cattle past questions Flashcards

1
Q

pathogen of destructive rhinitis?

  • OHV - 1
  • OHV - 2
  • OHV - 3
  • OHV - 5
A

OHV - 2 (herpesvirus –> malignant catarrhal fever)

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2
Q

what is responsible for the development of grazing pulmonary oedema? (fog fever/ ABPEE)?

  • switching from poor quality pasture to rich pasture (increase of protein content of feed)
  • Lupinus spp. in the hay
  • C. perfringens
  • Bovine parainfluenza virus
A

switching from poor quality pasture to rich pasture (increase of protein content of feed)

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3
Q

what treatment would you use for frothy bloat?

  • sounding, foaming, flaxseed, hay supplementation
  • probing, drinking 5 litres of 10% vinegar
  • feed withdrawal for 3 days
  • no treatment, euthanasia
A

sounding, foaming, flaxseed, hay supplementation

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4
Q

what is characteristic of grazing pulmonary oedema?

  • sudden formation, may affect animal (sudden onset, only adults)
  • chronic course
  • only young animals affected
  • high fever
A

sudden formation, may affect animal (sudden onset, only adults)

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5
Q

enzootic bronchopneumonia in calves?

  • chronic disease
  • spontaneous recovery from higher fever
  • complex pathological disease
  • usually associated with hypothermia
A

complex pathological disease

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6
Q

which statement is false about enzootic pneumonia in calves?

  • multifactorial disease
  • predisposing factors play major role in development
  • always an acute disease
  • bronchodilators
A

always acute disease

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7
Q

pathogen of bovine lungworm?

  • dictyocaulus arnfieldi
  • dictyocaulus filaria
  • dictyocaulus eckerti
  • dictyocaulus viviparous
A

dictyocaulus viviparous

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8
Q

which disease is not subject to notification?

  • sheep and goat smallpox
  • sticky lung of cattle (CBPP)
  • scabies
  • IBR
A

IBR

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9
Q

gentle feeding to restore rumen PH?

  • easily fermentable carbohydrates in large quantities
  • feeding sugars (e.g. molasses)
  • it is mainly hay containing high quality fibres
  • industrial by-products (e.g. extracted soybean meal)
A

it is mainly hay containing high quality fibres

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10
Q

substance formed from carbohydrate fermentation?

  • volatile fatty acids
  • ketone substances
  • long chain fatty acids
  • fats
A

volatile fatty acids

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11
Q

peripheral blood for measuring BHBA?

  • arterial blood only in closed blood collection system
  • only the v. blood collected from v. jugularis
  • blood taken from the tail vein is suitable for measurement
  • if peripheral blood is not suitable, blood should be taken from the central vein
A

blood taken from the tail vein is suitable for measurement

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12
Q

which clinical parameter is useful for the detection of disease on a herd level?

  • brain condition
  • milk production
  • anorexia
A

milk production

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13
Q

optimal PH range?

  • 7.0-7.5
  • 5.5-6.3
  • 7.2-8.0
  • 6.3-7.1
A

6.3-7.1

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14
Q

in subacute ruminal acidosis, the PH of the rumen is?

  • 2.2-2.3
  • 3.3-3.4
  • 4.4-5.5
  • 5.5-6.5
A

5.5-6.5

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15
Q

time required to restore subclinical ruminal acidosis?

  • 1 day
  • 3-5 days
  • 2-3 weeks
  • 2-3 months
A

2-3 weeks

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16
Q

clinical signs of acute ruminal acidosis?

  • occasionally kussmaul-type dyspnoea
  • tachycardia
  • nystagmus
  • exsiccosis
A

occasionally kussmaul-type dyspnoea

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17
Q

drugs used for ruminal acidosis treatment?

  • MgO (500 PO)
  • fluid therapy depending on the degree of hydration
  • rumen transfusion
  • ionophore antibiotic therapy PO.
A
  • MgO and fluid therapy
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18
Q

prevention of ruminal acidosis?

  • feeding of high lignin feeds
  • rumen buffer feeding
  • propylene glycol intake
  • ammonium chloride diet
A

feeding of ruminal buffers

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19
Q

not used in therapy of clinical ketosis?

  • gluconeoplastic substances
  • glucose
  • glucocorticoids
  • gamithromycin
A

gamithromycin

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20
Q

what is true for free gas bloat?

  • excessive amounts of butterfly green fodder can also cause
  • when foaming, little foamy content can be obtained
  • probing and medical treatment are also available for diagnostic purposes
  • prognosis is unfavourable
A

probing and medical treatment are also available for diagnostic purposes

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21
Q

peripartal insulin resistance in ruminants?

