Swine past questions Flashcards

1
Q

which vitamin deficiency causes hepatosis dietetica in pigs?

A

Vitamin E

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2
Q

what can cause stress in pigs?

  • malignant hypothermia
  • malignant hyperthermia
  • cardiac arrest
  • its burning
A

malignant hyperthermia

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3
Q

therapy for mulberry heart disease?

  • restricting the movement of the animal
  • vitamin E and selenium supplement through feed
  • digoxin 2 ppm with feed
  • furosemide 2-4 mg/kg PO
A

vitamin E and Se supplement through feed

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4
Q

examination of the swine heart?

  • by listening on the right side, all the heart sounds on the 7-8 ribs will go away
  • pulse of the a. facials and the a. femoral difficult to palpate
  • absolute heart sound can be knocked out
  • listening is only possible in young animals
A

pulse of the a. facials and the a. femoralis is difficult to palpate

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5
Q

symptoms of iron deficiency in pigs?

  • salivation
  • melaena faeces
  • sudden death
  • erythema
A

sudden death

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6
Q

it is characteristic of porcine pericarditis?

  • it is mainly caused by the barn being at the wrong temperature
  • it is primarily associated with the formation of transudates
  • the differential diagnosis includes infectious diseases (glasser disease)
  • the presence of fibrous sweat is unlikely
A

it is primarily associated with the formation of transudates

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7
Q

swine enteritis?

  • pathogen may cause clinical signs resulting from specific lesions
  • hyper secretion develops after lawsonia infection, so specific diarrhoea may occur
  • with appropriate diet for the treatment of oedema, a cure rate of over 90% can be achieved
  • inflammatory lesions of varying degrees in the gut occur in both bacterial and viral infections
A

inflammatory lesions of varying degrees in the gut occur in both bacterial and viral infections

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8
Q

therapy of oesophageal ulcer?

  • separation by age group
  • eliminate technological stress
  • metoclopramide
  • prostaglandin F2 alpha
A

elimination of technological stress

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9
Q

which is not a cause of rectal prolapse?

  • mycotoxins (zearalenone)
  • increased motility due to intestinal disease
  • inappropriate floor
  • increased stomach upset due to cough
A

inappropriate floor

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10
Q

enteritis differential diagnosis in different age groups?

  • E. coli infection typically develops in sows after weaning
  • coccidiosis can develop in piglet as early as a few days of age (from 5 days)
  • trichuris suis infection typically develops after 1 week of age
  • rotavirus infection is most common after choice
A

coccidiosis can develop in piglet as early as a few days of age (from 5 days)

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11
Q

true for megacolon in swine?

  • it is often a self healing disease with good prognosis
  • treated with motility enhancing drugs
  • secondary megacolon is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis
  • the surgery solution of the primary megacolon promised good prognosis
A

secondary megacolon is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis

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11
Q

true for megacolon in swine?

  • it is often a self healing disease with good prognosis
  • treated with motility enhancing drugs
  • secondary megacolon is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis
  • the surgery solution of the primary megacolon promised good prognosis
A

secondary megacolon is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis

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12
Q

what can cause constipation?

  • water poisoning
  • prolonged fever
  • meningitis can be a consequence
  • incorrect particle size of granulated feed
A

prolonged fever

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13
Q

causes of gastric ulceration?

  • vitamin U deficiency
  • Vitamin C deficiency
  • feed is not of correct particle size
  • haemophilus suis
A

feed is not correct particle size

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14
Q

which of the following statements is not true for osteoporosis?

  • Vitamin C, P or D deficiency in growing animals (piglets, fatteners) (in adults)
  • a characteristic symptom is sudden lameness
  • the amount of both trabecular and cortical bone decreases
  • articular cartilage usually shows no changes
A

Vitamin C, P or D deficiency in growing animals (piglets, fatteners) (in adults)

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15
Q

which of the following diseases is zoonotic?

  • streptococcus suis
  • Aujeszkys disease
  • Glasaser disease
  • Teschen disease
A

streptococcus suis

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16
Q

which of the following conditions is notifiable?

  • infectious swine paralysis
  • swine pox
  • swine vesicular disease
  • bladder stomatitis
A

swine vesicular disease

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17
Q

which of the following statements is true for oily dermatitis?

  • caused by streptococcus suit (staphylococcus hyicus - greasy pig disease)
  • it is most common in obese pigs
  • the most important symptom is severe itching
  • with proper hygiene and prevention of injury it can be avoided
A

with proper hygiene and prevention of injury it can be avoided

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18
Q

which form of congenital tremor is hereditary?

