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production animal medicine > cattle past questions > Flashcards

cattle past questions Flashcards

1
Q

pathogen of destructive rhinitis?

  • OHV - 1
  • OHV - 2
  • OHV - 3
  • OHV - 5
A

OHV - 2 (herpesvirus –> malignant catarrhal fever)

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2
Q

what is responsible for the development of grazing pulmonary oedema? (fog fever/ ABPEE)?

  • switching from poor quality pasture to rich pasture (increase of protein content of feed)
  • Lupinus spp. in the hay
  • C. perfringens
  • Bovine parainfluenza virus
A

switching from poor quality pasture to rich pasture (increase of protein content of feed)

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3
Q

what treatment would you use for frothy bloat?

  • sounding, foaming, flaxseed, hay supplementation
  • probing, drinking 5 litres of 10% vinegar
  • feed withdrawal for 3 days
  • no treatment, euthanasia
A

sounding, foaming, flaxseed, hay supplementation

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4
Q

what is characteristic of grazing pulmonary oedema?

  • sudden formation, may affect animal (sudden onset, only adults)
  • chronic course
  • only young animals affected
  • high fever
A

sudden formation, may affect animal (sudden onset, only adults)

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5
Q

enzootic bronchopneumonia in calves?

  • chronic disease
  • spontaneous recovery from higher fever
  • complex pathological disease
  • usually associated with hypothermia
A

complex pathological disease

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6
Q

which statement is false about enzootic pneumonia in calves?

  • multifactorial disease
  • predisposing factors play major role in development
  • always an acute disease
  • bronchodilators
A

always acute disease

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7
Q

pathogen of bovine lungworm?

  • dictyocaulus arnfieldi
  • dictyocaulus filaria
  • dictyocaulus eckerti
  • dictyocaulus viviparous
A

dictyocaulus viviparous

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8
Q

which disease is not subject to notification?

  • sheep and goat smallpox
  • sticky lung of cattle (CBPP)
  • scabies
  • IBR
A

IBR

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9
Q

gentle feeding to restore rumen PH?

  • easily fermentable carbohydrates in large quantities
  • feeding sugars (e.g. molasses)
  • it is mainly hay containing high quality fibres
  • industrial by-products (e.g. extracted soybean meal)
A

it is mainly hay containing high quality fibres

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10
Q

substance formed from carbohydrate fermentation?

  • volatile fatty acids
  • ketone substances
  • long chain fatty acids
  • fats
A

volatile fatty acids

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11
Q

peripheral blood for measuring BHBA?

  • arterial blood only in closed blood collection system
  • only the v. blood collected from v. jugularis
  • blood taken from the tail vein is suitable for measurement
  • if peripheral blood is not suitable, blood should be taken from the central vein
A

blood taken from the tail vein is suitable for measurement

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12
Q

which clinical parameter is useful for the detection of disease on a herd level?

  • brain condition
  • milk production
  • anorexia
A

milk production

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13
Q

optimal PH range?

  • 7.0-7.5
  • 5.5-6.3
  • 7.2-8.0
  • 6.3-7.1
A

6.3-7.1

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14
Q

in subacute ruminal acidosis, the PH of the rumen is?

  • 2.2-2.3
  • 3.3-3.4
  • 4.4-5.5
  • 5.5-6.5
A

5.5-6.5

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15
Q

time required to restore subclinical ruminal acidosis?

  • 1 day
  • 3-5 days
  • 2-3 weeks
  • 2-3 months
A

2-3 weeks

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16
Q

clinical signs of acute ruminal acidosis?

  • occasionally kussmaul-type dyspnoea
  • tachycardia
  • nystagmus
  • exsiccosis
A

occasionally kussmaul-type dyspnoea

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17
Q

drugs used for ruminal acidosis treatment?

  • MgO (500 PO)
  • fluid therapy depending on the degree of hydration
  • rumen transfusion
  • ionophore antibiotic therapy PO.
A
  • MgO and fluid therapy
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18
Q

prevention of ruminal acidosis?

  • feeding of high lignin feeds
  • rumen buffer feeding
  • propylene glycol intake
  • ammonium chloride diet
A

feeding of ruminal buffers

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19
Q

not used in therapy of clinical ketosis?

  • gluconeoplastic substances
  • glucose
  • glucocorticoids
  • gamithromycin
A

gamithromycin

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20
Q

what is true for free gas bloat?

