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United 737 > SV Study Guide 26 July 2021 > Flashcards

SV Study Guide 26 July 2021 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the source of power for the JAMCO electric locking system?
A

Both 28 Volt DC Bus 1 & 2

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2
Q
  1. During a turn what determines the minimum obstruction clearance path for a -800.
A

The wingtip radius

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3
Q
  1. If the amber CAB DOOR UNLOCKED light is illuminated on the Jamco Flight Deck Door Control Panel ____________.
A

It indicates that the door is unlocked

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4
Q
  1. How long will the hard lock push button on the Jamco flight deck door control panel disable the emergency entrance unlock function?
A

30 minutes.

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5
Q
  1. The mechanical lock (pin) located on the Jamco flight deck door_______.
A

will not allow the door to be opened by the FLIGHT DECK DOOR EMERGENCY ENTRANCE system.

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6
Q
  1. With a Jamco flight deck door if the cabin mounted emergency entrance system is activated how much time will pass before the door electrically unlocks?
A

30 seconds

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7
Q
  1. At what cabin altitude will the passenger oxygen system automatically activate?
A

14000 Feet

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8
Q
  1. How can the pilots manually activate the passenger oxygen system from the flight deck?
A

The passenger oxygen switch on the aft overhead panel

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9
Q
  1. How can the crew check the oxygen pressure for the Pilot Oxygen System?
A

The oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel

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10
Q
  1. What does the Normal/100% Switch on the crewmember oxygen mask regulator do if pushed into the 100% position?
A

Supplies 100% oxygen on demand

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11
Q
  1. The Bromochlorodifluoromethane BCF (Halon 1211) extinguisher is best used for which type of fires
A

Class B; Flammable liquids/Class C; Live electrical

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12
Q
  1. The Type III emergency exits on the B737-800 are located in the passenger cabin over the wings and use a 28 volt DC flight lock system which is designed to ensure that the flight lock will automatically lock during ________.
A

Takeoff and landing/Inflight

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13
Q
  1. Installation of handle covers on the over-wing exits do not need to be verified prior to departure whenever passengers are carried.
A

FALSE

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14
Q
  1. What happens to the Jamco flight deck door if the Hard Lock button is pushed after the flight deck door emergency entrance open button is pushed?
A

The door will automatically HARD LOCK for 30 minutes

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15
Q
  1. If the FWD and AFT cargo compartments are not locked MASTER CAUTION and_________________ is/are illuminated.
A

The DOORS annunciation light

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16
Q
  1. How is the potable water system tank pressurized?
A

Engine bleed air or the water system air compressor

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17
Q
  1. Where is the panel that shows the quantity of water in the potable water tank?
A

The aft attendant panel

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18
Q
  1. Where is the hot water heater located?
A

Under the lavatory sink

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19
Q
  1. Outboard (retractable) landing lights may be extended at any speed.
A

TRUE

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20
Q
  1. When on standby electrical power which flight deck lights are illuminated?
A

Standby compass light white dome lights instrument flood lights and selected system information and warning lights.

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21
Q
  1. What triggers lights to automatically illuminate when exit switch in the armed position:
A

DC bus No. 1 fails/AC power is turned off

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22
Q
  1. If the aft flight attendant emergency light switch position is selected on what happens?
A

Illuminates all emergency lights and bypasses flight deck control.

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23
Q
  1. Each Passenger Service Unit (PSU) has ___________ that supply the passenger oxygen system.
A

individual chemical oxygen generators

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24
Q
  1. When the Passenger Oxygen Switch on the aft overhead panel is positioned to ON the passenger oxygen system is activated automatically by a pressure switch at a cabin altitude of ______ or.
A

14000 feet

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25
Q
  1. What does an illuminated PASS OXY ON light on the aft overhead panel indicate:
A

The passenger oxygen system has been activated

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26
Q
  1. Fire detection and extinguishing systems are located at which of the following areas?
A

Engines APU Lavatories Cargo Compartments

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27
Q
  1. The _________ powers engine overheat and fire detection:
A

battery bus

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28
Q
  1. What happens when the engine fire warning switch is pulled up?
A

Closes fuel hydraulic shutoff and engine bleed air valves/Disables the reverser trips the respective generator control circuit breaker and deactivates the engine-driven hydraulic pump.

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29
Q
  1. When the FAULT/INOP and OVHT/FIRE TEST Switch is placed in the OVHT/FIRE position should the FAULT light illuminate?
A

No

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30
Q
  1. If you are on the ground what additional indications of an APU fire occur?
A

the wheel well APU fire warning horn sounds

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31
Q
  1. The APU ground control panel contains an APU fire warning light an APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE switch an APU fire control handle and an APU HORN CUTOUT switch and is located in the __________ .
A

main wheel well

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32
Q
  1. The Cargo Compartment Fire Suppression System contains how many fire extinguisher bottle(s)?
A

two

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33
Q
  1. What should happen when pushing the Cargo Fire TEST Switch?
A

both Extinguisher (EXT) Test Lights should illuminate green

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34
Q
  1. If the Overheat Detector Select (OVHT DET) switches is in the NORMAL position _______.
A

detection loop A and B are active

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35
Q
  1. The ______light illuminates when both loops in one or both cargo compartments have failed?
A

DETECTOR FAULT

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36
Q
  1. If the Cargo Fire Bottle Discharge (DISCH) light is illuminated (amber) what does it mean?
A

indicates either extinguisher bottle has discharged

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37
Q
  1. What happens on the B737-800 after the Cargo Fire System is armed if the Cargo Fire Discharge (DISCH) Switch is pushed and the first extinguisher bottle is discharged.
A

A timer is then set for 60 minutes to discharge the second bottle.

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38
Q
  1. When smoke is detected in the lavatory what is the flight deck indication?
A

There is no flight deck indication

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39
Q
  1. The Lavatory Fire Extinguisher would indicate what color to indicate that the Heat Activated Nozzle has been discharged?
A

Aluminum

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40
Q
  1. With the If the OVHT DET switch is in normal and one engine overheat and fire detection loop fails what happens?
A

the failed loop is automatically deactivated and the remaining loop functions as a single loop detector

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41
Q
  1. What does an illuminated amber FAULT light on the overheat fire protection panel indicate with the OVHT DET switch in normal?
A

both detector loops for an engine have failed

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42
Q
  1. What does an illuminated amber FAULT light on the overheat fire protection panel indicate with the OVHT DET switch selected to A?
A

the A detector loop for an engine has failed

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43
Q
  1. A _____ has occurred if both MASTER CAUTION lights the OVHT/DET system annunciator light and the related ENG OVERHEAT light illuminate.
A

An engine overheat

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44
Q
  1. The indications of an engine fire are:
A

All related engine overheat alert indications illuminate/The fire warning bell sounds both master FIRE WARNING lights illuminate the related engine fire warning switch illuminates

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45
Q
  1. The engine fire warning switches are unlocked by?
A

Illumination of an engine fire warning switch illumination of an ENG OVERHEAT light or manually by pushing the fire warning switch override

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46
Q
  1. What occurs to the engine fuel system when pulling the engine fire warning switch up?
A

closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve at the HMU and the spar fuel shutoff valve

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47
Q
  1. What occurs to the respective hydraulic system when pulling the engine fire warning switch up?
A

closes the hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and deactivates the engine driven hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE light