  • type I
  • type II
  • type III
  • type V
A

type III

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19
Q

which of the following conditions is not a congenital skin disease?

  • Pityriasis rosea
  • myoclonia congenita (tremor disease)
  • epitheliogenesis imperfecta
  • Dermatosis vegetates
A

myoclonia congenita (tremor disease)

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20
Q

which of the following statements is not true for thrombocytopenic purpura?

  • disease of suckling piglets
  • type II hypersensitivity reaction
  • most common at first birth
  • symptoms of weakness anaemia, bleeding throughout the body
A

most common at first birth

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21
Q

why is it hard to intubate the swine? select the incorrect answer?

  • frequent laryngospasm
  • narrow glottis
  • short soft palate
  • sharp teeth
A

short soft palate (long soft palate)

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22
Q

what is the most common cause of ineffective IM injection in pigs?

  • injection into adipose tissue
  • intravenous injection
  • needle too long
  • wrong needle diameter
A

injection into adipose tissue

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23
Q

which vessel is suitable for TIVA infusion in pigs?

  • V. cava caudalis
  • V. cava cranialis
  • V. jugulars
  • marginal ear vein
A

marginal ear vein

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24
Q

which statement is true about azaperone in pigs?

  • A lower dose (mg/kg) is required in lower weight animals
  • a higher dose (mg/kg ) is required in lower weight animals
  • A lower dose (mg/kg) is required in heavier animals
  • A higher dose (mg/kg) is required in heavier animals
A

A lower dose (mg/kg) is required in heavier animals

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25
Q

which could be the site of IM injection in production/ commercial animals?

  • thighs
  • neck musculature
  • both
  • none of them
A

neck musculature

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26
Q

which statement is true about porcine anaesthesia?

  • withdrawal of feed for at least 4 hrs (abdominal surgery 6)
  • withdrawal of feed for at least 6 hrs (abdominal surgery 4)
  • withdrawal of feed for at least 12 hrs (abdominal surgery 6)
  • withdrawal of feed for at least 6 hrs (abdominal surgery 12)
A

withdrawal of feed for at least 6 hrs (abdominal surgery 12)

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27
Q

what can azaperone cause in pigs?

  • malignant hypothermia
  • malignant hyperthermia
  • peripheral vasodilation
  • cardiac arrest
A

peripheral vasodilation

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28
Q

which statement is true about the effectiveness of xylazine?

  • Pigs > horses > cattle
  • horse > pig > cattle
  • horse > cattle > pig
  • cattle > horse > pig
A

cattle > horse > pig

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29
Q

which statement is false regarding the treatment of hypoglycaemia in day-old piglets?

  • preventing cold will help treat the disease
  • it is easy to handle with glucose solution added to the ear vein
  • it can be treated with oral glucose solution or milk replacer (artificial feeding)
  • treatment is also possible with intraperitoneal glucose injection
A

it is easy to handle with glucose solution added to the ear vein

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30
Q

what should be used to monitor pigs during anaesthesia?

  • pulse
  • mucosal colour
  • skin temperature
  • heartbeat
A

pulse

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31
Q

how is the male sperm stored?

  • native ejaculate, freezer
  • native ejaculate, chilled (16-17 ˚C)
  • diluted ejaculate, chilled (16-17˚C)
  • dilute ejaculate, chilled (4˚C)
A

diluted ejaculate, chilled (16-17˚C)

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32
Q

how long can you store the sperm for?

  • 1-2 days
  • 3-7 days (at 16 ˚C)
  • 2-3 days
  • 1-2 months
A

3-7 days (at 16˚C)

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33
Q

average ejaculation volume?

  • 2-3 ml
  • 50-80 ml
  • 100-150 ml
  • 200-250 ml
A

200-250 ml

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34
Q

on average, when do sows have puberty?

  • 150-170 days old
  • 180-210 days old
  • 230-240 days old
  • 250-280 days old
A

150-170 days old

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35
Q

break in. oestrus cycle in swine?

  • in cold winter period
  • in summer heat (summer infertility)
  • in spring, when the days get longer
A

in the summer (summer infertility)

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36
Q

duration of oestrus in pigs?

  • 24hrs
  • 2-3 days
  • 4 days
  • 7 days
A

2-3 days

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37
Q

which statement it true?