  • excessive amounts of butterfly green fodder can also cause
  • when foaming, little foamy content can be obtained
  • probing and medical treatment are also available for diagnostic purposes
  • prognosis is unfavourable
A

probing and medical treatment are also available for diagnostic purposes

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21
Q

peripartal insulin resistance in ruminants?

  • can be measured under stable conditions by the HEC test
  • the derived index, which can be measured on the basis of the blood parameters is indicated by, for example RQUICK
  • if blood sugar level is below 3 mol/l
  • it develops 3 months after Calving
A

the derived index, which can be measured on the basis of the blood parameters is indicated by, for example RQUICK

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22
Q

measurement of subclinical ketosis?

  • measurement of BHB level in the peripheral blood
  • determination of RQUICKI derived value
  • measurement of insulin from peripheral blood
  • determination of non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) from peripheral blood
A

measurement of BHB level in the peripheral blood

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23
Q

the treatment of calving paralysis (milk fever), the administration of Ca compounds is recommended as follows?

  • PO
  • intraperitoneal
  • SC
  • IV
A

IV

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24
Q

symptoms of subclinical hypoglycaemia?

  • causes bed rest
  • does not cause bed rest
  • diseases around parturition become more common
  • may reduce the amount of milk produced during lactation
A

diseases around parturition become more common

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25
Q

treatment of clinical hypocalcaemia?

  • calciumgluconate IV.
  • Ca- phosphate PO.
  • Ca-sulphate IV.
  • Ca-nitrate IV.
A

calciumgluconate IV.

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26
Q

what is the consistency of the rumenal content in case of anterior functional stenosis?

  • foamy, cream-like
  • watery
  • doughy
  • solid
A

foamy, cream-like

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27
Q

which orifice is the cause of blocked passage in the case of posterior functional stenosis?

  • pylorus
  • cardia
  • reticuloabomasal orifice
  • reticulo-omasal orifice
A

pylorus

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28
Q

what is the consequence of the ruminal reflux?

  • in all cases, it causes luminal acidosis
  • hyperchloraemia
  • the concentration of Cl- ions in the rumen increases
  • metabolic acidosis
A

the concentration of Cl- ions in the rumen increases

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29
Q

which is the most preferred technique for abomasal displacement correction?

  • Hannover method
  • ventral parsamedian abomasoplexia
  • utrecht method
  • Laparoscopy (1 step form)
A

Laparoscopy

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30
Q

which statement is true regarding rolling technique in case of DA?

  • rapid, simple, and invasive technique, but the chances of repeated inoculation of the stomach are high (50-70%)
  • apid, simple, and invasive technique, but the chances of repeated inoculation of the stomach are low (5-7%)
  • rapid, simple, and non-invasive technique, but the chances of reoccurrence are high (50-70%)
A

rapid, simple, and non-invasive technique, but the chances of reoccurrence are high (50-70%)

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31
Q

which method is providing the abomasal life-long fixation?

  • fastening with non-absorbent thread
  • fastening with absorbent thread
  • fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes local peritonitis then adhesions
  • fixation with non-absorbable thread, which caused generalised peritonitis and then cohesion
A

fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes local peritonitis then adhesions

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32
Q

what is characteristic of the Hanoverian method used to resolve DA?

  • standing left flank laparotomy
  • upright, paramedic laparotomy
  • standing right flank laparotomy
  • pseudo 6, but does not apply laparotomy
A

standing right flank laparotomy

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33
Q

what is the consequence of DA?

  • metabolic acidosis
  • hyperchloraemia
  • hypokalaemia
  • paradoxical alkaluria
A

hypokalaemia

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34
Q

which anaesthesia technique results in scoliosis?

  • distal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
  • proximal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
  • inverted L paralumbar anaesthesia
  • Epidural anaesthesia
A

proximal lumbar paravertebral nerve block

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35
Q

which vertebrae is the last palpable transverse process belonging to the cow?

  • L4
  • L3
  • L5
  • L6
A

L5

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36
Q

which nerves are blocked with the use of proximal lumbar paravertebral anaesthesia?

  • NT13, NL1 and NL2
  • NL1, NL2 and NL3
  • NT13, NL1 and NL3
  • NT13, NL2 and NL3
A

NT13, NL1 and NL2

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37
Q

where is the place of low caudal epidural anaesthesia?

A

between the 1st coccygeal and second coccygeal vertebrae

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38
Q

which of these statements is true for xylaxine in cattle?