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48
Q
  1. When the Fire Warning BELL CUTOUT Switch is pushed it extinguishes both master FIRE WARN lights silences the fire warning bell and ___________.
A

resets system for additional warnings

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49
Q
  1. When positioning the EXT TEST Switch to 1 or 2 circuit continuity from the squib to __________ is verified.
A

both engines and APU fire switches

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50
Q
  1. What happens when placing the Fault/Inoperative (FAULT/INOP) and Overheat/Fire (OVHT/FIRE) TEST Switch to the FAULT/INOP position?
A

tests the fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU

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51
Q
  1. What happens when placing the Fault/Inoperative (FAULT/INOP) and Overheat/Fire (OVHT/FIRE) TEST Switch to the OVHT/FIRE position?
A

tests overheat and fire detection loops on both engines and APU and wheel well fire detector

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52
Q
  1. What happens when there is an illuminated APU Fire Warning Switch in the down position?
A

unlocks the APU fire warning switch

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53
Q
  1. _____lights will illuminate during a number 1 engine overheat?
A

ENG 1 OVERHEAT MASTER CAUTION and OVHT/DET system annunciator

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54
Q
  1. What does an illuminated red WHEEL WELL Fire Warning Light indicate?
A

a fire in the main gear wheel well

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55
Q
  1. An illuminated engine BOTTLE DISCHARGE light indicates_____.
A

the related fire extinguisher bottle has discharged

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56
Q
  1. An illuminated APU DET INOP light indicates_____.
A

APU detector loop has failed

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57
Q
  1. An illuminated APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE light indicates_____.
A

the APU extinguisher bottle has discharged

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58
Q
  1. Pushing the Master Fire Warning (FIRE WARN BELL CUTOUT) on the glareshield have the same results as pushing the fire warning bell cutout switch on the overheat/fire protection panel?
A

TRUE

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59
Q
  1. What happens when pushing the FWD Cargo Fire ARM Switch?
A

arms the extinguisher for the forward cargo compartment

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60
Q
  1. What happens when pressing either MASTER CAUTION light after both lights are extinguished?
A

resets the annunciator light for further cautions

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61
Q
  1. Single failures in dual/redundant systems do not illuminate MASTER CAUTION light. How do you recall the system failure?
A

pressing either system annunciator light panel

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62
Q
  1. If ____________________are pressed both Master Fire Warning lights are extinguished the fire warning bell is silenced and the system is reset for additional warnings.
A

either MASTER FIRE WARNING light or the fire warning bell cutout switch

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63
Q
  1. What do the Cabin Altitude and Takeoff Configuration Warnings commonly use when activated?
A

the same intermittent tone

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64
Q
  1. What conditions cause the takeoff configuration warning horn to sound?
A

Trailing edge flaps skew or asymmetry speed brake lever not in the DOWN position/or spoiler control valve is open providing pressured hydraulic fluid to the ground spoiler interlock valve/Stabilizer trim not set in the takeoff range flaps not in the takeoff range LE devices are not configured for takeoff or the parking brake is set.

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65
Q
  1. What happens anytime the aircraft is below 800 feet RA in landing configuration and any gear not down and locked?
A

A steady horn sounds

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66
Q
  1. During which conditions does pushing the Landing Gear Warning Cutout Switch silence landing gear configuration warning aural?
A

flaps up through 10 and below 800 feet RA

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67
Q
  1. What does the The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) monitor?
A

takeoff and landing configuration warnings/landing gear and air / ground sensing

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68
Q
  1. On the ground what does an illuminated Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) indicate.
A

a fault is detected in the PSEU or an overwing exit flight lock fails to disengage when commanded

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69
Q
  1. The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) _____________ in flight.
A

is inhibited from thrust lever advance for takeoff until 30 seconds after landing

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70
Q
  1. As the throttles are advanced what does it mean if the Takeoff Configuration Warning Light illuminates red?
A

the airplane is not configured correctly for takeoff

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71
Q
  1. What does an illuminated Cabin Altitude Warning Light indicates?
A

at 10000 feet if the cabin has not been pressurized

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72
Q
  1. What happens when the maximum operating airspeed of Vmo/Mmo is exceeded?
A

the Mach / airspeed warning system provides an aural warning (clacker)

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73
Q
  1. The indication of an impending stall is_____?
A

an artificial stall warning device (stick shaker)

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74
Q
  1. Which is true in regard to the MACH AIRSPEED WARNING TEST switches and the STALL WARNING TEST switches?
A

are inhibited while airborne

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75
Q
  1. When is altitude alerting inhibited?
A

when the trailing edge flaps are extended to 25 or greater or while G/S is captured

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76
Q
  1. At what point prior to reaching the selected altitude does a white box shows around the selected altitude display the box around the current altitude becomes bold and a momentary tone sounds?
A

900 feet

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77
Q
  1. If the selected altitude is deviated by ____ feet a momentary tone sounds the current altitude box turns amber and ____________.
A

300; begins to flash

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78
Q
  1. What inhibits Ground Proximity Warning System look ahead terrain and radio altitude based alerts?
A

actual windshear warning

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79
Q
  1. Approximately how far from the projected impact will the look ahead terrain alert Terrain terrain pull up sound with the terrain shown in solid red on the navigation display?
A

20 to 30 secs

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80
Q
  1. Approximately how far from projected impact will the look ahead terrain alert Caution terrain will sound with terrain shown in solid amber on the navigation display?
A

40 to 60 secs

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81
Q
  1. In what speed realm does Too low terrain aural alert occurs if the aircraft is at an unsafe terrain clearance with either the landing gear not down or flaps not in the landing configuration?
A

high speed

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82
Q
  1. If the aircraft experiences excessive altitude loss after a takeoff or go-around the __________ aural alert occurs.
A

DONT SINK

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83
Q
  1. The Volume and repetition of the GLIDESLOPE aural alert rate _____________ as deviation _______________ below the glideslope.
A

increase; increase

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84
Q
  1. When are new predictive windshear warning alerts are inhibited During takeoff and landing?
A

between 100 knots and 50 ft RA

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85
Q
  1. What does an illuminated Inoperative (INOP) light on the Ground Proximity panel alert the pilot to?
A

a GPWS computer malfunction or power loss has occurred.

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86
Q
  1. In flight the Ground Proximity System Test (SYS TEST) Switch is ______.
A

inhibited

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87
Q
  1. What does placing the Ground Proximity FLAP INHIBIT Switch to FLAP INHIBIT inhibit?
A

ground proximity TOO LOW FLAPS alert

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88
Q
  1. What does placing the Ground Proximity TERRAIN INHIBIT Switch to TERRAIN INHIBIT inhibit?
A

look-ahead terrain alerts and terrain displays

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89
Q
  1. When does the weather radar automatically begins scanning for windshear?
A

all answers are correct

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90
Q
  1. A(n) ____________ aural and a message is annunciated on the traffic display for Traffic advisories.
A

TRAFFIC TRAFFIC

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91
Q
  1. Resolution advisories provide ________and an aural warning to maintain or increase separation from traffic.
A

maneuver guidance

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92
Q
  1. What does placing the Transponder Mode Selector to TA (traffic advisory) ONLY do?
A

enables the display of traffic advisory targets

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93
Q
  1. What does placing the Transponder Mode Selector to TA/RA do?
A

enables the display of traffic advisory targets and resolution advisory (RA) targets

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94
Q
  1. What does pressing the Absolute Altitude Display Selector on the TCAS Controls (Transponder Panel) do?
A

displays absolute altitude of TCAS targets

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95
Q
  1. In which TCAS Altitude Range Switch position sets TCAS display from 2700 feet below to 7000 feet above own aircraft?
A

Above (ABV)

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96
Q
  1. On the cartridge assembly (Tail Skid) on the -800 and -900 series if the warning decal is ______ the cartridge must be replaced.
A

all red

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97
Q
  1. When must Engine Ignition be on:
A

Takeoff and Landing/Engine Anti-Ice Operation and Heavy Rain

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98
Q
  1. The maximum allowable EGT for Engine Start is_______.
A

725°C

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99
Q
  1. An Amber Arc on an Engine Limit Display indicates______.
A

Cautionary range

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100
Q
  1. On the B737-800 what is the maximum altitude that the APU can supply electrical power and bleed air up to?
A

10000 ft.

