SWE Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

110

A

Process Guide

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2
Q

310

A

Process Guide

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3
Q

3710.4

A

Swimmer manual

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4
Q

(3710.1)

A

Air Ops manual

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5
Q

Volume of LRU-25/A

A

26.8 Cubic Feet

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6
Q

Operating Pressure of LRU-25/A

A

1.3-4.7 PSIG

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7
Q

Shape of LRU-25/A

A

Hexagon

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8
Q

LRU 25 External Relief Valve Operating Pressure

A

3.2 PSIG

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9
Q

LRU 25 Internal Relief Valve Operating Pressure

A

2.9 PSIG

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10
Q

LRU 25 Heaving Ring Size

A

6in Diameter

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11
Q

LRU 25 Functional Test

A

Every 36 Months

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12
Q

LRU 25 Inflation Assembly Pressure

A

3500 +/- 100 PSIG

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13
Q

LRU 25 Inflation Assembly Proportions

A

2.20lbs CO2/1.70lbs N2

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14
Q

LRU-25 inflation time?

A

30 seconds

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15
Q

The LRU-25A is designed as a ____ person raft

A

6 Person/ 9 Overloaded

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16
Q

LRU 25 Pull Force of Inflation Assembly

A

6-15lbs

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17
Q

LRU 25 Rupture Disk will rupture at_________ PSIG.

A

4500-4900 PSIG

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18
Q

LRU 25 Bottle is hydrotested every _______________ Years.

A

5 years

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19
Q

LRU 25 Bottle Service Life

A

15 Years from date of manufacture

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20
Q

LRU 33 Wing Raft Volume

A

86.3 Cubic Feet

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21
Q

LRU 33 Capacity

A

20 Persons. 30 Overloaded.

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22
Q

LRU 33 Inflation Time

A

30 Seconds

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23
Q

LRU 33 Relief Valve Opens at _________ PSIG and closes at _________ PSIG

A

3.2 PSIG, 2.4 PSIG

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24
Q

LRU-33 functional tests are performed at intervals of what?

A

36 Months

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25
Q

LRU 33 Bottles are __________ PSIG.

A

3500

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26
Q

LRU 33 Inflation Assembly Proportions

A

3.06lbs CO2/ 5.7lbs N2

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27
Q

LRU 33 Inflation Assembly Pull Force

A

6-15lbs

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28
Q

LRU 33 Bottles are Hydrostatically tested every _______ years.

A

5 years

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29
Q

LRU 33 Rupture Disk will rupture at _________ PSIG

A

4500-4900 PSIG

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30
Q

RSLR 1 life raft weight

A

7lbs

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31
Q

RSLR 1 has ______________ lbs of floatation.

A

180lbs.

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32
Q

RSLR 1 Inflation time

A

30 seconds.

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33
Q

RSLR 1 is due for a functional every ________ months.

A

36 months

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34
Q

How many persons is a POD 8 made for?

A

8 Persons

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35
Q

What is the diameter of the POD 8 Tube?

A

15in

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36
Q

The POD 8 has __________ lbs of buoyancy per person.

A

200lbs

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37
Q

How long is the POD 8 survival equipment bag designed to float for?

A

6 hours

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38
Q

How many bottles are on the POD 8 and what is their volume?

A

2 bottles at 125 cubic inches each.

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39
Q

What PSIG are the POD 8 bottles?

A

3000 PSIG

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40
Q

How often are the POD 8 bottles hydrostatically tested?

A

Every 3 years.

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41
Q

What is the service life of the POD 8 bottles?

A

8 hydros or 24 years.

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42
Q

How many persons is the Mass Casualty Raft made for?

A

20 Persons

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43
Q

How often must the Mass Casualty Raft by inspected and repacked by the manufacturer?

A

Every 5 years

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44
Q

How much does the MD1127 Pax Vest weight?

A

2.2lbs

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45
Q

How many lbs of buoyancy does the MD1127 have?

A

35lbs

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46
Q

What three survival items is carried in the MD1127?

A

Whistle, Strobe, Mirror

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47
Q

How many red plastic beads are on the MD1127 inflation toggle?

A

5 Red Plastic Beads

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48
Q

How much does the LPU-26 weigh?

A

5lbs

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49
Q

How many pounds of buoyancy does the LPU 26 have?

A

22lbs

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50
Q

What type of cord attaches the bladder to the LPU 26?

A

Gutted Type 3 nylon cord

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51
Q

What is the weight of the LPU-27/FW vest without survival items?

A

2.63lbs

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52
Q

What is James’ favorite color?

A

Purple

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53
Q

What is Jackson’s favorite color?

A

Gay

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54
Q

How much buoyancy does the LPU 27/FW have?

A

44lbs minimum

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55
Q

How many MOLLE pockets are on the LPU 27/FW?

A

4 MOLLE pockets

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56
Q

How much does the LPU 27 SAR Warrior weigh?