  • horses are 10 times more sensitive than cattle
  • a cow is as sensitive as a horse
  • cattle are 10 times more sensitive than horses
  • none of the above is true
A

cattle are 10 times more sensitive than horses

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39
Q

which is not true for flunixin?

  • sedative
  • analgesic
  • anti-pyretic
  • Anti-endotoxin
A

sedative

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40
Q

what are the benefits of combining lidocaine with xylazine during epidural anaesthesia?

  • response is delayed for 1-2 hrs
  • excellent anaesthesia in smaller area
  • no sedation along with the anaesthesia
  • none of the above
A

none of the above

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41
Q

in which species do you expect to see side effects of lidocaine?

  • cows
  • small ruminants
  • both of them
  • none of them
A

small ruminants

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42
Q

what is not a physiological narrowing of the soft birth canal?

  • the bifurcation
  • the cervix
  • the remaining tissue of the hymen
  • the vulva
A

the bifurcation

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43
Q

how do we get the direction of traction (linear directiva)?

  • we add the half point of the vertical parameters of the pelvis
  • we connect the highest and the lowest point of the vertical pelvis
  • we take the force showing from the half point of the vertical diameters of the pelvis to the tuber ischiadicum
  • the force from the deepest point of the pelvis showing to tuber ischiadicum
A

we add the half point of the vertical parameters of the pelvis

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44
Q

which cattle CL is mature?

  • above 3mm
  • above 5-10 mm
  • above 17-20 mm
  • above 35-45 mm
A

above 17-20 mm

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45
Q

the presence of the foetus is?

  • the size of the foetus
  • the ratio between the maternal and fetal pelvic diameter
  • the presentation, the position and posture of the foetus
  • the vital signs of the foetus
A

the presentation, the position and posture of the foetus

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46
Q

the presentation of the foetus means?

  • the situation of the head and extremities to the body of the foetus
  • the maternal spinal axis to the foetal spinal axis
  • the foetal placement in the maternal abdominal cavity
  • the longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the foetus
A

the longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the foetus

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47
Q

normal presentation in the ruminant?

  • ventral oblique
  • longitudinal posterior
  • ventral back
  • Harm’s presentation
A

longitudinal posterior

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48
Q

the overall prognosis of abnormal presentation?

  • in horses good, in cattle guarded
  • in cattle good, in horses guarded
  • in every species it is good
  • in every species it is guarded or bad
A

in every species it is guarded to bad

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49
Q

the position of the foetus is?

  • the situation of the head and extremities to the body of the foetus
  • the longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the foetus
  • the maternal spinal axis to that of the foetal spinal axis
  • the foetal placement in the maternal abdominal cavity
A

the maternal spinal axis to that of the foetal spinal axis

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50
Q

what is the normal position?

  • dorsal upright
  • ventral upright
  • extended position
  • flexed position
A

dorsal upright

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51
Q

the posture of the foetus is?

  • the maternal spinal axis to that of the foetal spinal axis
  • the longitudial axis of the dam to that of the foetus
  • the situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the foetus
  • the placement of the foetus in the birth canal
A

the situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the foetus

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52
Q

the posture of the foetus is normal if?

  • extended before parturition
  • extended at parturition
  • flexed at parturition
  • always flexed
A

extended at parturition

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53
Q

abnormal posture of the foetus?

  • ventral abdominal
  • dorsal abdominal
  • oblique abdominal
A

oblique abdominal

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54
Q

it is true in cattle with a twin pregnancy?

  • most twin pregnancies are monozygotic
  • occurrence of twins are 25% related to all birth
  • usually, they are occurring from the ovulation of co-dominant follicles
  • twins are less likely to abort
A

usually they are occurring from the ovulation of co-dominant follicles

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55
Q

the cause of rising rate of cattle twin pregnancy?

  • the wide use of reproductive hormones thought to be cause
  • increased milk production
  • the effect of some special cattle breeds is thought to be the cause
  • rigorous genetic connection is through to be the cause
A

increased milk production

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56
Q

what is the loss rate in cattle pregnancies between day 30 and 60 (100% is the number of pregnant animals)?

  • 25-35%
  • 35-45%
  • 15-25%
  • 5-15%
A

35-45% (??? I would say more 5-15%)

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57
Q

prognosis of displaced uterus?

  • good
  • moderate
  • guarded
A

moderate

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58
Q

choose the correct statement from the following, concerning uterine torsion of the cow?