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101
Q
  1. On the B737-800 what is the maximum altitude that the APU can supply bleed air alone up to?
A

17000 ft.

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102
Q
  1. On the B737-800 What is the maximum altitude that the APU can supply electrical power alone up to?
A

41000 ft.

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103
Q
  1. With the EEC in Normal Mode if the thrust lever is advanced to the forward stop what will the EEC do?
A

limit thrust to the maximum certified thrust rating for current conditions

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104
Q
  1. On the engine panel on the aft overhead panel when will both ON and ALTN be in view?
A

The EEC has automatically changed to the soft alternate mode

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105
Q
  1. Thrust rating shortfalls and exceedances _______ occur as flight conditions change when the EEC is in soft alternate mode.
A

can

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106
Q
  1. In what mode does the EEC provides N1 and N2 redline overspeed protection in?
A

normal mode and alternate mode

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107
Q
  1. Which air source may the engines be started with?
A

The APU or ground source/The engine crossbleed

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108
Q
  1. On the B737-800 power is removed from the start switch holding the solenoid for starter cutout at approximately _____ N2 speed.
A

56%

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109
Q
  1. On the B737-800 what do the EECs monitor to detect during ground starts?
A

impending hot starts and EGT start limit exceedances/wet starts

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110
Q
  1. On the B737-800 a flashing white box surrounding the EGT during an engine start indicates_____.
A

an impending hot start

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111
Q
  1. When the Engine Start Switch is placed in the GRD position _____occurs.
A

the starter valve opens the engine bleed air valve closes/the selected igniters(s) are energized when the engine start lever is placed to IDLE

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112
Q
  1. When the Engine Start Switch is placed in the CONT position ______ occurs.
A

Ignition is provided to the selected igniters when engine is operating and engine start lever is in IDLE

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113
Q
  1. When the Engine Start Switch is placed in the FLT position _____ occurs.
A

Ignition is provided to the both igniters when engine is operating and engine start lever is in IDLE

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114
Q
  1. IGN L is powered by AC transfer bus #1 for engine #1 and AC transfer bus #2 for engine #2. What is IGN R powered by for either engine?
A

AC standby bus

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115
Q
  1. _______occurs when the EEC detects an engine flameout.
A

both engine igniters are activated

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116
Q
  1. X-BLD START above the N2 dial indicates ______.
A

crossbleed air recommended for inflight start

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117
Q
  1. The thrust reversers can be deployed when ______________________ or when either radio altimeter sense less than 10 feet RA.
A

the air / ground safety sensor is in the ground mode

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118
Q
  1. What does an amber REV displayed above the N1 gages on the center instrument panel indicate?
A

the thrust reverser is moved from stowed position

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119
Q
  1. What does a green REV displayed above the N1 gages on the center instrument panel indicate?
A

the thrust reverser is deployed

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120
Q
  1. _______thrust lever position will provide maximum reverse thrust.
A

pulling beyond detent No. 2

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121
Q
  1. In regard to the APU what happens when moving the battery switch to OFF on the ground or in flight?
A

on the ground or inflight causes an automatic shutdown of the APU

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122
Q
  1. If the APU does not reach the proper speed with the proper acceleration rate within the time limit of the starter _____ happens.
A

the start cycle automatically terminates

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123
Q
  1. On the B737-800 moving the APU switch to the OFF position trips the APU generator closes the APU bleed air valve and extinguished the APU GEN OFF BUS light. When does shutdown occurs?
A

automatically after a 60 second delay

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124
Q
  1. Operate the APU for ________ before using it as a bleed air source in order to extend the service life of the APU.
A

one minute

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125
Q
  1. On the B737-800 in flight what happens if the APU is the only source for electrical power?
A

all galley busses are automatically shed

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126
Q
  1. On the B737-800 the APU be operated with the blue Maintenance (MAINT) light illuminated.
A

TRUE

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127
Q
  1. On the B737-800 an amber APU OVERSPEED light is illuminated this indicates ________ or the APU RPM limit has been exceed resulting in an automatic shutdown.
A

The overspeed shutdown protection feature has failed a self-test during normal APU shutdown

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128
Q
  1. On the B737-800 the amber APU FAULT light illuminates______.
A

anytime a malfunction exists causing the APU to automatically shutdown

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129
Q
  1. On the B737-800 it is acceptable to have an APU LOW OIL PRESSURE light illuminated during APU start?
A

TRUE

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130
Q
  1. On the PFD/ND where are the Secondary Engine Indications normally displayed?
A

Lower Display Unit

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131
Q
  1. On the PFD/ND how is low oil quantity indicated?
A

in reversed video and LO (white)

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132
Q
  1. On the PFD/ND what does pushing the MFD Engine (ENG) switch do?
A

displays secondary engine indications on lower DU

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133
Q
  1. Each Engine is equipped with a thrust reverser that is operated________.
A

hydraulically

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134
Q
  1. In the event of incomplete stowage or uncommanded movement of the thrust reverser sleeve toward the deployed position what will open the isolation valve and command the control valve to stow the thrust reverser?
A

auto-restow circuit

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135
Q
  1. N1 reference bugs and readouts can be manually set by______.
A

By turning the N1 SET inner knob when the N1 SET outer knob is set to BOTH 1 or 2.

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136
Q
  1. ________condition(s) would cause an amber Engine Fail (ENG FAIL) Alert.
A

Engine N2 below sustainable idle (50% N2) and engine start lever in IDLE position

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137
Q
  1. A red N2 RPM display indicates______.
A

An operating limit is being exceeded

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138
Q
  1. A steady illuminated amber START VALVE OPEN Alert light indicates_______.
A

The respective engine start valve is open and air is supplied to the starter

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139
Q
  1. An illuminated amber REVERSER light on the aft overhead panel indicates______.
A

The isolation valve or thrust reverser control valve is not in commanded position one or more thrust reversers sleeves are not in commanded state or a failure has been detected in synchronization shaft lock circuitry/The auto-restow circuit has been activated

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140
Q
  1. An illuminated amber ENGINE CONTROL light on the aft overhead panel indicates____.
A

The engine control system is not dispatchable due to faults in the system

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141
Q
  1. Moving the Engine Start Lever to IDLE ______________ energizes ignition system through EECs; electrically opens spar fuel shutoff valve in the wing leading edge outboard of the pylon.
A

Electrically opens engine-mounted fuel shutoff valve

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142
Q
  1. ________ is the Maximum continuous engine oil temperature.
A

140°C

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143
Q
  1. The minimum engine oil quantity prior to engine start is_____.
A