A

12.5 lbs

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57
Q

How much buoyancy does the LPU-27P SAR WARRIOR provide?

A

65lbs

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58
Q

How long is the nylon slide fastener on the LPU 27 SAR Warrior?

A

10in

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59
Q

How many beads are on the LPU 27 SAR Warrior inflation assembly and what color are they?

A

10 black 1/2in beads

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60
Q

What is the flash rate of the strobe light?

A

60 +/- 10 flashes per minute

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61
Q

What are the peak lumens per flash of the strobe light?

A

150,000 peak lumens per flash

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62
Q

What is the duration of the strobe light at 32 degrees F?

A

8 hours at 32 degrees F

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63
Q

At what depth is the strobe light waterproof to?

A

33ft (1 atmosphere)

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64
Q

What two pieces are the MK79 MOD2 made up of?

A

MK31 projector and 7 MK80 cartridges

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65
Q

What is the candle power of the MK79?

A

12,000 candle power red star

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66
Q

How high does the MK79 shoot?

A

250-650ft.

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67
Q

What is the burn time of the MK79?

A

4.5 seconds

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68
Q

What is the day/night visibility of the MK79?

A

3/4 mile day, 10 miles night

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69
Q

What is the candle power of the MK124?

A

3600 candle power red flame

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70
Q

What is the burn time for day/night side of MK124?

A

20 seconds

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71
Q

What is the visibility of the MK124 day and night sides.

A

Orange smoke 1/2 mile, Red Flame 8 miles

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72
Q

What is the burn time of the MK 25?

A

13.5-18.5 minutes

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73
Q

What colors are the flame and smoke of MK 25?

A

Yellow flame/ white smoke

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74
Q

When will the MK 25 sink?

A

3-12 hours after impact or 1-3 hours after ignition

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75
Q

What is the burn time of the MK 58?

A

40-60 minutes

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76
Q

What is the visibility of the MK 58?

A

at least 3 miles

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77
Q

What colors are the smoke and flame of the MK 58?

A

White smoke/ yellow flame

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78
Q

How high can the flame of the MK 58 reach?

A

Potentially 50ft (warning)

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79
Q

What is the candle power of the signal mirror?

A

8 million candle power

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80
Q

What are the dimensions of the signal mirror?

A

2x3in

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81
Q

What is the visibility of the signal mirror?

A

Up to 40 miles

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82
Q

What is the duration of the 4in chemlight?

A

6 hours

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83
Q

What is the duration of the 6in chemlight?

A

12 hours

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84
Q

What is the visibility of the sea dye marker at 3,000ft?

A

2 miles

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85
Q

When does the Sea dye marker become a poor target?

A

After 1 hour

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86
Q

At what distance is the signal whistle audible up to?

A

1,000 yards

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87
Q

How many minutes of air does the SEAS-1 bottle offer?

A

1-3 minutes

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88
Q

How long is the SEAS-1 line for an aircrew member?

A

20in

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89
Q

How long is the SEAS-1 line for a rescue swimmer?

A

27in

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90
Q

How long is the dick of a rescue swimmer?

A

Incalculable without the use of NASA registered laser range finder as described under COMDTINST 3710.42069

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91
Q

How often must the SEAS-1 stage 1 + 2 regulators be reconditioned?

A

Every 2 calendar years

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92
Q

What is the life limit of SEAS-1 bottle?

A

10 years (120 months)

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93
Q

How often must an RS radio be checked?

A

Every 30 days

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94
Q

How many digits are in the Unique Identifier Number on a 406 PLB?

A

15 digits

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95
Q

How often and what color does the LED flash on a 406 PLB when searching for GPS?

A

Red LED flashes every 2 seconds

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96
Q

How do you deactivate a 406 PLB?

A

Depress On/Off button for 2 seconds

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97
Q

What is the operational life of the 406 PLB?

A

Minimum 24 hours

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98
Q

How often should the battery be replaced on the 406 PLB?

A

Every 5 years

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99
Q

How often do you test the 406 PLB?

A

Every 90 days

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100
Q

A _________ indicates the percentage of time that aircraft assigned to air stations are available to perform CG missions.

A

Availability Index

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101
Q

NMCM means

A

Not Mission Capable due to Organizational-level maintenance

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102
Q

NMCS means

A

Not Mission Capable due to Supply

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103
Q

NMCD

A

Not Mission Capable due to Depot-Level Maintenance which is performed at a unit

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104
Q

Availability Index= 100-NMCT formula is

A

NMCT=NMCM+NMCS+NMCD

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105
Q

The USCG target for aircraft availability is _____% (which equates to an NMCT of _____%

A

71%/29%

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106
Q

A target of ____% is a planning goal for NMCS rates

A

5%

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107
Q

All canonicalizations will be recorded in the _______

A

Electronic Asset Logbook

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108
Q

All cannibilzation actions should be authorized by the

A

Engineering Officer

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109
Q

What does ACCB stand for?