  • precervical torsion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation
  • postcervical torsion can be palpated with vaginal palpation
  • precervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation
  • by manual palpation we cannot diagnose uterine torsion
A

precervical torsion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation

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59
Q

what is the basis of obstetrical lubricants?

  • NADP
  • methyl-malonil-coenzyme A
  • methyl-cellulose
  • methyl-starch
A

methyl- cellulose

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60
Q

what is the general incision technique for CS of cow?

A

skin and subskin –> external abdominal oblique –> internal abdominal oblique –> transverse abdomenis –> peritoneum –> abdominal cavity

61
Q

in what position would a C-section or rumenotomy be performed in cattle most frequently?

  • in lateral recumbency using right flank incision
  • in standing restraint using right flank incision
  • in lateral recumbency using left flank incision
  • in standing restraint using left flank incision
A

in standing restraint using left flank incision

62
Q

what is the incision type used in left flank approach?

  • horizontal
  • vertical
  • oblique: cause-ventral
  • none of them
  • unilateral hip flexion
A

vertical

63
Q

which is not a consequence of low blood carotene level in cattle?

  • impaired milk production
  • decreased hair growth
  • impaired immune function
  • bad reproductive parameters
A

impaired milk production

64
Q

what is not a possible cause of placental retention?

  • lack of uterine contractions postpartum
  • detachment disorder dur to placental oedema
  • Certain mechanical causes
  • high blood carotene level postpartum
A

high blood carotene level postpartum

65
Q

cattle retained placenta?

  • is diagnosed 2-4 hrs after calving
  • is diagnosed 12-24 hrs after calving
  • is diagnosed after 1-6 hrs
  • is diagnosed after 48-72 hrs after calving
A

is diagnosed 12-24 hrs after calving –> max 24 hrs, after RFM

66
Q

which drugs can be used in the therapy of bacterial complications of cattle involution?

  • antibiotics
  • uterine relaxant drugs
  • NSAIDs
  • immunomodulation drugs
A

antibiotics

67
Q

which statement is NOT true about cattle metritis?

  • fever is always a clinical sign
  • Reddish-brownish discharge from the vagina characterises the disease
  • enlarged uterus is characteristic of the disease
  • Peripheral shock is always characteristic of the disease
A

Peripheral shock is always characteristic of the disease

68
Q

which of the following is true regarding the activity of cows?

  • it decreased around the time of calving
  • it increases in lame animals
  • it increases significantly In animals in heat
  • it is not affected by diseases
A

it increases significantly in animals in heat

69
Q

which of the following parameters shows an increase before calving?

  • activity
  • rumino-reticular PH
  • reticulo-ruminal PH
  • rumination time
A

activity

70
Q

which of the following is not routinely used for the detection of rumination in cows?

  • abdominal harness
  • reticuloruminal bolus
  • neck collar sensor
  • Ear-tag sensors
A

abdominal harness

71
Q

which of the following diseases does NOT cause a decrease in rumination time?

  • Pneumonia
  • LDA
  • Puerperal metritis
  • subclinical mastitis
A

subclinical mastitis

72
Q

which of the following is false regarding reticuloruminal temperature?

  • it is affected by heat stress
  • it increases in milk fever
  • if increases if the animal has a fever
  • it has a circadian rhythm
A

it increases in milk fever

73
Q

which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the 4 point nerve block in cattle?

  • it is less frequently used than the intravenous anaesthesia of foot
  • it is practical when veins are hard to find due to severe cellulitis
  • one of its main complications is nerve damage around the injection sites
  • it is easy to administer due to loose tissue around the lower parts of the foot
A

it is easy to administer due to loose tissue around the lower parts of the foot

74
Q

what can be the consequence of white line abscess?

  • inflammation of the distal inter pharyngeal joint
  • laminitis
  • separation of the whole hoof capsule
  • CODD
A

inflammation of the distal inter pharyngeal joint

75
Q

what is the disadvantage of ZnSO4 as a foot bathing solution?

  • carcinogenic
  • toxic to small ruminants
  • has to be used as a stand in solution
  • hard to acquire
A

has to be used as a stand in solution

76
Q

which pathogens cause interdigital dermatitis?

  • D. nodosus
  • F. necrophorum
  • T. progenes
  • S. aureus
A

D. nodosus

77
Q

which of the following is not a predisposing factor for laminitis in cattle?