  • in sows, progesterone treatment is performed for oestrus synchronisation
  • in sows, progesterone therapy is performed for oestrus synchronisation
  • in female pigs, the correct time of fertilisation is checked with a mucous drop of electroconductivity
A

in sows, progesterone treatment is performed for oestrus synchronisation

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38
Q

what is the back test?

A

the period of standing oestrus, when the sow is receptive to the boar

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39
Q

what would we use to induce the cycle?

  • eCG + hCG (PG600) IM injection.
  • Estradiol 17 beta inj.
  • oral altrenogest content management
  • prostaglandin F2 alpha injection
A

eCG + hCG (PG600) IM injection.

40
Q

when is the CL sensitive to prostaglandin?

  • after the 5th day of cycle
  • after the 8th day of cycle
  • after the 12th day of cycle
  • in the whole CL phase
A

after the 12th day of cycle

41
Q

select the incorrect statement when evaluating the pregnancy test result of the pigs?

  • sensitivity: proportion of young animals
  • specificity: rate of false negative diagnoses
  • Positive prognosis + ratio of diagnoses
  • negative prognosis + ratio of diagnoses
A

Positive prognosis + ratio of diagnoses

42
Q

low amount of vaginal discharge. which is physiological?

  • 7-10 days postpartum
  • 2 weeks after mating
  • 3-4 days postpartum and 5 days after mating
  • 1-2 days postpartum and 1 week after mating
A

3-4 days postpartum and 5 days after mating

43
Q

recommendation for the induction of birth in swine?

  • from the 105th day of pregnancy
  • from the 107th day of pregnancy
  • from the 109th day of pregnancy
  • from the 112th day of pregnancy
A

from the 112th day of pregnancy (112-115th day)

44
Q

birth induction in swine?

  • Dexamethasone IM inj.
  • Oxytocin IM injection
  • Prostaglandin F2 alpha
  • PG 600 IM
A

PGF 2a

45
Q

what disorders are most common around birth?

  • uterine and cervical prolapse
  • invasion of horns
  • uterine rupture
A

uterine and cervical prolapse

46
Q

what kind of laparotomy can be used in a pig during Caesarean section?

  • right or left flank incision
  • ventral paramedian laparotomy
  • left notch incision only
  • left paralumbar laparotomy only
A

right or left flank incision

47
Q

where do you cut the uterus in C-section?

  • on the right and left horns
  • near the bifurcation
  • in the womb
  • at the apex of the horns
A

near the bifurcation

48
Q

expected number of piglets weaned per sow?

  • at least 2-15 piglets/ sow/ year
  • at least 15-18 piglets/ sow/ year
  • at least 20-25 piglets/ sow/ year
  • at least 35-40 piglets/ sow/ year
A

at least 20-25 piglets/ sow/ year

49
Q

which statement is false regarding the treatment of hypoglycaemia in day-old piglets?

  • preventing colds will help treat the disease
  • it is easy to handle with glucose solution added to the ear vein
  • it can be treated with oral glucose solution of milk replacer (artificial feeding)
  • treatment is also possible with intraperitoneal glucose injection
A

it is easy to handle with glucose solution added to the ear vein

50
Q

indication of tail clipping?

  • brawl prevention
  • prevention of tail biting
  • prevention of nipple damage
  • stimulating the suckling reflex
A

prevention of tail biting

51
Q

optimal time for the separation of piglets?

  • 60 days
  • 35-42 days
  • 21-28 days
  • 6-10 days
A

35-42 days

52
Q

cause of Aujeszky’s disease?

  • PHV-I/ SHV-I
  • PHV-II
  • SHV-II
  • PHV-II/ SHV-II
A

PHV-I/ SHV-I

53
Q

what are the clinical signs of swine gastric ulceration?

  • grunting
  • salvation
  • pacing
  • teeth grinding
A

teeth grinding

54
Q

which joint is most affected by osteochondrosis dissecans in swine?

  • stifle
  • hip
  • elbow
  • axiooccipital
A

elbow

55
Q

how long is the course of rabies?

  • 7-14 days
  • 3-6 days
  • 2-3 weeks
  • 1 month
A

3-6 days

56
Q

which of the following skin diseases can be diagnosed at birth by apparent clinical signs?

  • Pityriasis rosea
  • greasy pig disease
  • epitheliogenesis imperfecta
  • PDNS
A

epitheliogenesis imperfecta

57
Q

the obstipation in swine can be caused by?

  • water intoxication
  • long lasting fever
  • can be a consequence of meningitis
  • the inadequate particle size of the granulated feed
A

long lasting fever

58
Q

medicines/ steps used in the treatment of swine gastric ulceration?