A

Aircraft Configuration Control Board

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110
Q

What is the Weight and Balance technical order?

A

AFTO 1-1B-50

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111
Q

A _______ _______ signifies that a responsible individual has determined the correct maintenance or inspection has been completed for the discrepancy required.

A

Maintenance Release

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112
Q

Who is the primary authority in authorizing maintenance releases?

A

Engineering Officer

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113
Q

A test flight for flight control maintenance may be waived at the discretion of the ________

A

Commanding Officer

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114
Q

Arctic/Antarctic Survival Kit has enough supplies to allow survival for ________ days.

A

15 days

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115
Q

Arctic/Antarctic Survival Kit Core is for a ______ person crew.

A

3 person

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116
Q

Arctic/Antarctic Survival Kit for Passengers is for ______ passengers.

A

3 passengers

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117
Q

The Cold Weather Aircrew Survival Kit (CWASK) is for _______ crew members.

A

4 crewmembers

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118
Q

The cylinder of the ADS can is what color?

A

Orange

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119
Q

What is the height of the ADS can?

A

20 in

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120
Q

What is the max gross weight of the ADS can?

A

90 lbs

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121
Q

What is the weight of the optional ballast bag in the ADS can?

A

25 lbs

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122
Q

How much water do the water storage bags in life raft survival kits hold?

A

5 qts

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123
Q

Breaking strength of Type 1 cord

A

100lbs

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124
Q

Breaking strength of Type 3 cord

A

500lbs

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125
Q

Breaking strength of gutted Type 3 cord

A

300lbs

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126
Q

What size is the water proof casualty blanket stored in survival kits?

A

96x56in

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127
Q

What is minimum SPF and shelf life required for sunburn preventative?

A

30 spf and 2 years

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128
Q

How much water is in each emergency water pouch?

A

4.5 oz

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129
Q

How long do the emergency water pouches last?

A

5 years

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130
Q

How many calories are required for MRE’s?

A

800-1200 calories

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131
Q

How much does the folding litter weigh?

A

45lbs

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132
Q

What is the load capacity of the folding litter?

A

600lbs

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133
Q

How often is visual inspection required on folding litter?

A

90 days

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134
Q

How much does the medevac board weigh?

A

19lbs

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135
Q

What is the load capacity of the medevac board?

A

300lbs

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136
Q

How much does the basket weigh?

A

40 lbs

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137
Q

What is the load capacity of the basket?

A

600lbs

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138
Q

How often do you do a visual inspection on the basket?

A

Every 30 days

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139
Q

What size webbing does the rescue sling use?

A

1in

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140
Q

What is the load capacity of the rescue sling?

A

600lbs

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141
Q

How long is the rescue sling?

A

71in

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142
Q

How much water the dewatering pump pump?

A

120-150 gallons per minute

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143
Q

How long can the dewatering pump run?

A

5-6 hours on 1 gallon tank

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144
Q

How much horsepower does the dewatering pump have?

A

3.5 horsepower at 3600 RPM

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145
Q

How long is the discharge hose and what diameter is it?

A

15ft and 2in diameter

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146
Q

How often do you visual a pump?

A

Every 30 days

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147
Q

How often do you run a pump?

A

Every 60 days

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148
Q

How often is the pump serviced?

A

Every 180 days.

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149
Q

How long is the safety glow rope on the ERD? How much of it is usuable?

A

155ft long, 140ft usuable

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150
Q

What is the max hoisting weight of the ERD?

A

300lbs

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151
Q

How often is the 1/2in safety glow rope on the ERD replaced?

A

Every 36 months

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152
Q

How often do you lubricate the ERD?

A

Annually

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153
Q

How often do you post use the ERD?

A

Every 180 days

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154
Q

How much cable do you extend past the top plate of the quick splice?

A

3in

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155
Q

Which slot on the quick splice does the cable get inserted and locked into?

A

Slot 5

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156
Q

How long is a trail line when cut and how long is it when it is built?

A

107ft cut, 105 ft end product

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157
Q

Which strand on the trail line gets tucked first when splicing?

A

Middle strand tucked first

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158
Q

What is the breaking strength of the weak link on a trail line?

A

300 lbs

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159
Q

What are the dimensions of the message block streamer?

A

5x6.5in

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160
Q

How long is the streamer on the message block?

A

7ft

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161
Q

How long and what type of cord is attached to the cable cutters?

A

62in Type III Nylon Cord

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162
Q

What is the uniform manual?

A

COMDTINST M1020.6

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163
Q

How far from the epaulet/shoulder seam should the officer rank be sewn?

A

3/4 in

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164
Q

How should admiral rank be oriented on flight suit?

A

Single ray of stars towards collar

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165
Q

What size may the Swimmer, EMT, or Unit patch be?

A

Not to exceed 5in

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166
Q

What is the max temperature of the water you can use to wash a flight suit?

A

140 Degrees F

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167
Q

What type of foil is used to create a name tag?