  • calving
  • Exposure to E. coli
  • heat stress
  • subacute ruminal acidosis
A

exposure to E. coli

78
Q

which of the following is false regarding laminitis in cattle?

  • it is characterised by the separation of the pedal bone from the hoof wall
  • it is more likely for the pedal bones to sink than to rotate
  • it can be treated with regular foot baths
  • one of its main complications can be white line disease
A

it can be treated with foot bath

79
Q

which of the following is not used for the definitive diagnosis of the septic arthritis of the DIP joint?

  • manual palpation of the DIP joint
  • sampling of the DIP joint
  • ultrasound of the dorsal pouch of the DIP
  • X-ray of the DIP joint
A

manual palpation of the DIP

80
Q

which of the following techniques is NOT used for the detection of the DIP joint?

  • bulbar approach
  • abaxial approach
  • axial approach
  • solar approach
A

axial approach

81
Q

which disease cannot cause Hoflund-syndrome?

  • traumatic reticuloperitonitis
  • reticular abscess
  • acute ruminal acidosis
  • abscess in left liver lobe
A

acute ruminal acidosis

82
Q

describe the Hanover method?

  • recumbent, left flank approach
  • standing restraint, right flank approach
  • standing restraint, left flank approach
  • recumbent, right flank approach
A

standing restraint, right flank approach

83
Q

describe the treatment for frothy bloat?

  • Ruminal tubing, antifoaming agent, linseed oil, hay
  • removal of blockage
  • glucocorticoids and antibiotic treatment
  • vinegar PO
A

Ruminal tubing, antifoaming agent, linseed oil, hay

84
Q

what is a normal presentation of the calf?

  • longitudinal anterior
  • Dorso-transverse presentation
  • ventral-transverse presentation
  • none of them
A

longitudinal anterior

85
Q

Bovine respiratory disease complex?

  • normally multifactorial
  • hereditary
  • caused by low stocking density
  • more common in heifers
A

normally multifactorial

86
Q

teat cistern anaesthesia?

  • only procedures affecting the mm
  • blocks the whole udder
  • good for highly invasive surgery
  • blocks innervation to entire duct system
A

only procedures affecting the mm

87
Q

corneal nerve block?

  • over the fascial crest
  • under the crista orbitotemporal
  • at the base of the ear by facial nerve
  • caudal to the eye
A

under the crista orbitotemporal

88
Q

which symptom is not present in traumatic reticule-peritonitis?

  • stretched head and neck
  • brisket oedema
  • tip-toeing
  • kyphosis
A

tip-toeing

89
Q

what causes of interdigital hyperplasia?

  • treponema spp.
  • genetic background
  • harsh foot trimming
  • irritant foot bathing solution
A

genetic background

90
Q

what is the optimal PH of the rumen?

A

6.3-7.1

91
Q

where do we inject during proximal paravertebral anaesthesia?

  • between the spinal process of lumbar vertebrae, into the intervertebral joint
  • 1-2 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. transversus, and under the skin
  • 4-5 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. transversus, and under the skin
  • 8-10 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. transversus, and under the skin
A

4-5 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. transversus, and under the skin

92
Q

what is a sign of the correct needle placement during epidural anaesthesia of cattle?

  • blood can be aspirated through the syringe
  • the tip of the needle can move freely
  • fluid drops are sucked in from the conus of the needle
  • hissing sound of the air coming out of the epidural space
A

fluid drops are sucked in from the conus of the needle

93
Q

in the case of acute traumatic reticuloperitonitis, what will be the haematology findings?

  • haemoconcentration, neutropenia, low levels of fibrinogen and total protein
  • haemoconcentration, neutropenia, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein
  • low red blood cell count, leukocytosis, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein
  • haemoconcentration, neutrophilia, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein
A

haemoconcentration, neutrophilia, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein

94
Q

which procedure CANNOT be done without anaesthesia in calves?

  • opening of abscesses
  • ear tagging
  • correction of umbilical hernia
  • debudding in newborns
A

correction of umbilical hernia

95
Q

what causes the traumatic injury of the liver in calves during birth?

  • pressure inside the birth canal
  • excessive force during forced extraction
  • abnormal presentation of the calf
  • yanking of the umbilical cord
A

yanking of the umbilical cord

96
Q

what are the characteristics of the discharge in clinical endometritis?