  • separation of the different ages of swine
  • removal of technological stressors
  • metoclopramide
  • prostaglandin F2 alpha
A

removal of technological stressors

59
Q

which of the following agents causes bowel oedema in swine?

  • Fumosin B1
  • Verotoxin - producing E. coli
  • haemophilus parasuis
  • salt poisoning
A

verotoxin - producing E. Coli

60
Q

which is true for azaperone in pigs?

  • cheap, not effective in pigs
  • expensive, effective and licensed in pigs
  • cheap, effective but not licensed in pigs
  • cheap, effective, and licensed in pigs
A

cheap, effective, and licensed in pigs

61
Q

what disorders are most frequent around farrowing in pigs?

  • uterine and cervical prolapse
  • invagination nation of the uterus
  • uterine torsion
  • rupture of the uterus
A

uterine and cervical prolapse

62
Q

when is the induction of parturition of swine recommended?

  • after day 105 of pregnancy
  • after day 107 of pregnancy
  • after day 109 of pregnancy
  • after day 112 of pregnancy
A

after day 112 of pregnancy

63
Q

how can flunixin-meglumine administered to farm animals?

  • SC
  • IV
  • IM
  • IP
A

IV

64
Q

the mulberry heart disease….?

  • is manifesting only in special breeds of swine
  • is the degeneration of the cardiac muscle due to vitamin E and Selenium deficiency
  • means the flaccid paralysis of the smooth muscle of visceral organs
A

is the degeneration of the cardiac muscle due to vitamin E and Selenium deficiency

65
Q

which of the following statements is FALSE regarding osteoporosis?

  • it is caused by Ca, P, or vitamin D deficiency in growing animals
  • a frequent clinical sign is severe lameness
  • it causes decrease in both trabecular and cortical bone thickness
  • articular cartilage is usually not affected
A

it is caused by Ca, P, or vitamin D deficiency in growing animals

66
Q

what is the length of oestrus in pigs?

  • 2-3 days
  • 4-7 days
  • 18-24 days
  • 10 days
A

18-24 days

67
Q

what is the length of ovulation in the swine?

2-3 days

  • 6 hrs
  • 1 day
  • 7 days
A

2-3 days

68
Q

what drugs can be used for oestrus synchronisation in pigs?

  • long form per os treatment with altrenogest
  • short term treatment with dexamethasone
  • long term treatment with dexamethasone
  • oxytocin
A

long form per os treatment with altrenogest

69
Q

what could be an IM injection site for a PET pig?

  • neck muscle
  • thigh muscle
  • all of above
  • none of above
A

all of above

70
Q

when should we intervene with parturition?

  • 6-12 hrs into labour with long interval between piglets
  • 1 hour into labour
  • never
  • over 6 hours between piglets
A

6-12 hrs into labour with long interval between piglets

71
Q

what is true for megacolon of swine?

  • primary disorder which animal can self solve
  • secondary is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis
  • always primary with poor prognosis
  • always primary with good prognosis
A

secondary is more common as a consequence of chronic peritonitis

72
Q

which agent is characterised by immune complex mediated vasculitis?

  • Aujeszky’s
  • PDNS
  • glassier’s disease
  • classical swine fever
A

PDNS

73
Q

in epiphyseolysis in gilts, which bone is most affected?

  • scapula
  • humerus
  • femur
  • skull
A

Femur

74
Q

in swine what will acepromazine cause?

  • hypertension, hyperthermia
  • hypotension, hypothermia
  • hypertension, hypothermia
  • none of the above
A

hypotension, hypothermia

75
Q

false in swine pox?

  • it is a sporadic disease - notifiable in Hungary
  • only pigs are susceptible
  • mostly found in growers
  • found worldwide
A

it is a sporadic disease - notifiable in Hungary

76
Q

drug used for the induction of farrowing?

  • Oxytocin
  • PGF-2a
  • dexamethasone
  • metaclopramide
A

PGF-2a (if doesn’t work use oxytocin)

77
Q

infectious causes of arthritis in swine?

  • Erysipelas, mycoplasma hyorhis, haemophilus parasuis
  • staphylococcus aureus, C. perfringens D
  • pasturella multicida A, C
  • streptococcus uberis, erysipelas
A

Erysipelas, mycoplasma hyorhis, haemophilus parasuis

78
Q

injection site for vena cava cranialis in a piglet?