70%

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144
Q
  1. It is required to all an engine to remain at idle for __ minute(s) before changing thrust lever position when ambient temperatures are below-35° C.
A

2

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145
Q
  1. The minimum battery voltage for APU start is____.
A

23 volts

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146
Q
  1. When a source of power is connected to a bus system _____ occurs.
A

it automatically disconnects an existing source

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147
Q
  1. What does a GRD POWER AVAILABLE light do?
A

provides flight deck indication that AC ground power is connected to the aircraft and meets aircraft power quality standards

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148
Q
  1. If the BUS TRANS switch is in the AUTO position and the source powering the transfer bus is disconnected or fails what does the source powering the opposite transfer bus through the BTBs do?
A

automatically picks up the unpowered transfer bus

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149
Q
  1. What do the three transformer rectifier (TR) units do?
A

convert 115-volt AC to 28-volt DC

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150
Q
  1. Inflight when does an amber TR UNIT light illuminate?
A

TR1 or TR2 and TR3 has failed

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151
Q
  1. How long does a fully charged battery have sufficient capacity to provide electrical power for? (Single-Battery configuration)
A

A minimum of 30 minutes

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152
Q
  1. When does an amber BAT DISCHARGE light illuminate?
A

excessive battery discharge is detected

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153
Q
  1. If one or more of the following buses are unpowered __________ it is indicated by an illuminated STANDBY Power (PWR) OFF Light
A

all answers are correct

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154
Q
  1. In flight or on the ground with the STANDBY POWER Switch in AUTO (guarded position) in with the loss of all AC power the AC standby bus is powered by __________________ and the DC standby bus is powered by _____________.
A

The battery

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155
Q
  1. The light on the overhead panel that illuminates if the APU is running and not supplying power to a bus is the_____.
A

APU GEN OFF BUS

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156
Q
  1. On the ground and inflight the APU generator can supply power to ____________.
A

both transfer busses

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157
Q
  1. The electrical system is designed to ___________ during single generator operation.
A

shed electrical loads incrementally

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158
Q
  1. When ____ oil is sensed in the IDG the amber DRIVE caution light is illuminated.
A

low

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159
Q
  1. It _________ possible to reactivate the IDG in flight after the IDG disconnect switch is used to disconnect the IDG from the engine.
A

is not

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160
Q
  1. Which of the following can cause IDG low oil pressure?
A

IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature/IDG disconnected through the generator drive DISCONNECT switch

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161
Q
  1. An amber _______ light illuminates to indicate the DC system or standby system equipment has failed while the aircraft is on the ground. This light is inhibited in flight.
A

ELEC

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162
Q
  1. On the Cabin Pressurization Panel what has occurred if both the amber AUTO FAIL light and the green ALTN light is illuminated?
A

a single channel controller failure has occurred

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163
Q
  1. The OFF SCHED DESCENT light indicates the aircraft began descent before having reached the planned cruise altitude. What does the controller program the cabin to?
A

to land at the takeoff field elevation without further pilot inputs

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164
Q
  1. Which stages of the compressor section is bleed air is obtained from (NG aircraft)?
A

5th; 9th

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165
Q
  1. The ___ high-stage valve modulates open to maintain proper pressure when 5th low-stage pressure is insufficient (NG aircraft).
A

9th

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166
Q
  1. The engine bleed air valve is normally _____ operated and DC power activated.
A

pneumatically

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167
Q
  1. What does the illumination of the BLEED TRIP OFF light indicate?
A

engine bleed air temperature or pressure exceeds a predetermined limit

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168
Q
  1. When the BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminates what effect does this have on the engine bleed air system?
A

The respective engine bleed air valve closes automatically

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169
Q
  1. The isolation valve is _____ when the isolation valve switch in AUTO both engine bleed air switches ON and both air conditioning pack switches AUTO or HIGH.
A

closed

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170
Q
  1. The isolation valve is _____ when the isolation valve switch in AUTO if either an engine bleed air switch or an air conditioning pack switch is positioned OFF.
A

open

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171
Q
  1. Turning the APU bleed air switch OFF with the PACK switches in AUTO will cause the isolation valve to open.
A

FALSE

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172
Q
  1. The APU bleed air valve is___ operated and ______ activated.
A

pneumatically; DC

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173
Q
  1. Engine thrust must be _______ with the DUAL BLEED light illuminated.
A

limited to idle

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174
Q
  1. ______causes a WING-BODY OVERHEAT condition.
A

a bleed air duct leak

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175
Q
  1. Which WING-BODY OVERHEAT light will illuminate if a leak in the bleed duct from the APU occurs?
A

Left

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176
Q
  1. The isolation valve _________ if either engine BLEED air or air condition PACK switch is positioned OFF with the ISOLOATION VALVE switch in AUTO.
A

automatically opens

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177
Q
  1. Conditioned air from which PACK upstream of the mix manifold flows directly to the flight deck?
A

left pack

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178
Q
  1. Air from the left pack air from the right pack and air from the recirculation system is combined within the _______.
A

mix manifold

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179
Q
  1. On the ground the APU can supply air for ________ for all operations.
A

two packs

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180
Q
  1. With the air conditioning PACK switches in AUTO and both packs are operating _________.
A

the packs provide normal air flow

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181
Q
  1. When one pack is operating _________ with the air conditioning PACK switches in AUTO.
A

the operating pack provides high air flow

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182
Q
  1. Anytime the pack valve closes on the B737 -700 the air mix valves are driven to the _______ position automatically.
A

full cold

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183
Q
  1. In the automatic temperature mode on the B737 -700 the ________ are operated by the automatic temperature controller.
A

air mix valves

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184
Q
  1. The automatic temperature controller is bypassed when the temperature selector is positioned to ________ on the B737-700
A

MANUAL

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185
Q
  1. The ram air system is used to provide cooling for what part of the air conditioning systems?
A

heat exchangers

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186
Q
  1. A DUCT OVERHEAT light causes the appropriate air mix valve to drive ___________ on a B737-700.
A

full cold

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187
Q
  1. When a PACK TRIP OFF light illuminates the pack valve ________ on the B737-700.
A

automatically closes and the mix valve drives full cold

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188
Q
  1. In a B737-800 _______ if an amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates?
A

the MASTER CAUTION light will illuminate and the trim air valve closes

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189
Q
  1. The recirculation fan system __________ the engine bleed air demand and air conditioning load.
A

reduces

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190
Q
  1. What does the TRIP RESET switch reset?
A

DUCT OVERHEAT on the B737-700 or the ZONE TEMP on the B737-800/BLEED TRIP OFF PACK TRIP OFF