A

23KT Gold Foil

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168
Q

What size/font is used for name tags?

A

18pt News Gothic Caps

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169
Q

How long is the lace on flight boots?

A

30in

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170
Q

At what Temperature do flight gloves char at?

A

700-800 Degrees F

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171
Q

What color should the aircrew name tape be on the flight helmet?

A

Black Background with contrasting letters

172
Q

What size should the name tape be on the flight helmet?

173
Q

What should be included on name tape on flight helmet?

A

Rank/Rate/Last Name

174
Q

How many sizes are there of the Aircrew Anti Exposure Coveralls (MAC-10)?

A

17 sizes available

175
Q

What is the service life of an Immersion Suit?

176
Q

Tears up to _______ in in length may be repaired on Immersion Suits.

177
Q

How long should it take to don an Immersion Suit?

A

Less than 60 seconds

178
Q

Never use an Iron at a temp beyond ________ on immersion suits.

A

275 Degrees F

179
Q

How many sizes of Laser Eye Glasses are there?

180
Q

How large may the RS Logo on PT shirts be?

181
Q

What is the water resistance depth requirement for watches worn by RS’s?

182
Q

How many amphibious boots are recommended to be purchased for each RS?

A

2 amphibious boots

183
Q

How many hours of battery life shall the RS Radio have?

A

11 to 14 hours

184
Q

What type of battery is in the RS Radio?

A

5 WATT Lithium Ion Battery

185
Q

What is the length and width of the SEAS-1 Belt?

186
Q

What material is restricted from RS inland gear?

187
Q

What colors may the flight suit undershirt be?

A

Black, Blue, Tan

188
Q

What color is the crankcase oil filler cap on the pump?

189
Q

O-2 in Army

190
Q

O-3 in Air Force

191
Q

When lox is spilled, stop all maintenance within __________ft.

192
Q

When does warranty end on radio battery?

193
Q

What system can tell you the range, altitude, and position of other aircraft?

A

TCAS (Traffic Collision and Avoidance System)

194
Q

What DD Form is an RFI tag?

A

DD Form 1574

195
Q

What DD Form is a Non RFI tag?

A

DD Form 1577-2

196
Q

What is the SCRAP MPC?

A

MPC 051006.1

197
Q

What is CGTO PG-85-00-110-A

A

Aeronautical Engineering Maintenance Management Process Guide

198
Q

QAs shall be selected and designated in writing by who?

199
Q

Where can one find the standard format for a letter in designation for QA inspectors?

A

Enclosure 1

200
Q

Chapter 1 of the 110-A is?

A

Maintenance Support Programs

201
Q

Most FOD can be attribtued to three general causes which are?

A
  1. Poor housekeeping
202
Q

What is JOAP?

A

The Joint Oil Analysis Program

203
Q

What does JOAP do?

A

Monitors the condition of enclosed mechanical systems through determination of wear metal concentrations in lubricating fluid.

204
Q

History of the oil analysis program has clearly shown that the ___________ of an operating activity toward the program is usually the decisive factor in its success

205
Q

USCG aviation facilities should or shall participate in the JOAP?

206
Q

Who will ensure that maintenance personnel are thoroughly trained in JOAP sample taking and documentation?

207
Q

What is the SCHR?

A

Significant Component History Report

208
Q

Components removed as a result of oil analysis should?

A

State the reasons for removal include contaminants

209
Q

***Should include contaminants in parts per ________ in the last oil sample

210
Q

What can cause harmful effects in aircraft fuel systems?

A

Free water and contaminants

211
Q

Fuel samples shall be kept for a period of?

212
Q

The normal level of fuel system icing inibitor in turbine fuel (FSII) is what?

A

0.07-0.15% by volume

213
Q

Introduction of FSII will lower the flash point of JP-5 by ____

A

4-degrees F

214
Q

All air stations shall use what to record dehumidification cart installation and removal?

215
Q

Who shall ensure that an effective calibration program is implemented for assigned equipment and tooling?

216
Q

What does TDME stand for?

A

Test, Measurement, Diagnostic Equipment

217
Q

All calibrations will be traceable to who?

A

National Institute of Standards and Technology

218
Q

TMDE intervals may be _______ but shall not be _______.

A

shortened/ extended

219
Q

What is the TEMPEST program?

A

TEMPEST (non-acronym) refers to the investigation, study, and control of compromising emanations from electronic equipment. It also refers to the countermeasures put in place to prevent it and reduce TEMPEST vulnerabilities

220
Q

Whenever any maintenance instruction has served its purpose, it should be cancelled and filed for how long after it’s completion date?

221
Q

What is a SAMI?

A

Single Action Maintenance Instruction

222
Q

What is a CAMI?

A

Continuing Action Maintenance Instruction

223
Q

Polyester Resins are _____

A

NOT authorized for use on CG aircraft

224
Q

What is a CSE program?

A

Confined Space Entry, to inspect the inside of fuel tanks.

