Q

which is not a cause of rectal prolapse?

  • mycotoxins (zearalenone)
  • increased motility due to intestinal disease
  • inappropriate floor
  • increased stomach upset due to cough
A

inappropriate floor

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10
Q

enteritis differential diagnosis in different age groups?

  • E. coli infection typically develops in sows after weaning
  • coccidiosis can develop in piglet as early as a few days of age (from 5 days)
  • trichuris suis infection typically develops after 1 week of age
  • rotavirus infection is most common after choice
A

coccidiosis can develop in piglet as early as a few days of age (from 5 days)

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11
Q

true for megacolon in swine?

  • it is often a self healing disease with good prognosis
  • treated with motility enhancing drugs
  • secondary megacolon is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis
  • the surgery solution of the primary megacolon promised good prognosis
A

secondary megacolon is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis

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11
Q

true for megacolon in swine?

  • it is often a self healing disease with good prognosis
  • treated with motility enhancing drugs
  • secondary megacolon is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis
  • the surgery solution of the primary megacolon promised good prognosis
A

secondary megacolon is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis

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12
Q

what can cause constipation?

  • water poisoning
  • prolonged fever
  • meningitis can be a consequence
  • incorrect particle size of granulated feed
A

prolonged fever

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13
Q

causes of gastric ulceration?

  • vitamin U deficiency
  • Vitamin C deficiency
  • feed is not of correct particle size
  • haemophilus suis
A

feed is not correct particle size

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14
Q

which of the following statements is not true for osteoporosis?

  • Vitamin C, P or D deficiency in growing animals (piglets, fatteners) (in adults)
  • a characteristic symptom is sudden lameness
  • the amount of both trabecular and cortical bone decreases
  • articular cartilage usually shows no changes
A

Vitamin C, P or D deficiency in growing animals (piglets, fatteners) (in adults)

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15
Q

which of the following diseases is zoonotic?

  • streptococcus suis
  • Aujeszkys disease
  • Glasaser disease
  • Teschen disease
A

streptococcus suis

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16
Q

which of the following conditions is notifiable?

  • infectious swine paralysis
  • swine pox
  • swine vesicular disease
  • bladder stomatitis
A

swine vesicular disease

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17
Q

which of the following statements is true for oily dermatitis?

  • caused by streptococcus suit (staphylococcus hyicus - greasy pig disease)
  • it is most common in obese pigs
  • the most important symptom is severe itching
  • with proper hygiene and prevention of injury it can be avoided
A

with proper hygiene and prevention of injury it can be avoided

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18
Q

which form of congenital tremor is hereditary?

  • type I
  • type II
  • type III
  • type V
A

type III

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19
Q

which of the following conditions is not a congenital skin disease?

  • Pityriasis rosea
  • myoclonia congenita (tremor disease)
  • epitheliogenesis imperfecta
  • Dermatosis vegetates
A

myoclonia congenita (tremor disease)

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20
Q

which of the following statements is not true for thrombocytopenic purpura?

  • disease of suckling piglets
  • type II hypersensitivity reaction
  • most common at first birth
  • symptoms of weakness anaemia, bleeding throughout the body
A

most common at first birth

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21
Q

why is it hard to intubate the swine? select the incorrect answer?

  • frequent laryngospasm
  • narrow glottis
  • short soft palate
  • sharp teeth
A

short soft palate (long soft palate)

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22
Q

what is the most common cause of ineffective IM injection in pigs?

  • injection into adipose tissue
  • intravenous injection
  • needle too long
  • wrong needle diameter
A

injection into adipose tissue

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23
Q

which vessel is suitable for TIVA infusion in pigs?