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191
Q
  1. On the B737-800 what is indicated by the PACK light?
A

a pack trip off or failure of both primary and standby pack controls

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192
Q
  1. Cabin air outflow controlled by______.
A

the outflow valve and the overboard exhaust valve

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193
Q
  1. On the Cabin Pressurization Panel what does an illuminated amber AUTO FAIL light indicate?
A

automatic pressurization system failure is detected

194
Q
  1. Manually positioning the outflow valve to OPEN will cause cabin altitude to _________.
A

Climb

195
Q
  1. The main outflow valve is the overboard exhaust exit for the majority of the air circulated through the passenger cabin and is actuated by one of _____ DC motors and
A

three

196
Q
  1. On the cabin altitude panel the ________on the CABIN Altimeter (ATL) / Differential Pressure (DIFF PRESS) Indicator indicates the cabin altitude in feet.
A

inner scale

197
Q
  1. On the cabin altitude panel the _______ on the CABIN Altimeter (ATL) / Differential Pressure (DIFF PRESS) Indicator indicates the differential pressure between cabin and ambient in psi.
A

outer scale

198
Q
  1. The intermittent cabin altitude warning horn can be cut out ______.
A

By pushing the Altitude (ATL) HORN CUTOUT Switch

199
Q
  1. At _______ cabin altitude the intermittent cabin altitude warning will sound.
A

10000 feet

200
Q
  1. Cabin rate of climb displayed ______.
A

on the cabin rate of climb indicator

201
Q
  1. On the Cabin Pressurization Panel _______modes automatically pressurize the aircraft.
A

AUTO & ALTN

202
Q
  1. What position must Engine ignition be selected to prior to and during engine anti-ice operation?
A

CONT

203
Q
  1. Window heat must be ON how many minutes before takeoff?
A

10 minutes

204
Q
  1. When must probe heat be ON?
A

before takeoff

205
Q
  1. ________flight deck windows are not electrically heated.
A

L3 and R3

206
Q
  1. Temperature controllers maintain window heat at the correct temperature on which windows to ensure maximum strength of the windows in the event of bird impact?
A

L1 R1 L2 and R2

207
Q
  1. On the Window Heat Panel when an overheat condition is detected power is removed from the window the green ON light extinguishes and __________.
A

an amber OVERHEAT Light is illuminated

208
Q
  1. By placing the WINDOW HEAT Test Switch to OVHT _______________ is simulated.
A

an overheat condition

209
Q
  1. What happens when placing the WINDOW HEAT Test Switch to PWR TEST?
A

It provides a confidence test.

210
Q
  1. Engine bleed air thermal anti-icing prevents the formation of ice on which part of the engine?
A

engine cowl lip

211
Q
  1. Each cowl anti-ice valve is _______ actuated and ______ controlled.
A

pressure; electrically

212
Q
  1. ________________occurs when the ENG ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to ON.
A

The stick shaker and minimum maneuver speed bars on airspeed indications are adjusted. The airspeed indications return to normal when engine anti-ice is positioned OFF if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight./Engine bleed air is allowed to flow through the cowl anti-ice valve for cowl lip anti-icing and the stick shaker logic is set for icing conditions.

213
Q
  1. If the cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the position indicated by the ENG ANTI-ICE switch an amber TAI indication illuminates on the CDS after a short delay and the COWL VALVE OPEN light ________ .
A

remains illuminated bright blue

214
Q
  1. An amber illuminated COWL ANTI-ICE Light on the Engine Anti-Ice Panel indicates __________.
A

excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip

215
Q
  1. What does an amber TAI on the upper display unit above the N1 gauge indicate?
A

cowl anti-ice valve is not in position indicated by related engine anti-ice switch.

216
Q
  1. The wing anti-ice system excludes the _______ and the_________.
A

leading edge flaps; outboard leading edge slats

217
Q
  1. On the ground both of the wing anti-ice valves close if ___________ or either engine thrust is above the takeoff warning setting.
A

either temperature sensor senses a duct over temperature

218
Q
  1. What does a bright blue Wing Anti-Ice VALVE OPEN Light on the Wing Anti-Ice Panel indicate?
A

The related wing anti-ice control valve is in transit or related wing anti-ice control valve position disagrees with WING ANTI–ICE switch position.

219
Q
  1. An amber CAPT PITOT light on the Probe Heat Panel indicates ________.
A

the probe is not heated

220
Q
  1. The operation of the standby hydraulic system is _______ by a leak in hydraulic system B.
A
  1. not affected
221
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the PTU?
A

To supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the autoslats or the leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when system B engine-driven pump volume is lost

222
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the landing gear transfer unit?
A

To raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system A engine-driven pump volume is lost

223
Q
  1. The landing gear transfer unit operates when airborne ______________ and the No. 1 engine RPM drops below a limit value.
A

the landing gear is positioned up and either main landing gear is not up and locked

224
Q
  1. The standby system uses a single electric motor-driven pump and ____________________ .
A

can be activated manually or automatically

225
Q
  1. The standby hydraulic system powers the thrust reversers __________ and rudder.
A

leading edge flaps and slats (extend only) and the standby yaw damper

226
Q
  1. Automatic operation of the standby hydraulic pump is initiated when _______ and loss of hydraulic system A or B
A

flaps are extended; and airborne or wheel speed greater than 60 knots

227
Q
  1. Positioning either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD __________ closes the related flight control shutoff valve; deactivates the related flight control LOW PRESSURE light; allows the standby system to power the rudder and thrust reversers.
A

all answers are correct

228
Q
  1. Positioning the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM: __________ operates the trailing edge flap bypass valve allows the standby system to power the leading edge flaps and slats and thrust reversers and arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch.
A

activates the standby electric motor-driven pump

229
Q
  1. On the B737-800 ___________ when there is a leak in the standby hydraulic system.
A

The LOW QUANTITY light illuminates and the system B reservoir fluid decreases to approximately 72%

230
Q
  1. What is indicated by an amber illuminated Electric Hydraulic Pump OVERHEAT light?
A

the hydraulic fluid used to cool and lubricate the corresponding electric motor driven pump has overheated/the pump itself has overheated

231
Q
  1. The respective engine-driven hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE light is ________ when pulling the Engine 1 fire warning switch.
A

deactivated

232
Q
  1. An illuminated amber Flight Control LOW PRESSURE light indicates low hydraulic system A or B pressure to which flight controls?
A

ailerons and elevator/rudder

233
Q
  1. An illuminated amber standby hydraulic LOW QUANTITY light is ___________ and indicates low quantity in the standby hydraulic reservoir.
A

always armed

234
Q
  1. An illuminated amber standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light is __________ and indicates low output pressure.
A

armed only when the standby hydraulic pump operation has been selected or automatic standby pump operation is activated

235
Q
  1. When Positioning the ENG 1 hydraulic pump switch to OFF the pump_____ to rotate and fluid flow is isolated from the system component.
A

continues

236
Q
  1. After an engine fire warning switch is pulled the hydraulic fluid flow to the related engine-driven pump is shut off and ______________.
A

its LOW PRESSURE light is deactivated

237
Q
  1. _____ is the minimum fuel for ground operation of electric hydraulic pumps in the related main tank.
A

1675 lbs.