  • injection on the right side because N. vagus is on the left
  • injection on the left side because the N. vagus is on the right
  • left side as the vein is larger than on the right
  • either side can be used safely
A

injection on the right side because N. vagus is on the left

79
Q

incubation period of rabies?

  • 2 weeks - 4 months
  • 5 days - 2 weeks
  • 1 year
  • 6 - 8 months
A

2 weeks - 4 months

80
Q

thrombocytopaenuic purpura in piglets?

  • mostly common in gilts
  • purple bruises, suckling piglets, type II hypersensitivity reaction
  • more common in fattening piglets
  • its where sows lie on the piglets
A

purple bruises, suckling piglets, type II hypersensitivity reaction

81
Q

which technique is not used for the pregnancy diagnosis in pigs?

  • US
  • uterine biopsy
  • palpation of uterine artery
  • endocrine diagnosis
A

uterine biopsy

82
Q

zearalenone toxicosis affecting oestrus signs?

  • the appearance of red swollen vulva in gilts and increased abortions and stillbirths during gestation may indicate zearalenone contamination of feed
  • pigs are highy resistant and show no signs
A

the appearance of red swollen vulva in gilts and increased abortions and stillbirths during gestation may indicate zearalenone contamination of feed

83
Q

which of the following diseases is caused by the disturbance of endochondrial ossification?

  • osteochondrosis
  • osteoporosis
  • arthritis
  • septic laminitis
A

osteochondrosis

84
Q

which drugs can be used for the induction of cyclicality in acyclic pigs?

  • eCG + hCG (PG600) IM. injection
  • estradiol
  • long term PO treatment with altrenogest
  • prostaglandin F2a
A

eCG + hCG (PG600) IM. injection

85
Q

what is the recommended breeding age for gilts?

  • 150-170 days
  • 180-210 days
  • 220-240 days
  • after day 250
A

220-240 days

86
Q

which of the following skin diseases can be diagnosed at birth by apparent clinical signs?

  • pityriasis rosea
  • greasy pig disease
  • epitheliogenesis imperfecta
  • PDNS
A

epitheliogenesis imperfecta

87
Q

when does the cyclic CL become sensitive to prostaglandin in the swine?

  • after day 5 of the cycle
  • after day 8 of the cycle
  • after day 12 of the cycle
  • throughout the entire luteal phase
A

after day 12 of the cycle

88
Q

where do we make the uterine incision in the pig Caesarean section?

  • on the right and left horns
  • near the bifurcation
  • on the uterine body
  • near the tip of the uterine horns
A

near the bifurcation

89
Q

the therapy of mulberry heart disease?

  • moving restriction of the animal
  • Vitamin E and selenium supplementation with feed
  • Digoxin 2 ppm PO
  • furosemide 2-4 mg/kg BW
A

vitamin E and selenium supplementation with feed

90
Q

what disorders are most common around the time of farrowing?

  • uterine and cervical prolapse
  • invagination of the uterus
  • uterine torsion
  • rupture of the uterus
A

uterine and cervical prolapse

91
Q

which of the following diseases is a zoonosis?

  • streptococcus suis
  • Aujeszky disease
  • Glasser disease
  • Teschen disease
A

streptococcus suis

92
Q

differential diagnosis of enteritis according to the age of the animal?

  • E. coli infection typically occurs in sows after weaning
  • coccidiosis occurs usually in a few days of age
  • tricuris suis infection usually occurs at 1 week of age
  • Rotavirus infection typically occurs in piglets after weaning
A

coccidiosis occurs usually in a few days of age

93
Q

which of the following diseases is caused by a disturbance of endochondral ossification?

  • osteoporosis
  • osteochondrosis
  • rickets
  • gout
A

osteochondrosis

94
Q

what is the cause of Aujeszkys disease?

  • PHV-II
  • PHV-I
  • PHV-III
  • PHV-IV
A

PHV-I

95
Q

what age of pig are most susceptible to glasses disease?

  • 5-10 days
  • 2-3 weeks
  • 4-8 weeks
  • 12-14 weeks
A

4-8 weeks

96
Q

what will acepromazine cause in pigs?

  • hypertension, hypothermia
  • hypotension, hyperthermia
  • hypotension, hypothermia
  • hypertension, hyperthermia
A

hypotension, hypothermia

97
Q

which diagnostic method is most practical for diagnosing porcine uterine disorders?

  • Rectal palpation
  • Ultrasound
  • bacterial examination
  • cytological examination
A

ultrasound