  • V. cava caudalis
  • V. cava cranialis
  • V. jugulars
  • marginal ear vein
A

marginal ear vein

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24
which statement is true about azaperone in pigs? - A lower dose (mg/kg) is required in lower weight animals - a higher dose (mg/kg ) is required in lower weight animals - A lower dose (mg/kg) is required in heavier animals - A higher dose (mg/kg) is required in heavier animals
A lower dose (mg/kg) is required in heavier animals
25
which could be the site of IM injection in production/ commercial animals? - thighs - neck musculature - both - none of them
neck musculature
26
which statement is true about porcine anaesthesia? - withdrawal of feed for at least 4 hrs (abdominal surgery 6) - withdrawal of feed for at least 6 hrs (abdominal surgery 4) - withdrawal of feed for at least 12 hrs (abdominal surgery 6) - withdrawal of feed for at least 6 hrs (abdominal surgery 12)
withdrawal of feed for at least 6 hrs (abdominal surgery 12)
27
what can azaperone cause in pigs? - malignant hypothermia - malignant hyperthermia - peripheral vasodilation - cardiac arrest
peripheral vasodilation
28
which statement is true about the effectiveness of xylazine? - Pigs > horses > cattle - horse > pig > cattle - horse > cattle > pig - cattle > horse > pig
cattle > horse > pig
29
which statement is false regarding the treatment of hypoglycaemia in day-old piglets? - preventing cold will help treat the disease - it is easy to handle with glucose solution added to the ear vein - it can be treated with oral glucose solution or milk replacer (artificial feeding) - treatment is also possible with intraperitoneal glucose injection
it is easy to handle with glucose solution added to the ear vein
30
what should be used to monitor pigs during anaesthesia? - pulse - mucosal colour - skin temperature - heartbeat
pulse
31
how is the male sperm stored? - native ejaculate, freezer - native ejaculate, chilled (16-17 ˚C) - diluted ejaculate, chilled (16-17˚C) - dilute ejaculate, chilled (4˚C)
diluted ejaculate, chilled (16-17˚C)
32
how long can you store the sperm for? - 1-2 days - 3-7 days (at 16 ˚C) - 2-3 days - 1-2 months
3-7 days (at 16˚C)
33
average ejaculation volume? - 2-3 ml - 50-80 ml - 100-150 ml - 200-250 ml
200-250 ml
34
on average, when do sows have puberty? - 150-170 days old - 180-210 days old - 230-240 days old - 250-280 days old
150-170 days old
35
break in. oestrus cycle in swine? - in cold winter period - in summer heat (summer infertility) - in spring, when the days get longer
in the summer (summer infertility)
36
duration of oestrus in pigs? - 24hrs - 2-3 days - 4 days - 7 days
2-3 days
37
which statement it true? - in sows, progesterone treatment is performed for oestrus synchronisation - in sows, progesterone therapy is performed for oestrus synchronisation - in female pigs, the correct time of fertilisation is checked with a mucous drop of electroconductivity
in sows, progesterone treatment is performed for oestrus synchronisation
38
what is the back test?
the period of standing oestrus, when the sow is receptive to the boar
39
what would we use to induce the cycle? - eCG + hCG (PG600) IM injection. - Estradiol 17 beta inj. - oral altrenogest content management - prostaglandin F2 alpha injection
eCG + hCG (PG600) IM injection.
40
when is the CL sensitive to prostaglandin? - after the 5th day of cycle - after the 8th day of cycle - after the 12th day of cycle - in the whole CL phase
after the 12th day of cycle
41
select the incorrect statement when evaluating the pregnancy test result of the pigs? - sensitivity: proportion of young animals - specificity: rate of false negative diagnoses - Positive prognosis + ratio of diagnoses - negative prognosis + ratio of diagnoses
Positive prognosis + ratio of diagnoses
42
low amount of vaginal discharge. which is physiological? - 7-10 days postpartum - 2 weeks after mating - 3-4 days postpartum and 5 days after mating - 1-2 days postpartum and 1 week after mating
3-4 days postpartum and 5 days after mating
43
recommendation for the induction of birth in swine? - from the 105th day of pregnancy - from the 107th day of pregnancy - from the 109th day of pregnancy - from the 112th day of pregnancy
from the 112th day of pregnancy (112-115th day)
44
birth induction in swine? - Dexamethasone IM inj. - Oxytocin IM injection - Prostaglandin F2 alpha - PG 600 IM
PGF 2a
45
what disorders are most common around birth? - uterine and cervical prolapse - invasion of horns - uterine rupture
uterine and cervical prolapse
46
what kind of laparotomy can be used in a pig during Caesarean section? - right or left flank incision - ventral paramedian laparotomy - left notch incision only - left paralumbar laparotomy only
right or left flank incision
47
where do you cut the uterus in C-section? - on the right and left horns - near the bifurcation - in the womb - at the apex of the horns