238
Q
  1. What happens if a leak develops in the A system hydraulic engine-driven pump or its related lines?
A

a standpipe in the reservoir prevents a total system fluid loss

239
Q
  1. What happens if a leak develops in the in the A system hydraulic electric motor-driven pump or its related lines?
A

the quantity in the reservoir steadily decreases to zero and all system pressure is lost

240
Q
  1. What happens if a leak develops in either pump line or component of system B?
A

the quantity in the reservoir steadily decreases to approximately zero and system B pressure is lost however the power transfer unit is still operational

241
Q
  1. The operation of the standby hydraulic system _______ by a leak in hydraulic system B.
A

Is not affected

242
Q
  1. Which system can power all flight controls with no decrease in aircraft controllability?
A

Either A or B hydraulic system

243
Q
  1. What is the maximum tire ground speed?
A

195 knots

244
Q
  1. The brake wear indicators should extend beyond the brake flange with the parking brake in what position?
A

set

245
Q
  1. Hydraulic power for retraction extension and nose wheel steering is normally supplied by which hydraulic system?
A

hydraulic system A

246
Q
  1. The alternate brake system is powered by _________ and the normal brakes system is powered by _______.
A

hydraulic system A; hydraulic system B

247
Q
  1. Antiskid protection is provided which brake system(s)?
A

on both brake system (normal and alternate)

248
Q
  1. The ____________ stop rotation of the main gear wheels during landing gear retraction.
A

brakes automatically

249
Q
  1. The nose wheels retract forward into the wheel well and nose wheel rotation is stopped by _________ during landing gear retraction.
A

snubbers

250
Q
  1. What happens Moving the LANDING GEAR lever to the OFF position?
A

hydraulic pressure from the landing gear system is removed

251
Q
  1. An illuminated red landing gear indicator light indicates the ____________ or the related landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever position (in transits or unsafe).
A

landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both forward thrust levers retarded to idle and below 800 feet AGL)

252
Q
  1. What does an extinguished green landing gear indicator light indicate?
A

landing gear is not down and locked

253
Q
  1. When the LANDING GEAR lever is moved to DN hydraulic system pressure is used to release the uplocks. How is the landing gear extended?
A

hydraulic pressure gravity and air loads

254
Q
  1. If _________ green landing gear indicator light(s) (center panel and/or overhead panel) for each gear is/are illuminated the landing gear is down and locked
A

At least one

255
Q
  1. The landing gear transfer unit allows hydraulic system B to supply the volume of hydraulic fluid required to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when airborne LANDING GEAR lever is positioned UP ___________ and either main landing gear is not up and locked.
A

No. 1 engine RPM drops below a limit value

256
Q
  1. What effect on landing gear retraction does opening the Manual Extension Access Door have?
A

disables it

257
Q
  1. With the landing gear lever ____________ manual landing gear extension is possible.
A

in any position

258
Q
  1. The 737 manual gear releases on the flight deck are used to_________ that allow the gear to_________ to the down and locked position.
A

release uplocks; free-fall

259
Q
  1. Nose wheel steering will be available _____________________.
A

when the nose gear is in the down position and compressed by the weight of the airplane

260
Q
  1. Pushing the rudder pedal down allows for nose wheel turning up to ______in both directions.
A

7 degrees

261
Q
  1. ________ allows the aircraft to push back or be towed without depressurizing hydraulic system A.
A

A lockout pin

262
Q
  1. Switching the Nose Wheel Steering Switch to ALT allows ____________ to provide power for nose wheel steering.
A

hydraulic system B

263
Q
  1. If the normal and alternate brake system pressure is lost trapped hydraulic pressure in the brake accumulator can still provide ____________ or a parking brake application.
A

several braking applications

264
Q
  1. Skid locked wheel touchdown and hydroplane protection will be available ____________.
A

with the normal and alternate braking system

265
Q
  1. The 737 parking brake can be set with _________.
A

A or B hydraulic system or the accumulator if A and B are not pressurized

266
Q
  1. What is the normal hydraulic brake pressure as indicated on the brake accumulator _________?
A

3000 psi

267
Q
  1. Placing the AUTO BRAKE Select Switch to 1 2 3 or MAX selects the desired ________for touchdown.
A

deceleration rate

268
Q
  1. With the AUTO BRAKE Select Switch in the RTO position maximum brake pressure is automatically applied when the thrust levers are retarded to idle at or above ____ knots.
A

90 knots

269
Q
  1. On a dry runway the maximum autobrake deceleration rate in the landing mode is _______ that produced by full pedal braking.
A

less than

270
Q
  1. After the autobraking has started decelerating any of the following pilot actions disarm the system immediately and will illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light:
A

moving speed brake lever to full forward or applying manual brakes/advancing the forward thrust lever(s) except during the first 3 seconds after touchdown

271
Q
  1. At radio altitudes less than _________do not deploy the speed brakes in flight.
A

1000 feet

272
Q
  1. Full power control to the ailerons is provided by _____________ hydraulic system.
A

Either

273
Q
  1. If you have a total hydraulic power failure rotation of the controls wheels _________ positions the ailerons.
A

mechanically

274
Q
  1. If you have a jammed spoiler system force applied to the _____ control wheel provides roll control from the ailerons.
A

Captains

275
Q
  1. If you have a jammed aileron system force applied to the _____ control wheel provides roll control from the spoilers.
A

First Officers

276
Q
  1. If the autopilot is engaged any ______ trim applied can result in an out of trim condition and an abrupt ________ movement when the autopilot is disconnected.
A

aileron; rolling

277
Q
  1. When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately ____ spoiler deflection is initiated and the flight spoilers rise on the wing with the up aileron and remain faired on the wing with the down aileron.
A

10 degrees

278
Q
  1. On the 737 __________ Aileron Trim Switch(es) repositions the aileron neutral control position.
A

Movement of both

279
Q
  1. Looking at the pitch control surfaces these consist of _______ powered elevators and an _______ powered stabilizer.
A

hydraulically; electrically

280
Q
  1. If you have a control column jam an override mechanism allows ___________.
A

the control columns to be physically separated

281
Q
  1. If the FEEL DIFF PRESS light Illuminates this indicates _______.
A

excessive differential hydraulic pressure is sensed in the elevator feel computer

282
Q
  1. On the 737 engagement and disengagement of the Mach Trim System is accomplished _____________.
A

automatically as a function of airspeed

283
Q
  1. What has occurred when the MACH TRIM FAIL light is illuminated only when the Master Caution Annunciator recall is activated?
A

a single channel failure of the mach trim system

284
Q
  1. The Elevator Feel Shift module increases hydraulic system A pressure to the elevator feel and centering unit during a stall. This increases the _________ force to approximately double the normal feel pressure.
A

forward control column

285
Q
  1. There are two modes on the main electric and autopilot stabilizer trim: high speed with flaps _________ and low speed with flaps _________.
A

extended; retracted

286
Q
  1. Actuating either pair of stabilizer trim switches ______________ if the autopilot is engaged.
A

automatically disengages the autopilot

287
Q
  1. With the stabilizer trim outside the takeoff trim range ___________ if takeoff is attempted.
A

An intermittent horn sounds

288
Q
  1. _______________ may be used to return the stabilizer to electrical trim units if manual trim is used to position the stabilizer beyond the electrical trim limits.
A

the stabilizer trim switches

289
Q
  1. The stabilizer trim main electric cutout switch and the stabilizer trim autopilot cutout switch are provided to allow the autopilot or main electrical trim inputs to be ____________________.
A

disconnected from the single stabilizer trim moto

290
Q
  1. When control column movement opposes the trim direction what will occur?
A

The control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches stop operation of the main electric and autopilot trim

291
Q
  1. Switching the STAB TRIM override switch to OVERRIDE ____________.
A

electric trim can be used regardless of control column position

292
Q
  1. The speed trim system (STS) is a speed stability augmentation system designed to improve the flight characteristics during any operation with a low gross weight aft center of gravity and high thrust when the autopilot _______ engaged.
A

is not

293
Q
  1. ___________ operates the rudder system.
A

Either hydraulic system

294
Q
  1. B737-800 the yaw damper uses the _____________.
A

hydraulic system B or standby hydraulic system pressure

295
Q
  1. Above approximately 135 knots there is a reduction in both hydraulic system A and B pressure. This function limits full rudder authority _____________.
A

in flight after takeoff and before landing

296
Q
  1. The rudder pedals permit limited nose gear steering up to ______ degrees each side of center for steering.
A

7

297
Q
  1. Which hydraulic system powers the ground spoilers?
A

A

298
Q
  1. When the SPEED BRAKE lever is actuated all of the spoilers will__________.
A

extend on the ground and only the flight spoilers extend when the aircraft is in the air