225
Q

Where are the requirements of the CSE program found?

A

In Safety and Environmental Health Manual M5100.7 Ch.13 and Aircraft Fuel Cells and Tanks, NAVAIR 01-1A-35

226
Q

How long will an EA (entry authority) certificaiton be valid for?

227
Q

What is an Aviation Critical Safety Item (CSO/Flight Safety Critical Aircraft Part(FSCAP)?

A

Any part, assembly, or installation equipment containing a critical characteristic whose failure, malfunction or absence could cause an uncommanded engine shutdown or catastrophic failure resulting in loss of or serious damage to the aircraft

228
Q

All physical handling, shipping, receiving and storage of COMSEC equipment remain the responsibility of who?

A

KMI managers

229
Q

Is AST3 Tunks Circumsized?

A

Wouldn’t you like to know weather boy

230
Q

Extended shifts should only be used to?

A

Regain a readiness status or to support urgent operations

231
Q

Personnel shal not perform maintenance or quality assurance inspections on grounding discrepancies or flight control work beyond _____ cumulative MST hours without prior authorization from unit _________

232
Q

Personnel are restricted from performing aircraft maintenance or any aircraft maintenance related activities for how many hours after last alcohol use?

233
Q

Lathes, milling machines, and similar types of equipment that produce cutting or flying particles should be set at _____ degree angles to each others.

234
Q

When can guards be reomved off of machines?

A

The machine SHALL be completely shut down and tagged out

235
Q

What is chapter 2 of the 110?

A

Aviation Maintenance Safety

236
Q

Metal hood type guards shall enclose how much of the abrasive wheel?

A

two-thirds

237
Q

Tool rests shall be adjusted to provide a minimum of what from abrasive wheel grinding surface

238
Q

The battery shop location must be approved by who?

A

The ground safety director, fire inspector chief and medical officer

239
Q

What battery shops will be mechanically ventilated to provide three to four air changers per hour?

A

Nickel-cadmium

240
Q

What two types of batteries can’t be serviced in the same room?

A

nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries

241
Q

How to combine electrolytes and water?

A

Always pour electrolyte into the water slowly; NEVER POUR WATER INTO THE ELECTROLYTE

242
Q

Oxygen cylinder storage shall be separate from fuel-gas cylinders by a distance of at least _________ or have a noncombustible barrier ______ feet high.

243
Q

How long must the noncombustible barrier have a fire-resistnace for?

A

At least 1/2 hour

244
Q

What is another term for pneumatic quick-disconnect couplings with automatic shut-off feature?

A

Poppet-Valve

245
Q

From the industrial standpoint, harmful effects to the mouth or digestive tract are regarded as a ________ rather than a regualr exposure hazard?

246
Q

What is the Hazardous Waste Management Manual?

247
Q

What extinguishers are most effect in putting out solvent fires?

A

CO2 fire extinguishers

248
Q

Single-Fiber particles with a diameter of _____ to _____ pose the greatest threat to the respiratory system?

A

three to four microns.

249
Q

The purchase of what type of fire extinguishers for flight line, hangar and shop use is prohibited?

250
Q

How often should existing static grounds be tested?

251
Q

Where are the procedures for testing static grounds located?

A

AFI-32-1065

252
Q

Flight line static grounds should be tested to the required standard of less than _______.

A

10,000 ohms.

253
Q

Static and Power grounds will be marked in what sized letters?

A

1-inch lettering with date tested and test results measured in ohms.

254
Q

How many groups can spills be classified into?

255
Q

What spills are of nromal minor consequence?

A

Spills involving an area of 18 inches or less-personnel shall stand by until aircraft is dispatched

256
Q

Spills not over _________ in any dimension or not over ____________ in area and not of a continuing nature shall have a fire guard posted, up wind, with a foam-type or Halon-type fire extinguisher until the area is inert and purged.

A

10 feet; 50 feet

257
Q

Does Halon have flashback prevention capabilities?

258
Q

Spills over_______ or of ___________shall be immediately reported to the supervisor in charge, who shall notfity airport and local fire. Anyone in spill area shall leave immediately

A

50 square feet; continuing nature

259
Q

A standard railing shall consist of a top rail, intermediate rail and posts and shall have a vertical height of ________ from upper surface of top rail to floor, platform, runway or ramp level.

A

42 inches.

260
Q

Where airframe specific limitations relating to wind velocity are not available,__________ wind velocity shall be considered the maximum.

261
Q

How many people are required to service an aircraft with O2?

262
Q

Do not deplete an oxygen bottle below _________ psi

263
Q

Servicing control valve shall not be opened more than what?

264
Q

If lox spills on asphalt, stop all servicing in a what foot radius of spill area? Do not walk or roll equipemnt over that area for?

A

20 foot;30 minutes

265
Q

How close do fire extinguishers need to be placed while servicing LOX?