  • reddish-brownish, watery, smelly
  • yellowish-white (pus), watery
  • Reddish-brownish, viscous
  • yellowish-white (pus), viscous
A

yellowish-white (pus), viscous

97
Q

choose the correct statement from the following, concerning the uterine torsion of the cow?

  • Precervical torsion can be diagnosed by vaginal palpation
  • postcervical torsion can be diagnosed by vaginal palpation
  • precervical torsion can only be palpated by rectal examination
  • by manual palpation we cannot diagnose uterine torsion
A

Precervical torsion can be diagnosed by vaginal palpation

98
Q

the uterine horn during oestrus in cattle is?

  • soft and spongy due to oestrogen effect
  • rigid due to high levels of oestrogen
  • soft and spongy due to high progesterone levels
  • rigid due to high progesterone levels
A

rigid due to high levels of oestrogen

99
Q

in healthy animal hoof trimming, which structure doesn’t need to be trimmed?

  • toe
  • sole
  • heel
  • if its healthy leave it alone
A

heel

100
Q

what is not a sign of chronic reticuloperitonitis?

  • mandibular oedema
  • diarrhoea
  • tachycardia
  • cachexia
A

diarrhoea

101
Q

characteristic of fog fever?

  • sudden onset, multiple animals
  • slow onset, multiple animals
  • rapid onset with housed animals
  • rapid onset in animals coming from high quality pasture to poor pasture
A

sudden onset, multiple animals

102
Q

position of sacrococcygeal injection?

A

S5-C1

103
Q

timing of placing ear tag?

  • 1 day
  • 7 days
  • 14 days
  • 1 month
A

7 days

104
Q

when does vaginal prolapse most commonly appear?

A

last month of pregnancy

105
Q

method of abomasal torsion recumbent surgery?

  • ventral medial abomasoplexy
  • ventral saggiata abomasoplexy
  • ventral paramedical abomasoplexy
A

ventral paramedical abomasoplexy

106
Q

what is NOT used for teat anaesthesia in cattle?

  • V-block
  • L-block
  • ring block
  • regional IV. anaesthesia
A

L-block

107
Q

what is NOT used to check the efficiency of colostrum?

  • refractometer
  • measure of serum TP
  • density measurement
  • routine haematology
A

routine haematology

108
Q

method for uterine closure?

A

seromuscular

109
Q

what is the last palpable lumbar vertebrae in cattle?

A

L5

110
Q

what is the most important step in postnatal treatment?

A

breathing
drying
umbilical disinfection

111
Q

what day is the CL most sensitive to prostaglandins?

A

day 12

112
Q

what is the rumen PH in SARA?

A

5.5-6.5

113
Q

what is the body temperature of a newborn calf?

A

38.6-39.4˚C

114
Q

what is the consequence or luminal reflux?

A

Cl- ion concentration increases

115
Q

in which case can teat cistern infusion be used?

A

procedures only affecting the mucosal membrane

116
Q

after which day can pyometra be present from?

  • day 0
  • day 21
  • day 14
  • day 30
A

day 21

117
Q

which animals can be affected by fog fever?

  • young animals only
  • adult animals only with sudden onset
  • young animals only with sudden onset
  • adult animals with slow onset
A

adult animals with sudden onset

118
Q

how is fog fever detected?

  • glucose test from ruminal fluid
  • 3-methyl-indole detection from ruminal fluid
  • 4 methyl-indole detection from ruminal fluid
  • BHB detection from ruminal fluid
A

3-methyl-indole detection from the ruminal fluid

119
Q

what is the treatment for fog fever?

  • feeding of easily digestible grains
  • feeding of hay instead of grass
  • feeding of good quality silage
A

feeding hay instead of grass

120
Q

when is is the advised time for ear tag placement?

  • at birth
  • 3 days old
  • 7 days old
  • 12 days old
A

7 days old

121
Q

when is vaginal prolapse most likely?

  • mid pregnancy
  • last month of pregnancy
  • post partum
  • early pregnancy
A

last month of pregnancy

122
Q

which is not a narrowing of the soft birth canal?

  • cervix
  • hymen
  • bifurcation
  • vulva
A

bifurcation

123
Q

what is the method for DA correction in recumbent position?

A

ventral paramedian abomasopexy

124
Q

what is a treatment of hypocalcaemia in cattle?

A

Ca- borogluconate IV

125
Q

what is the last palpable vertebrae in the cow?

A

L5

126
Q

where does the spinal cord end in the cow?