299
Q
  1. If you use the flight spoilers during a turn ___________.
A

greatly increase the roll rate

300
Q
  1. All flight and ground spoilers will automatically rise to the full extension on landing if the speed brake lever is in the ARMED position and __________.
A

both thrust levers are at IDLE

301
Q
  1. An illuminated SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicates ___________.
A

an abnormal condition or during landing the wheel speed has dropped below 60kts and the speed brake lever is not in the down position

302
Q
  1. The speedbrake lever _______ position in the 737 indicates all flight spoilers are extended to their maximum position for inflight use while the ________ indicates all flight and ground spoilers are extended to their maximum position for use on the ground.
A

FLIGHT DETENT; UP

303
Q
  1. In the event of a total hydraulic system B failure the trailing edge flaps ___________.
A

can be operated electrically

304
Q
  1. ____________ is provided through the electrical alternate flap drive system.
A

No asymmetry or skew protection

305
Q
  1. The Flaps/Slats Electronic Unit (FSEU) monitors trailing edge flaps for _______________. If the Flaps/Slats Electronic Unit (FSEU) detects a trailing edge problem it_______ the trailing edge flap bypass valve preventing further travel.
A

asymmetry and skew conditions; closes

306
Q
  1. The TE flap load relief function protects the flaps from excessive air loads. When the flaps are set to 40 the trailing edge flaps will _______ if airspeed exceeds a predetermined limit.
A

retract to 30

307
Q
  1. Why are there mechanical Flap Gates positioned at the flaps 1 and flaps 15 detent?
A

for single engine and normal go-around

308
Q
  1. Where would a TE flaps asymmetry error or skew indication issue be seen?
A

The Flap Position Indicator

309
Q
  1. The 737 Leading edge devices are normally extended and retracted by ___________.
A

hydraulic power from system B

310
Q
  1. The 737 Leading edge devices _______ be retracted by the standby hydraulic system.
A

cannot

311
Q
  1. At flaps 1 the Auto Slat system _____________ as the aircraft approaches a stall condition.
A

automatically drives the slats to FULL EXTEND

312
Q
  1. An amber illuminated Leading Edge Devices Transit (LE FLAP TRANSIT) Light indicates _________.
A

a LE slat skew condition exists/any LE device is in transit or is not in its programmed position with respect to the trailing edge flaps

313
Q
  1. The maximum allowed random lateral fuel imbalance between tanks 1 and 2 is_____
A

1000 lbs.

314
Q
  1. Normally the fuel crossfeed valve is in what position?
A

closed

315
Q
  1. While on the ground center tank fuel pump switches must not be positioned ON unless the center tank fuel quantity exceeds ________ pounds.
A

1000

316
Q
  1. You must not position the center tank fuel pump switches to ON unless __________.
A

personnel are available on the flight deck to monitor low-pressurelights

317
Q
  1. To ensure center tank fuel is used first the center tank pumps produce _______ pressure than the main tank pumps.
A

higher

318
Q
  1. In the event normal electrical fuel pump operation is not available the engine driven fuel pumps _________________
A

will provide suction feed

319
Q
  1. ________________ closes whenever their respective engine fire warning switch is pulled or engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF.
A

Both the spar fuel shutoff valve and the engine fuel shutoff valve

320
Q
  1. Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the ______ fuel manifold when AC fuel pumps are operating.
A

LEFT

321
Q
  1. When the ENGINE VALVE CLOSED light is extinguished this indicates the related valve is ___________.
A

OPEN

322
Q
  1. You know the spar valve is closed with an illuminated (blue) _________ SPAR VALVE CLOSED light.
A

dim

323
Q
  1. An illuminated bright blue crossfeed VALVE OPEN light is indicating ____________.
A

the crossfeed valve is in transit/the crossfeed valves position and CROSSFEED selector disagree

324
Q
  1. An amber illuminated FILTER BYPASS light is indicating ____________.
A

an impending fuel filter bypass

325
Q
  1. The quantity indication on the fuel system calculates _________ fuel quantity in each tank.
A

the useable

326
Q
  1. An amber illuminated Fuel (LOW) indication will display when __________.
A

the fuel quantity is less than 2000 lbs. in the related main tank

327
Q
  1. An amber displayed fuel configuration (CONFIG) alert is indicating ____________.
A

either engine running and both center fuel pump switches are positioned OFF and center fuel tank quantity is greater than 1600 lbs

328
Q
  1. An amber illuminated Fuel Imbalance (IMBAL) Indication is displayed when main tanks differ by more than ____________ and will be displayed until imbalance is reduced to _______.
A

1000 lbs; 200 lbs

329
Q
  1. While the Autopilot is engaged the use of Aileron Trim is _______.
A

prohibited

330
Q
  1. The AFDS (Autopilot Flight Director System ) is a dual system consisting of _____individual FCCs ( flight control computers ) and a single mode control panel.
A

two

331
Q
  1. All AFDS (Autopilot Flight Director System) modes can be disengaged when you select another command mode or _______________.
A

by disengaging the A/P and turning the F/Ds off

332
Q
  1. Unless ________ Autopilot engagement in CMD or CWS is inhibited.
A

No force is being applied to the control wheel./The STAB TRIM AUTOPILOT cutout switch is at NORMAL

333
Q
  1. When you are in a single A/P operation full automatic flare and touchdown capability and A/P go-around capability are ______.
A

not available

334
Q
  1. What steering command allows both of the A/Ps to be engaged at the same time?
A

the Approach mode

335
Q
  1. The A/P automatically disengages when __________:
A

Activating either pilots control wheel trim switch or loss of respective hydraulic system pressure/Pushing either A/P disengage switch or pushing either Takeoff / Go-around (TO/GA) switch with a single A/P engaged in CWS or CMD below 2000 feet RA

336
Q
  1. On the 737 the F/Ds can be operated __________.
A

with or without the A/P and A/T

337
Q
  1. How do you know which FCC is the master?
A

by illumination of the respective master (MA) F/D indicator light

338
Q
  1. What following indications are displayed in the A/P status display located above the attitude indicator?
A

CMD FD 1 CH/CWS P CWS R

339
Q
  1. What does CMD indicate in the autopilot status display of the AFDS?
A

one or both autopilots are engaged

340
Q
  1. What does CWS P indicate in the autopilot status display of the AFDS?
A

pitch mode engaged in CWS

341
Q
  1. What does CWS R indicate in the autopilot status display of the AFDS?
A

roll mode engaged in CWS

342
Q
  1. What does SINGLE CH indicate in the autopilot status display of the AFDS?
A

for a single A/P ILS approach annunciates after localizer capture and remains on for entire approach

343
Q
  1. What does N1 indicate on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode?
A

The autothrottle maintains thrust at the selected N1 limit displayed on the thrust mode display including full go-around N1 setting.

344
Q
  1. What does GA indicate on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode?
A

The autothrottle maintains thrust at reduced go-around setting.