near the bifurcation
48
expected number of piglets weaned per sow? - at least 2-15 piglets/ sow/ year - at least 15-18 piglets/ sow/ year - at least 20-25 piglets/ sow/ year - at least 35-40 piglets/ sow/ year
at least 20-25 piglets/ sow/ year
49
which statement is false regarding the treatment of hypoglycaemia in day-old piglets? - preventing colds will help treat the disease - it is easy to handle with glucose solution added to the ear vein - it can be treated with oral glucose solution of milk replacer (artificial feeding) - treatment is also possible with intraperitoneal glucose injection
it is easy to handle with glucose solution added to the ear vein
50
indication of tail clipping? - brawl prevention - prevention of tail biting - prevention of nipple damage - stimulating the suckling reflex
prevention of tail biting
51
optimal time for the separation of piglets? - 60 days - 35-42 days - 21-28 days - 6-10 days
35-42 days
52
cause of Aujeszky's disease? - PHV-I/ SHV-I - PHV-II - SHV-II - PHV-II/ SHV-II
PHV-I/ SHV-I
53
what are the clinical signs of swine gastric ulceration? - grunting - salvation - pacing - teeth grinding
teeth grinding
54
which joint is most affected by osteochondrosis dissecans in swine? - stifle - hip - elbow - axiooccipital
elbow
55
how long is the course of rabies? - 7-14 days - 3-6 days - 2-3 weeks - 1 month
3-6 days
56
which of the following skin diseases can be diagnosed at birth by apparent clinical signs? - Pityriasis rosea - greasy pig disease - epitheliogenesis imperfecta - PDNS
epitheliogenesis imperfecta
57
the obstipation in swine can be caused by? - water intoxication - long lasting fever - can be a consequence of meningitis - the inadequate particle size of the granulated feed
long lasting fever
58
medicines/ steps used in the treatment of swine gastric ulceration? - separation of the different ages of swine - removal of technological stressors - metoclopramide - prostaglandin F2 alpha
removal of technological stressors
59
which of the following agents causes bowel oedema in swine? - Fumosin B1 - Verotoxin - producing E. coli - haemophilus parasuis - salt poisoning
verotoxin - producing E. Coli
60
which is true for azaperone in pigs? - cheap, not effective in pigs - expensive, effective and licensed in pigs - cheap, effective but not licensed in pigs - cheap, effective, and licensed in pigs
cheap, effective, and licensed in pigs
61
what disorders are most frequent around farrowing in pigs? - uterine and cervical prolapse - invagination nation of the uterus - uterine torsion - rupture of the uterus
uterine and cervical prolapse
62
when is the induction of parturition of swine recommended? - after day 105 of pregnancy - after day 107 of pregnancy - after day 109 of pregnancy - after day 112 of pregnancy
after day 112 of pregnancy
63
how can flunixin-meglumine administered to farm animals? - SC - IV - IM - IP
IV
64
the mulberry heart disease....? - is manifesting only in special breeds of swine - is the degeneration of the cardiac muscle due to vitamin E and Selenium deficiency - means the flaccid paralysis of the smooth muscle of visceral organs
is the degeneration of the cardiac muscle due to vitamin E and Selenium deficiency
65
which of the following statements is FALSE regarding osteoporosis? - it is caused by Ca, P, or vitamin D deficiency in growing animals - a frequent clinical sign is severe lameness - it causes decrease in both trabecular and cortical bone thickness - articular cartilage is usually not affected
it is caused by Ca, P, or vitamin D deficiency in growing animals
66
what is the length of oestrus in pigs? - 2-3 days - 4-7 days - 18-24 days - 10 days
18-24 days
67
what is the length of ovulation in the swine? 2-3 days - 6 hrs - 1 day - 7 days
2-3 days
68
what drugs can be used for oestrus synchronisation in pigs? - long form per os treatment with altrenogest - short term treatment with dexamethasone - long term treatment with dexamethasone - oxytocin
long form per os treatment with altrenogest
69
what could be an IM injection site for a PET pig? - neck muscle - thigh muscle - all of above - none of above
all of above
70
when should we intervene with parturition? - 6-12 hrs into labour with long interval between piglets - 1 hour into labour - never - over 6 hours between piglets
6-12 hrs into labour with long interval between piglets
71
what is true for megacolon of swine? - primary disorder which animal can self solve - secondary is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis - always primary with poor prognosis - always primary with good prognosis
secondary is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis
72
which agent is characterised by immune complex mediated vasculitis? - Aujeszky's - PDNS - glassier's disease - classical swine fever
PDNS
73