  • can be measured under stable conditions by the HEC test
  • the derived index, which can be measured on the basis of the blood parameters is indicated by, for example RQUICK
  • if blood sugar level is below 3 mol/l
  • it develops 3 months after Calving
A

the derived index, which can be measured on the basis of the blood parameters is indicated by, for example RQUICK

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22
Q

measurement of subclinical ketosis?

  • measurement of BHB level in the peripheral blood
  • determination of RQUICKI derived value
  • measurement of insulin from peripheral blood
  • determination of non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) from peripheral blood
A

measurement of BHB level in the peripheral blood

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23
Q

the treatment of calving paralysis (milk fever), the administration of Ca compounds is recommended as follows?

  • PO
  • intraperitoneal
  • SC
  • IV
A

IV

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24
Q

symptoms of subclinical hypoglycaemia?

  • causes bed rest
  • does not cause bed rest
  • diseases around parturition become more common
  • may reduce the amount of milk produced during lactation
A

diseases around parturition become more common

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25
treatment of clinical hypocalcaemia? - calciumgluconate IV. - Ca- phosphate PO. - Ca-sulphate IV. - Ca-nitrate IV.
calciumgluconate IV.
26
what is the consistency of the rumenal content in case of anterior functional stenosis? - foamy, cream-like - watery - doughy - solid
foamy, cream-like
27
which orifice is the cause of blocked passage in the case of posterior functional stenosis? - pylorus - cardia - reticuloabomasal orifice - reticulo-omasal orifice
pylorus
28
what is the consequence of the ruminal reflux? - in all cases, it causes luminal acidosis - hyperchloraemia - the concentration of Cl- ions in the rumen increases - metabolic acidosis
the concentration of Cl- ions in the rumen increases
29
which is the most preferred technique for abomasal displacement correction? - Hannover method - ventral parsamedian abomasoplexia - utrecht method - Laparoscopy (1 step form)
Laparoscopy
30
which statement is true regarding rolling technique in case of DA? - rapid, simple, and invasive technique, but the chances of repeated inoculation of the stomach are high (50-70%) - apid, simple, and invasive technique, but the chances of repeated inoculation of the stomach are low (5-7%) - rapid, simple, and non-invasive technique, but the chances of reoccurrence are high (50-70%)
rapid, simple, and non-invasive technique, but the chances of reoccurrence are high (50-70%)
31
which method is providing the abomasal life-long fixation? - fastening with non-absorbent thread - fastening with absorbent thread - fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes local peritonitis then adhesions - fixation with non-absorbable thread, which caused generalised peritonitis and then cohesion
fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes local peritonitis then adhesions
32
what is characteristic of the Hanoverian method used to resolve DA? - standing left flank laparotomy - upright, paramedic laparotomy - standing right flank laparotomy - pseudo 6, but does not apply laparotomy
standing right flank laparotomy
33
what is the consequence of DA? - metabolic acidosis - hyperchloraemia - hypokalaemia - paradoxical alkaluria
hypokalaemia
34
which anaesthesia technique results in scoliosis? - distal lumbar paravertebral nerve block - proximal lumbar paravertebral nerve block - inverted L paralumbar anaesthesia - Epidural anaesthesia
proximal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
35
which vertebrae is the last palpable transverse process belonging to the cow? - L4 - L3 - L5 - L6
L5
36
which nerves are blocked with the use of proximal lumbar paravertebral anaesthesia? - NT13, NL1 and NL2 - NL1, NL2 and NL3 - NT13, NL1 and NL3 - NT13, NL2 and NL3
NT13, NL1 and NL2
37
where is the place of low caudal epidural anaesthesia?
between the 1st coccygeal and second coccygeal vertebrae
38
which of these statements is true for xylaxine in cattle? - horses are 10 times more sensitive than cattle - a cow is as sensitive as a horse - cattle are 10 times more sensitive than horses - none of the above is true
cattle are 10 times more sensitive than horses
39
which is not true for flunixin? - sedative - analgesic - anti-pyretic - Anti-endotoxin
sedative
40
what are the benefits of combining lidocaine with xylazine during epidural anaesthesia? - response is delayed for 1-2 hrs - excellent anaesthesia in smaller area - no sedation along with the anaesthesia - none of the above
none of the above
41
in which species do you expect to see side effects of lidocaine? - cows - small ruminants - both of them - none of them
small ruminants
42
what is not a physiological narrowing of the soft birth canal? - the bifurcation - the cervix - the remaining tissue of the hymen - the vulva