A

lumbar region

127
Q

what is the consequence of abomasal reflux?

A

cl- ion concentration increases

128
Q

what transducer is used for the detection of early pregnancy in cows?

A

linear rectal 5-7.5 MHz

129
Q

what does vasectomy mean?

  • ligation and resection of the vas deferens
  • removal of the caudal part of the epididymis
  • removal of the testicle
  • ligation of the vas deferent without resection
A

ligation and resection of the vas deferens

130
Q

gestation of the cow?

  • 250 days
  • 300 days
  • 283 days
  • 310 days
A

283 days

131
Q

what is the normal pathogen causing pyometra in cattle?

  • E. coli
  • Trueperella pyogenes
  • clostridium perfringes
  • mycobacterium bovis
A

trueperella pyogenes

132
Q

what is the main pathogen for puerperal metritis?

  • E. coli
  • clostridium perfringens
  • mycoplasma bovis
  • trueperella pyogenes
A

E. coli

133
Q

how long until complete re-epithelialisation of the cow uterine epithelium ?

  • 21 days
  • 15 days
  • 25 days
  • 30 days
A

25 days

134
Q

when is the CL sensitive to prostaglandins?

  • 5 days
  • 12 days
  • 14 days
  • 20 days
A

12 days

135
Q

what is the causative agent of malignant catarrhal fever?

  • OHV-I
  • OHV-II
  • OHV-IV
  • mycoplasmosis
A

OHV-II

136
Q

which stage of vaginal prolapse is necrotic?

  • Grade 2
  • Grade 3
  • Grade 5
  • grade 4
A

grade 4

137
Q

which nerves are blocked in proximal paravertebral nerve block in cattle?

  • NT13, NL1, NL2
  • NL1, NL2, NL3
  • NL2, NL3, NL4
  • NL1, NL2, NL4
A

NT13, NL1, NL2

138
Q

what is the normal foetus position in cattle?

  • upright dorsal
  • ventral position
  • lateral position
A

upright dorsal

139
Q

which vertebra has the last palpebral transverse process in a cow?

  • L4
  • L3
  • L5
  • L6
A

L5

140
Q

the ruminal PH in the case of subclinical ruminal acidosis?

  • 2.2-3.3
  • 3.3-4.4
  • 4.4-5.5
  • 5.5-6.5
A

5.5-6.5

141
Q

which statement if FALSE about the development of reticuloperitonitis?

  • in modern circumstances it most commonly occurs after constructions
  • its presence is Lower in modern farms than more traditional farms
  • oral papillae of cattle play a role in its development
  • the foreign body can reach the reticulum from the omasum
A

the foreign body can reach the reticulum from the omasum

142
Q

which disease cannot can NOT cause cause Hoflund-syndrome?

  • reticular abscess
  • liver abscess
  • traumatic reticule-peritonitis
  • ruminal acidosis
A

ruminal acidosis

143
Q

what is the first step in the neonatal care of calves?

  • disinfection of the navel
  • stimulation of breathing
  • drying of the calf
  • colostrum feeding
A

stimulation of breathing

144
Q

what is the threshold postpartum after which the retention of the fetal membranes is diagnosed in cows?

  • 1 hr
  • 3 hrs
  • 24 hrs
  • 72 hrs
A

24 hrs

145
Q

next to which vertebrae would you administer a distal paravertebral block?

  • L1, L2, L3
  • L1, L2, L4
  • L2, L3, L4
  • L2, L3, L5
A

L1, L2, L4

146
Q

which of the following cannot be used to determine if a foetus in anterior presentation is alive during obstetrical aid?

  • the suckling reflex
  • the twisting of the phlanges
  • the swallowing reflex
  • the palpation of a. carotis
A

swallowing reflex

147
Q

which of the following is false regarding subclinical endometritis in cows?

  • cows infertility
  • characterised by marked increase in neutrophils in the uterine lumen without pus formation
  • it is usually caused by trueperella pyogenes
  • characterised by yellowish whitish discharge
A

characterised by yellowish whitish discharge

148
Q

what is characteristic of the fluid from traumatic reticuloperitonitis?

  • bloody exudate, low in fibrin,
  • clear serous fluid
  • exudate with fibrin, plasma, bacteria, blood, and pus
  • transudate with plasma, large amounts of fluid
A

exudate with fibrin, plasma, bacteria, blood, and pus

production animal medicine (4 decks)

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