in epiphyseolysis in gilts, which bone is most affected? - scapula - humerus - femur - skull
Femur
74
in swine what will acepromazine cause? - hypertension, hyperthermia - hypotension, hypothermia - hypertension, hypothermia - none of the above
hypotension, hypothermia
75
false in swine pox? - it is a sporadic disease - notifiable in Hungary - only pigs are susceptible - mostly found in growers - found worldwide
it is a sporadic disease - notifiable in Hungary
76
drug used for the induction of farrowing? - Oxytocin - PGF-2a - dexamethasone - metaclopramide
PGF-2a (if doesn't work use oxytocin)
77
infectious causes of arthritis in swine? - Erysipelas, mycoplasma hyorhis, haemophilus parasuis - staphylococcus aureus, C. perfringens D - pasturella multicida A, C - streptococcus uberis, erysipelas
Erysipelas, mycoplasma hyorhis, haemophilus parasuis
78
injection site for vena cava cranialis in a piglet? - injection on the right side because N. vagus is on the left - injection on the left side because the N. vagus is on the right - left side as the vein is larger than on the right - either side can be used safely
injection on the right side because N. vagus is on the left
79
incubation period of rabies? - 2 weeks - 4 months - 5 days - 2 weeks - 1 year - 6 - 8 months
2 weeks - 4 months
80
thrombocytopaenuic purpura in piglets? - mostly common in gilts - purple bruises, suckling piglets, type II hypersensitivity reaction - more common in fattening piglets - its where sows lie on the piglets
purple bruises, suckling piglets, type II hypersensitivity reaction
81
which technique is not used for the pregnancy diagnosis in pigs? - US - uterine biopsy - palpation of uterine artery - endocrine diagnosis
uterine biopsy
82
zearalenone toxicosis affecting oestrus signs? - the appearance of red swollen vulva in gilts and increased abortions and stillbirths during gestation may indicate zearalenone contamination of feed - pigs are highy resistant and show no signs
the appearance of red swollen vulva in gilts and increased abortions and stillbirths during gestation may indicate zearalenone contamination of feed
83
which of the following diseases is caused by the disturbance of endochondrial ossification? - osteochondrosis - osteoporosis - arthritis - septic laminitis
osteochondrosis
84
which drugs can be used for the induction of cyclicality in acyclic pigs? - eCG + hCG (PG600) IM. injection - estradiol - long term PO treatment with altrenogest - prostaglandin F2a
eCG + hCG (PG600) IM. injection
85
what is the recommended breeding age for gilts? - 150-170 days - 180-210 days - 220-240 days - after day 250
220-240 days
86
which of the following skin diseases can be diagnosed at birth by apparent clinical signs? - pityriasis rosea - greasy pig disease - epitheliogenesis imperfecta - PDNS
epitheliogenesis imperfecta
87
when does the cyclic CL become sensitive to prostaglandin in the swine? - after day 5 of the cycle - after day 8 of the cycle - after day 12 of the cycle - throughout the entire luteal phase
after day 12 of the cycle
88
where do we make the uterine incision in the pig Caesarean section? - on the right and left horns - near the bifurcation - on the uterine body - near the tip of the uterine horns
near the bifurcation
89
the therapy of mulberry heart disease? - moving restriction of the animal - Vitamin E and selenium supplementation with feed - Digoxin 2 ppm PO - furosemide 2-4 mg/kg BW
vitamin E and selenium supplementation with feed
90
what disorders are most common around the time of farrowing? - uterine and cervical prolapse - invagination of the uterus - uterine torsion - rupture of the uterus
uterine and cervical prolapse
91
which of the following diseases is a zoonosis? - streptococcus suis - Aujeszky disease - Glasser disease - Teschen disease
streptococcus suis
92
differential diagnosis of enteritis according to the age of the animal? - E. coli infection typically occurs in sows after weaning - coccidiosis occurs usually in a few days of age - tricuris suis infection usually occurs at 1 week of age - Rotavirus infection typically occurs in piglets after weaning
coccidiosis occurs usually in a few days of age
93
which of the following diseases is caused by a disturbance of endochondral ossification? - osteoporosis - osteochondrosis - rickets - gout
osteochondrosis
94
what is the cause of Aujeszkys disease? - PHV-II - PHV-I - PHV-III - PHV-IV
PHV-I
95
what age of pig are most susceptible to glasses disease? - 5-10 days - 2-3 weeks - 4-8 weeks - 12-14 weeks
4-8 weeks
96
what will acepromazine cause in pigs? - hypertension, hypothermia - hypotension, hyperthermia - hypotension, hypothermia - hypertension, hyperthermia
hypotension, hypothermia
97
which diagnostic method is most practical for diagnosing porcine uterine disorders? - Rectal palpation - Ultrasound - bacterial examination - cytological examination
ultrasound