the bifurcation
43
how do we get the direction of traction (linear directiva)? - we add the half point of the vertical parameters of the pelvis - we connect the highest and the lowest point of the vertical pelvis - we take the force showing from the half point of the vertical diameters of the pelvis to the tuber ischiadicum - the force from the deepest point of the pelvis showing to tuber ischiadicum
we add the half point of the vertical parameters of the pelvis
44
which cattle CL is mature? - above 3mm - above 5-10 mm - above 17-20 mm - above 35-45 mm
above 17-20 mm
45
the presence of the foetus is? - the size of the foetus - the ratio between the maternal and fetal pelvic diameter - the presentation, the position and posture of the foetus - the vital signs of the foetus
the presentation, the position and posture of the foetus
46
the presentation of the foetus means? - the situation of the head and extremities to the body of the foetus - the maternal spinal axis to the foetal spinal axis - the foetal placement in the maternal abdominal cavity - the longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the foetus
the longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the foetus
47
normal presentation in the ruminant? - ventral oblique - longitudinal posterior - ventral back - Harm's presentation
longitudinal posterior
48
the overall prognosis of abnormal presentation? - in horses good, in cattle guarded - in cattle good, in horses guarded - in every species it is good - in every species it is guarded or bad
in every species it is guarded to bad
49
the position of the foetus is? - the situation of the head and extremities to the body of the foetus - the longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the foetus - the maternal spinal axis to that of the foetal spinal axis - the foetal placement in the maternal abdominal cavity
the maternal spinal axis to that of the foetal spinal axis
50
what is the normal position? - dorsal upright - ventral upright - extended position - flexed position
dorsal upright
51
the posture of the foetus is? - the maternal spinal axis to that of the foetal spinal axis - the longitudial axis of the dam to that of the foetus - the situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the foetus - the placement of the foetus in the birth canal
the situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the foetus
52
the posture of the foetus is normal if? - extended before parturition - extended at parturition - flexed at parturition - always flexed
extended at parturition
53
abnormal posture of the foetus? - ventral abdominal - dorsal abdominal - oblique abdominal
oblique abdominal
54
it is true in cattle with a twin pregnancy? - most twin pregnancies are monozygotic - occurrence of twins are 25% related to all birth - usually, they are occurring from the ovulation of co-dominant follicles - twins are less likely to abort
usually they are occurring from the ovulation of co-dominant follicles
55
the cause of rising rate of cattle twin pregnancy? - the wide use of reproductive hormones thought to be cause - increased milk production - the effect of some special cattle breeds is thought to be the cause - rigorous genetic connection is through to be the cause
increased milk production
56
what is the loss rate in cattle pregnancies between day 30 and 60 (100% is the number of pregnant animals)? - 25-35% - 35-45% - 15-25% - 5-15%
35-45% (??? I would say more 5-15%)
57
prognosis of displaced uterus? - good - moderate - guarded
moderate
58
# choose the correct statement from the following, concerning uterine torsion of the cow? - precervical torsion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation - postcervical torsion can be palpated with vaginal palpation - precervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation - by manual palpation we cannot diagnose uterine torsion
precervical torsion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation
59
what is the basis of obstetrical lubricants? - NADP - methyl-malonil-coenzyme A - methyl-cellulose - methyl-starch
methyl- cellulose
60
what is the general incision technique for CS of cow?
skin and subskin --> external abdominal oblique --> internal abdominal oblique --> transverse abdomenis --> peritoneum --> abdominal cavity
61
in what position would a C-section or rumenotomy be performed in cattle most frequently? - in lateral recumbency using right flank incision - in standing restraint using right flank incision - in lateral recumbency using left flank incision - in standing restraint using left flank incision
in standing restraint using left flank incision
62
what is the incision type used in left flank approach? - horizontal - vertical - oblique: cause-ventral - none of them - unilateral hip flexion
vertical
63
which is not a consequence of low blood carotene level in cattle? - impaired milk production - decreased hair growth - impaired immune function - bad reproductive parameters