266
Q

How long does LOX have to stabilize (vent)

A

30 minutes after servicing

267
Q

Radar antennas should not be operated within how many feet of an y fueling, defueling or similar operation?

268
Q

How many conductors shall the aircraft service cable have?

A

6, 4 for power, two for aircraft interlock

269
Q

What are the interlock conductors labeled as?

270
Q

Who is responsible for installing a well defined towing plan at each air station?

271
Q

What does one long whistle blast mean?

A

It’s a signal to stop

272
Q

How many people shall be in the cock pit of a C-130 for engine start ups?

273
Q

Where does the taxi signalman need to be?

A

Position should be slightly ahead and in line with the wing tip on the pilot’s side of the aircraft

274
Q

Hot refueling operations are not allowed near hwo many feet of any building?

275
Q

How many days are hazardous materials stored in the shop? and in Supply?

A

30;90 days

276
Q

If two or more aircraft are operating jointly for a mission (e.g. SAR) the responsibility for the mission usually resides with the _____________________.

A

PIC of the aircraft with the better communication capabilities.

277
Q

The Risk Management Manual, COMDTINST __________________, establishes responsibilities and procedures for training and conducting Risk Management (RM).

A

COMDTINST 3500.3

278
Q

Warranted Risk for Search and Rescue:

A

Saving a human life, Preventing or Relieving pain or suffering, Saving Property

279
Q

For operational units, at least ______ percent of all Fixed-Wing (F/W) flight hours and _______ percent of Rotary-Wing (R/W) hours should be dedicated to training.

A

20% of fixed wing, 40% of Rotary Wing

280
Q

Long Range Surveillance Aircraft

A

1500 NM Radius + 2.5 hours search remaining

281
Q

Medium Range Surveillance Aircraft

A

400 NM Radius + 2.5 hours search remaining

282
Q

Medium Range Recovery Aircraft

A

100-200 NM Radius, with capacity for 6-15 persons

283
Q

Short Range Recovery Aircraft

A

100 NM, with capacity for 1-5 persons

284
Q

When no climb gradient is published, the aircraft must be able to climb at __________________ or greater with one engine inoperative.

A

152 feet per nautical mile (2.5 percent)

285
Q

Fuel reserve shall be at least that required for ___________ minutes of flight after reaching the alternate (for fixed-wing aircraft) or ___________ minutes of flight after reaching the alternate (for rotary-wing aircraft).

A

40 minutes, 20 minutes

286
Q

Copies of flight plans must be retained for _________ days.

287
Q

Off duty time must allow for a minimum of how much bedrest?

288
Q

A flight crewmember shall not fly as a crewmember more than _________ in any seven consecutive days

289
Q

A flight crewmember shall not fly as a crewmember more than_________ during any 30 consecutive days.

290
Q

A flight crewmember shall not fly as a crewmember more than ________ total military/civilian hours during any 365 consecutive days

A

1100 total hours

291
Q

Time between bottle to throttle.

A

12 hours with no residual effects

292
Q

Coast Guard Aviation Medicine Manual

A

COMDTINST M6410.3A

293
Q

Aircrew shall obtain permission from _________ before donating blood or bone marrow.

A

Commanding Officer

294
Q

Pilots should or shall not wear contact lenses during single pilot operations.

295
Q

Take off minimum visibility for non operational missions.

A

1/2 statute mile

296
Q

Take off minimum visibility for operational missions.

A

1/4 statute mile

297
Q

Take off minimum visibility for rotary wing air intercept missions.

A

No minimums

298
Q

Modifications to checklists are not authorized without approval from _________.

A

Commandant CG-711

299
Q

How long are aircrew naps limited to?

A

40 minutes

300
Q

When taxiing within _______ ft of an obstacle, two person taxi crew is required.

301
Q

Aircraft shall not be taxied within _____ ft of any obstacle.

302
Q

Gravity feed hot refueling is ________.

A

Prohibitted.

303
Q

View limiting devices should or shall only be used by one pilot at a time.

304
Q

Can a view limiting device be used below 500ft at night?

305
Q

How high should the pump platform be above the water source?

306
Q

How close to the pump platform should a fresh water source be?

307
Q

What format is USCG migration technical publications to?

308
Q

Screening and Studying commercial sources of technical information is

A

advantageous and encouraged

309
Q

All changes, supplements, rapid access changes etc. to technical manuals will be incorporated into the applicable manual within how many working days?

310
Q

Pyro and Ordnance equipment shall be maintained in the ordnance manual: COMDTINST ____________.

A

COMDTINST M8000.2

311
Q

Temp and humidity of inflatable shop should be __________________.

A

65-75 Degrees F and 40-60% humidity

312
Q

Shop air will be regulated and maintained at no higher than ______.

313
Q

Aviators’ Breathing Oxygen Process Guide

A

CGTO PG-85-00-3070

314
Q

Holes or tears in liferafts greater than ________ are non repairable.

315
Q

Holes or tears in non inflatable floors of rafts greater than ________ are non repairable.