impaired milk production
64
what is not a possible cause of placental retention? - lack of uterine contractions postpartum - detachment disorder dur to placental oedema - Certain mechanical causes - high blood carotene level postpartum
high blood carotene level postpartum
65
cattle retained placenta? - is diagnosed 2-4 hrs after calving - is diagnosed 12-24 hrs after calving - is diagnosed after 1-6 hrs - is diagnosed after 48-72 hrs after calving
is diagnosed 12-24 hrs after calving --> max 24 hrs, after RFM
66
which drugs can be used in the therapy of bacterial complications of cattle involution? - antibiotics - uterine relaxant drugs - NSAIDs - immunomodulation drugs
antibiotics
67
which statement is NOT true about cattle metritis? - fever is always a clinical sign - Reddish-brownish discharge from the vagina characterises the disease - enlarged uterus is characteristic of the disease - Peripheral shock is always characteristic of the disease
Peripheral shock is always characteristic of the disease
68
which of the following is true regarding the activity of cows? - it decreased around the time of calving - it increases in lame animals - it increases significantly In animals in heat - it is not affected by diseases
it increases significantly in animals in heat
69
which of the following parameters shows an increase before calving? - activity - rumino-reticular PH - reticulo-ruminal PH - rumination time
activity
70
which of the following is not routinely used for the detection of rumination in cows? - abdominal harness - reticuloruminal bolus - neck collar sensor - Ear-tag sensors
abdominal harness
71
which of the following diseases does NOT cause a decrease in rumination time? - Pneumonia - LDA - Puerperal metritis - subclinical mastitis
subclinical mastitis
72
which of the following is false regarding reticuloruminal temperature? - it is affected by heat stress - it increases in milk fever - if increases if the animal has a fever - it has a circadian rhythm
it increases in milk fever
73
which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the 4 point nerve block in cattle? - it is less frequently used than the intravenous anaesthesia of foot - it is practical when veins are hard to find due to severe cellulitis - one of its main complications is nerve damage around the injection sites - it is easy to administer due to loose tissue around the lower parts of the foot
it is easy to administer due to loose tissue around the lower parts of the foot
74
what can be the consequence of white line abscess? - inflammation of the distal inter pharyngeal joint - laminitis - separation of the whole hoof capsule - CODD
inflammation of the distal inter pharyngeal joint
75
what is the disadvantage of ZnSO4 as a foot bathing solution? - carcinogenic - toxic to small ruminants - has to be used as a stand in solution - hard to acquire
has to be used as a stand in solution
76
which pathogens cause interdigital dermatitis? - D. nodosus - F. necrophorum - T. progenes - S. aureus
D. nodosus
77
which of the following is not a predisposing factor for laminitis in cattle? - calving - Exposure to E. coli - heat stress - subacute ruminal acidosis
exposure to E. coli
78
which of the following is false regarding laminitis in cattle? - it is characterised by the separation of the pedal bone from the hoof wall - it is more likely for the pedal bones to sink than to rotate - it can be treated with regular foot baths - one of its main complications can be white line disease
it can be treated with foot bath
79
which of the following is not used for the definitive diagnosis of the septic arthritis of the DIP joint? - manual palpation of the DIP joint - sampling of the DIP joint - ultrasound of the dorsal pouch of the DIP - X-ray of the DIP joint
manual palpation of the DIP
80
which of the following techniques is NOT used for the detection of the DIP joint? - bulbar approach - abaxial approach - axial approach - solar approach
axial approach
81
which disease cannot cause Hoflund-syndrome? - traumatic reticuloperitonitis - reticular abscess - acute ruminal acidosis - abscess in left liver lobe
acute ruminal acidosis
82
describe the Hanover method? - recumbent, left flank approach - standing restraint, right flank approach - standing restraint, left flank approach - recumbent, right flank approach
standing restraint, right flank approach
83
describe the treatment for frothy bloat? - Ruminal tubing, antifoaming agent, linseed oil, hay - removal of blockage - glucocorticoids and antibiotic treatment - vinegar PO
Ruminal tubing, antifoaming agent, linseed oil, hay
84
what is a normal presentation of the calf? - longitudinal anterior - Dorso-transverse presentation - ventral-transverse presentation - none of them
longitudinal anterior
85
Bovine respiratory disease complex? - normally multifactorial - hereditary - caused by low stocking density - more common in heifers
normally multifactorial
86
teat cistern anaesthesia? - only procedures affecting the mm - blocks the whole udder - good for highly invasive surgery - blocks innervation to entire duct system
only procedures affecting the mm
87
corneal nerve block? - over the fascial crest - under the crista orbitotemporal - at the base of the ear by facial nerve - caudal to the eye
under the crista orbitotemporal
88
which symptom is not present in traumatic reticule-peritonitis? - stretched head and neck - brisket oedema - tip-toeing - kyphosis
tip-toeing
89
what causes of interdigital hyperplasia? - treponema spp. - genetic background - harsh foot trimming - irritant foot bathing solution
genetic background
90
what is the optimal PH of the rumen?
6.3-7.1
91
where do we inject during proximal paravertebral anaesthesia? - between the spinal process of lumbar vertebrae, into the intervertebral joint - 1-2 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. transversus, and under the skin - 4-5 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. transversus, and under the skin - 8-10 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. transversus, and under the skin
4-5 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. transversus, and under the skin
92
what is a sign of the correct needle placement during epidural anaesthesia of cattle? - blood can be aspirated through the syringe - the tip of the needle can move freely - fluid drops are sucked in from the conus of the needle - hissing sound of the air coming out of the epidural space
fluid drops are sucked in from the conus of the needle
93
in the case of acute traumatic reticuloperitonitis, what will be the haematology findings? - haemoconcentration, neutropenia, low levels of fibrinogen and total protein - haemoconcentration, neutropenia, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein - low red blood cell count, leukocytosis, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein - haemoconcentration, neutrophilia, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein
haemoconcentration, neutrophilia, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein
94
which procedure CANNOT be done without anaesthesia in calves? - opening of abscesses - ear tagging - correction of umbilical hernia - debudding in newborns
correction of umbilical hernia
95
what causes the traumatic injury of the liver in calves during birth? - pressure inside the birth canal - excessive force during forced extraction - abnormal presentation of the calf - yanking of the umbilical cord
yanking of the umbilical cord
96
what are the characteristics of the discharge in clinical endometritis? - reddish-brownish, watery, smelly - yellowish-white (pus), watery - Reddish-brownish, viscous - yellowish-white (pus), viscous
yellowish-white (pus), viscous
97
# choose the correct statement from the following, concerning the uterine torsion of the cow? - Precervical torsion can be diagnosed by vaginal palpation - postcervical torsion can be diagnosed by vaginal palpation - precervical torsion can only be palpated by rectal examination - by manual palpation we cannot diagnose uterine torsion
Precervical torsion can be diagnosed by vaginal palpation
98
the uterine horn during oestrus in cattle is? - soft and spongy due to oestrogen effect - rigid due to high levels of oestrogen - soft and spongy due to high progesterone levels - rigid due to high progesterone levels
rigid due to high levels of oestrogen
99
in healthy animal hoof trimming, which structure doesn't need to be trimmed? - toe - sole - heel - if its healthy leave it alone
heel
100
what is not a sign of chronic reticuloperitonitis? - mandibular oedema - diarrhoea - tachycardia - cachexia
diarrhoea
101
characteristic of fog fever? - sudden onset, multiple animals - slow onset, multiple animals - rapid onset with housed animals - rapid onset in animals coming from high quality pasture to poor pasture
sudden onset, multiple animals
102
position of sacrococcygeal injection?
S5-C1
103
timing of placing ear tag? - 1 day - 7 days - 14 days - 1 month
7 days
104
when does vaginal prolapse most commonly appear?
last month of pregnancy
105
method of abomasal torsion recumbent surgery? - ventral medial abomasoplexy - ventral saggiata abomasoplexy - ventral paramedical abomasoplexy
ventral paramedical abomasoplexy
106
what is NOT used for teat anaesthesia in cattle? - V-block - L-block - ring block - regional IV. anaesthesia
L-block
107
what is NOT used to check the efficiency of colostrum? - refractometer - measure of serum TP - density measurement - routine haematology
routine haematology
108
method for uterine closure?
seromuscular
109
what is the last palpable lumbar vertebrae in cattle?
L5
110
what is the most important step in postnatal treatment?
breathing drying umbilical disinfection
111
what day is the CL most sensitive to prostaglandins?
day 12
112
what is the rumen PH in SARA?
5.5-6.5
113
what is the body temperature of a newborn calf?
38.6-39.4˚C
114
what is the consequence or luminal reflux?
Cl- ion concentration increases
115
in which case can teat cistern infusion be used?