316
Q

Drill rafts shall contain “DRILL ONLY” stenciled in _________in letters.

317
Q

Drill vests shall contain “DRILL ONLY” stenciled in __________in Black letters on __________in white webbing.

A

3/4in black letters on 1in white webbing

318
Q

Hoist lines in the dry room should be a minimum of _______in apart and _________in from the wall.

A

24in apart, 12 in from wall

319
Q

During any one repack and inspection cycle, a parachute shall not be exposed to incandescent light or indirect sunlight for more than _______.

320
Q

Ammunition and explosives ashore storage/handling manual

A

NAVSEA OP5 Volume 1

321
Q

Aviators’ Breathing Oxygen in Gaseous form is Type __________.

322
Q

Aviators’ Breathing Oxygen in Liquid form is Type _________.

323
Q

Tools for oxygen should be marked as ________________________.

A

OXYEGN USE ONLY

324
Q

All oxygen tools should be of __________ type.

A

Non-Sparking

325
Q

Only _______ type pens are permitted for use in the oxygen shop.

326
Q

April Audit will be conducted whomst?

A

QA and shops

327
Q

October audit will be conducted by

328
Q

Normally, a TO is reviesed when the pages affected by existing changes, in addition to pages requiring change, total ____% or more of the TO

329
Q

How will flight hours be recorded on maintenance record?

A

To the nearest tenth of an hour.

330
Q

Entries on aircraft flight hours on other forms and records besides maintenance will be rounded to the nearest______

331
Q

How often shall units print a new MDL?

332
Q

What is the process guide for technical data deficiency reporting?

A

PG-85-00-20A

333
Q

Where can EAL paper logbooks be found?

A

In the EAL Forms Folder

334
Q

What color does logbook reviews represent in EAL?

335
Q

Paper forms will be retained at the unit for how many days after entry into EAL?

336
Q

Functional check requirements and aircrew warnings are what color?

337
Q

What does blue text mean in EAL?

A

Special Inspections

338
Q

What commandant is the office of aernautical engineering?

339
Q

Aircraft discrepancies shall be reported as

A

Either major or minor

340
Q

What is an ATIP Deficiency Report?

341
Q

How far in advance should the printed MDL cover?

342
Q

What is the ACMS User Process Guide?

A

PG-85-00-10-A

343
Q

All dates recorded on forms will be in what format?

A

Two numbers for month, two numbers for day, two numbers for year (04/20/69)

344
Q

How often should the EO conduct a review of each asset logboo?

345
Q

What are the levels of publication contents?

A
  1. System/Chapter
346
Q

Publication contents are organized on how many levels?

347
Q

What color is a Technical Order Page Supplement?

A

Green page

348
Q

Where can you find changed pages?

A

By referring to the list of effective pages (back side of the title page)

349
Q

What are Rapid Action Changes usually used for?

A

Possible safety of flight or faulty equipment

350
Q

When will units conduct audits?

A

April and October.

351
Q

How much bouyancy does the immersion suit have?

352
Q

The ADC assembly will afford protection from exposure to _______ water for a period up to _________ hours.

A

32 Degrees F, 14 hours

353
Q

Unit aircraft ALSE inspection sheets will be maintained for _______.

354
Q

A thread?

A

2.75 pounds

355
Q

AA

356
Q

B

357
Q

E

358
Q

F

359
Q

FF

360
Q

All maintenance records will be backed up a minimum of

A

Once per shift.

361
Q

Dates and times shall be recorded in what format on all forms except the mission schedule?

362
Q

What are the only authorized ink colors for paper forms?

A

Black or Blue.

363
Q

Special inspections text color

364
Q

Logbook review colors

365
Q

Functional check requirements/aircrew warnings text color

366
Q

What color sideward triangle indicates partially mission capable on EAL?

367
Q

What is NMCL?

A

Not Mission Capable Layup

368
Q

The paper version of the No-Mission Maintenance Record is printed on ______ paper.

369
Q

Who is authorized to maintenance release aircraft at their unit?

A

The EO. Additional officers or petty officers may be used with authorized in writing.

370
Q

Deferred maintenance action CF

A

Carried Forward

371
Q

Deferred maintenance Action CFD

A

Carried forward to depot level maintenance

372
Q

Deferred maintenance action PP

A

Parts Pending

373
Q

Deferred maintenance action SQ

A

Maintenance Squawk

374
Q

Each unit shall maintain a sufficient number of printed paper logbook forms to enable normal asset flight and maintenance operations for how long?

375
Q

Preflight and servicing record paper color

376
Q

Mission Record Paper color

377
Q

Mission-Generated Maintenance Record paper color

378
Q

Flight Safety maintenance document paper color

379
Q

All paper logbook forms will be used for periods of non-connectivity exceeding how many hours?

380
Q

Aviation Logistics (AIRLOG) messages provide policies and procedures relevant to all air units. These messages are numbered consecutively on what timeline basis?