procedures only affecting the mucosal membrane
116
after which day can pyometra be present from? - day 0 - day 21 - day 14 - day 30
day 21
117
which animals can be affected by fog fever? - young animals only - adult animals only with sudden onset - young animals only with sudden onset - adult animals with slow onset
adult animals with sudden onset
118
how is fog fever detected? - glucose test from ruminal fluid - 3-methyl-indole detection from ruminal fluid - 4 methyl-indole detection from ruminal fluid - BHB detection from ruminal fluid
3-methyl-indole detection from the ruminal fluid
119
what is the treatment for fog fever? - feeding of easily digestible grains - feeding of hay instead of grass - feeding of good quality silage
feeding hay instead of grass
120
when is is the advised time for ear tag placement? - at birth - 3 days old - 7 days old - 12 days old
7 days old
121
when is vaginal prolapse most likely? - mid pregnancy - last month of pregnancy - post partum - early pregnancy
last month of pregnancy
122
which is not a narrowing of the soft birth canal? - cervix - hymen - bifurcation - vulva
bifurcation
123
what is the method for DA correction in recumbent position?
ventral paramedian abomasopexy
124
what is a treatment of hypocalcaemia in cattle?
Ca- borogluconate IV
125
what is the last palpable vertebrae in the cow?
L5
126
where does the spinal cord end in the cow?
lumbar region
127
what is the consequence of abomasal reflux?
cl- ion concentration increases
128
what transducer is used for the detection of early pregnancy in cows?
linear rectal 5-7.5 MHz
129
what does vasectomy mean? - ligation and resection of the vas deferens - removal of the caudal part of the epididymis - removal of the testicle - ligation of the vas deferent without resection
ligation and resection of the vas deferens
130
gestation of the cow? - 250 days - 300 days - 283 days - 310 days
283 days
131
what is the normal pathogen causing pyometra in cattle? - E. coli - Trueperella pyogenes - clostridium perfringes - mycobacterium bovis
trueperella pyogenes
132
what is the main pathogen for puerperal metritis? - E. coli - clostridium perfringens - mycoplasma bovis - trueperella pyogenes
E. coli
133
how long until complete re-epithelialisation of the cow uterine epithelium ? - 21 days - 15 days - 25 days - 30 days
25 days
134
when is the CL sensitive to prostaglandins? - 5 days - 12 days - 14 days - 20 days
12 days
135
what is the causative agent of malignant catarrhal fever? - OHV-I - OHV-II - OHV-IV - mycoplasmosis
OHV-II
136
which stage of vaginal prolapse is necrotic? - Grade 2 - Grade 3 - Grade 5 - grade 4
grade 4
137
which nerves are blocked in proximal paravertebral nerve block in cattle? - NT13, NL1, NL2 - NL1, NL2, NL3 - NL2, NL3, NL4 - NL1, NL2, NL4
NT13, NL1, NL2
138
what is the normal foetus position in cattle? - upright dorsal - ventral position - lateral position
upright dorsal
139
which vertebra has the last palpebral transverse process in a cow? - L4 - L3 - L5 - L6
L5
140
the ruminal PH in the case of subclinical ruminal acidosis? - 2.2-3.3 - 3.3-4.4 - 4.4-5.5 - 5.5-6.5
5.5-6.5
141
which statement if FALSE about the development of reticuloperitonitis? - in modern circumstances it most commonly occurs after constructions - its presence is Lower in modern farms than more traditional farms - oral papillae of cattle play a role in its development - the foreign body can reach the reticulum from the omasum
the foreign body can reach the reticulum from the omasum
142
which disease cannot can NOT cause cause Hoflund-syndrome? - reticular abscess - liver abscess - traumatic reticule-peritonitis - ruminal acidosis
ruminal acidosis
143
what is the first step in the neonatal care of calves? - disinfection of the navel - stimulation of breathing - drying of the calf - colostrum feeding
stimulation of breathing
144
what is the threshold postpartum after which the retention of the fetal membranes is diagnosed in cows? - 1 hr - 3 hrs - 24 hrs - 72 hrs
24 hrs
145
next to which vertebrae would you administer a distal paravertebral block? - L1, L2, L3 - L1, L2, L4 - L2, L3, L4 - L2, L3, L5
L1, L2, L4
146
which of the following cannot be used to determine if a foetus in anterior presentation is alive during obstetrical aid? - the suckling reflex - the twisting of the phlanges - the swallowing reflex - the palpation of a. carotis
swallowing reflex
147
which of the following is false regarding subclinical endometritis in cows? - cows infertility - characterised by marked increase in neutrophils in the uterine lumen without pus formation - it is usually caused by trueperella pyogenes - characterised by yellowish whitish discharge
characterised by yellowish whitish discharge
148
what is characteristic of the fluid from traumatic reticuloperitonitis? - bloody exudate, low in fibrin, - clear serous fluid - exudate with fibrin, plasma, bacteria, blood, and pus - transudate with plasma, large amounts of fluid
exudate with fibrin, plasma, bacteria, blood, and pus