A

Fiscal year

381
Q

How shall units maintain these AIRLOG messages?

A

As official directive

382
Q

What is the Logistics Compliance Inspection Process Guide?

383
Q

What are the preferred terms when discussing RFI and non-RFI equipment.

A

Serviceable and Unserviceable

384
Q

Material Types (buckle in these suck)

A

Aeronautical and avionics materiel managed by Aviation Inventory Control Point (AICP) Elizabeth City, is divided into SEVEN type classifications

385
Q

Type 1 materials

A

Aeronautical material under individual (serial number)

386
Q

Type 2 Materials

A

Aeronautical materiel for which ALC has service wide support responsibility.

387
Q

Type 3 Materiels

A

Consumable aeronautical material, less avionics with a unit price of less than $250 and procurable from an OGA source. Units set their own allowance quantities and procure material using unit AFC 30 funds

388
Q

Type 4

A

Avionics material for which ALC has service wide responsibility and support

389
Q

Type 5

A

Consumable avionics material with price less than $800 and procurable from OGA. Units set their own allowance and use AFC 30 funds

390
Q

Type 6

A

Aeronautical Support Equipment

391
Q

Type 7

A

Material (parts, supplies, equipment) owned by a commercial contractor and used to support maintenance

392
Q

Which types will be purchased by ALC?

A

Types 1,2,4,6,7

393
Q

Which must be bought with unit funds?

A

Type 3 and 5

394
Q

From what fund will type 3 and 5 materials be purchased with?

A

AFC 30 funds

395
Q

Where will Type 1 materials be requisitioned?

A

Through AMMIS

396
Q

After ALC issues orders for shipment of Type 1, how long does the shipper have to ship the materials?

397
Q

What code do you enter as the required delivery date if more than half of the unit fleet is AOG or unable to satisfy unit readiness requirements?

398
Q

Records retention for field units material request for parts form CG-4491 will be maintained for how many years?

A

3 fiscal years following the current one

399
Q

What is the form number for shipping documents?

400
Q

Out of priority 2,5 and 12 which is the highest priority?

A

2; It will be selected for immediate shipment and will be filled as long as there are parts on the ALC shelf.

401
Q

How often are priority 5 and 12 requisitions evaluated?

A

Once a day

402
Q

If priority 5 parts are requisitioned, how many parts must be on ALC shelf to be sent?

A

More than two parts.

403
Q

If priority 12 parts are requisitioned, how many parts must be on ALC shelf to be sent?

A

More than 5 parts

404
Q

How long does ALC have to pay vendors for parts ordered, in accordance with what law?

A

ALC must pay within 30 days of receipt of material; Prompt Payment Act

405
Q

Where is the Parts Pool generated?

A

Within AMMIS

406
Q

Who controls TCTO change kits?

407
Q

Kits requiring more than 4 labor-hours for incorporation will not normally be issued within ____ months of the scheduled aircraft PDM

408
Q

Kits requiring 4 or less labor hours for incorporation will not be issued within how many days of scheduled aircraft PDM induction dates?

409
Q

What will spare components have instead of aircraft/engine serial number?

410
Q

Unserviceable items are tagged with what?

411
Q

Unserviceable items with a PDQR (product quality deficiency report) are tagged with what?

412
Q

What type of materiel shall be used for tagging equipment?

A

Twine or other soft materiel?

413
Q

What is attached to serviceable items?

414
Q

An allowance for each NIIN is recommended to provide a 90-95% probability of not stocking out during unit replenishment time based on how many years of demand history|?

415
Q

What is an ACR?

A

An Allowance Change Request-

416
Q

What is a CG-4491?

A

Parts and Material Request/Use Form

417
Q

Each regular order in a CG-4491 should be given a order of what?

A

Priority 5

418
Q

If an expedited order is necessary for mission essential equipment, what priority shall it be given and when can it be expected?

A

Priority 2; within 5 days

419
Q

Admiral

A

The single ray shall point towards the collar

420
Q

Captain insignia?

A

The eagle’s head is placed with beak facing towards the collar, facing toward the front

421
Q

Commander and LCDR insignia?

A

Stem of the cluster shall point outwards or away from the collar

422
Q

LT and LTJD insignia?

A

Short side of each bar faces forward and aft

423
Q

CWO insignia?

A

Short side of each bar faces fore and aft

424
Q

IF wearing a different patch be it RS, EMT or FM, what diameter shall it not exceed

425
Q

What type of life support items do AFC-30 funds procure?

A

Equipment that is individually issues to crewmembers or deployed from the aircraft for rescue. Personal and Deployable ALSE. ADCs, flight suits and helmets, rescue swimmer harnesses, Pumps

426
Q

What type of life support items do AFC-41 funds procure?

A

Equipment that is part of the aircraft configuration or listed in the 3710.1: Rescue litters, baskets, o2 masks, aircrew life rafts and survival vests