345
Q
  1. What does FMC SPD indicate on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode?
A

The autothrottle maintains speed commanded by the FMC. The autothrottle is limited to the N1 value shown on the thrust mode display.

346
Q
  1. What does MCP SPD indicate on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode?
A

The autothrottle maintains speed set in the MCP IAS/MACH display. The autothrottle is limited to the N1 value shown on the thrust mode display.

347
Q
  1. What does THR HLD indicate on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode?
A

The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited; the pilot can set the thrust levers manually.

348
Q
  1. To engage a TO/GA mode for takeoff ______________ and you have to press either TO/GA switch
A

both FD switches must be ON

349
Q
  1. To engage a TO/GA mode for go-around press either TO/GA switch when _______
A

Inflight below 2000 feet radio altitude/not in takeoff mode and either F/D switch ON or OFF

350
Q
  1. While you are in the pitch mode VNAV SPD commands _______
A

the AFDS to maintain the FMC speed displayed on the airspeed indicator and/or the CDU CLIMB or DESCENT pages

351
Q
  1. In the pitch mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation VNAV PTH commands _______.
A

the AFDS to maintain FMC altitude or descent path with pitch commands

352
Q
  1. In the pitch mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation V/S (engaged) commands _______.
A

pitch to hold selected vertical speed

353
Q
  1. In the pitch mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation ALT ACQ commands _______.
A

a transition maneuver entered automatically from a V/S LVL CHG or VNAV climb or descent to the selected MCP altitude.

354
Q
  1. In the pitch mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation ALT HOLD commands _______.
A

pitch to hold MCP selected altitude or uncorrected barometric altitude at which ALT HOLD switch was pushed

355
Q
  1. In the pitch mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation MCP SPD commands _______.
A

the AFDS to maintain the IAS/MACH window airspeed or Mach

356
Q
  1. In the pitch mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation G/S (engaged) commands _______.
A

the AFDS to follow the ILS glideslope

357
Q
  1. In the pitch mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation FLARE (engaged) commands _______.
A

During a dual A/P ILS approach flare engages at 50 feet radio altitude. FLARE accomplishes the autoland flare maneuver.

358
Q
  1. In the roll mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation LNAV commands _______.
A

the AFDS to intercept and track the active FMC route

359
Q
  1. In the roll mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation HDG SEL commands _______.
A

the aircraft to turn to or remain on the heading selected in the MCP Heading Display

360
Q
  1. Looking at the Mode Control Panel Speed mode engages automatically when:
A

ALT ACQ engages or ALT HOLD engages/V/S engages or G/S capture occurs

361
Q
  1. If you push the Speed Intervention (SPD INTV) Switch on the Mode Control Panel when VNAV is engaged this __________________.
A

reveals the IAS/MACH display activates FMC speed intervention displays the FMC target speed and allows the IAS/MACH selector to be used to set the desired speed

362
Q
  1. If you engage VNAV the FMC command the AFDS pitch and ______________ to fly vertical profile selected on the ____________.
A

autothrottle; FMC CDUs

363
Q
  1. While you are in a VNAV SPD descent the autothrottle holds ______ and the AFDS _________.
A

idle; holds FMC target speed

364
Q
  1. While you are in a VNAV PTH descent the autothrottle holds ______ and the AFDS _________.
A

idle but can command FMC SPD mode if ground speed becomes too low to maintain FMC vertical path; tracks FMC descent path

365
Q
  1. If you push the Level Change (LVL CHG) switch in a climb this commands the autothrottles to hold ______ thrust and the AFDS to hold selected airspeed.
A

limit

366
Q
  1. If you push the Level Change (LVL CHG) switch in a descent this commands the autothrottles to hold ______ thrust and the AFDS to hold selected airspeed.
A

idle

367
Q
  1. While in you are in Altitude Hold if the Altitude Selector on the Mode Control Panel is rotated in any direction the ______ mode is armed.
A

V/S

368
Q
  1. When you are actively descending or climbing with VNAV engaged if the ALT INTV switch is pushed the next altitude restriction in the FMC will be _________.
A

eliminated

369
Q
  1. Pushing the LNAV Switch commands the AFDS roll to intercept and track the active _______ on the Mode Control Panel.
A

FMC route

370
Q
  1. Initially pushing the HDG SEL (Heading Select) switch commands a turn in the shortest direction towards the heading bug.
A

TRUE

371
Q
  1. Pushing the Approach (APP) Switch arms the AFDS for what?
A

localizer and glideslope capture

372
Q
  1. In the roll mode VOR/LOC (engaged) commands _______.
A

AFDS to track selected VOR course or track selected localizer course along the inbound front course bearing

373
Q
  1. For a successful dual autopilot approach tune the second VHF NAV receiver to the ILS frequency and engage the second A/P in CMD prior to _______.
A

800 feet RA

374
Q
  1. Without FLARE armed by approximately 350 feet RA _______________.
A

both A/Ps automatically disengage

375
Q
  1. A single channel autopilot approach _________.
A

does not provide an A/P go-around

376
Q
  1. During an autopilot go-around the first push of either TO/GA switch commands the thrust to advance towards the reduced go-around N1 to producing 1000 to 2000 fpm rate of climb. The second push of either TO/GA switch after A/T reaches reduced goaround thrust ______________.
A

commands the A/T to advance to the full go-around N1 limit

377
Q
  1. AFS provides speed pitch and thrust commands that will prevent exceeding the following limit speeds:
A

Vmo/Mmo wing flap placards landing gear placard and minimum speed

378
Q
  1. A flashing A in the IAS/MACH Display represents _______.
A

an underspeed

379
Q
  1. Pushing the N1 switch with the N1 light illuminated on the Mode Control Panel _______.
A

Deselects N1 mode and extinguishes switch light

380
Q
  1. If the Autopilot Disengage (DISENGAGE) bar is pulled down it _______.
A

disengages both A/Ps

381
Q
  1. The Stabilizer Out Of Trim (STAB OUT OF TRIM) light operates ________.
A

only with the autopilot engaged

382
Q
  1. An annunciation of - - - on the Thrust Mode Display would indicate ________.
A

the FMC is not computing thrust limit

383
Q
  1. An illuminated Autothrottle Limit (A/T LIM) Indication indicates:
A

The A/T is using a degraded N1 thrust limit from the related EEC.

384
Q
  1. CDUs and autothrottles are controlled by the _____ FMC with the FMC Source Select Switch in the NORMAL position.
A

left

385
Q
  1. Placing the FMC Source Select Switch to BOTH ON R selects the______ for all FMC operations. The ______ map will annunciate _______.
A

right FMC; Left; FMC R

386
Q
  1. Do not engage autopilot below _____ on takeoff or missed approach:
A

400 feet AGL

387
Q
  1. The ______ key on the CDU displays the page to input or change origin destination or route.
A

RTE

388
Q
  1. The ______ key on the CDU displays the page to input or change departure and arrival procedures.
A

DEP ARR

389
Q
  1. The ______ key on the CDU displays the page to evaluate or modify lateral and vertical route data.
A

LEGS

390
Q
  1. The ______ key on the CDU displays the page to view dynamic flight and navigation data including waypoint and destination ETAs fuel remaining and arrival estimates.
A

PROG

391
Q
  1. The ______ key on the CDU confirms data modification(s) to active status and extinguishes the light.
A

EXEC

392
Q
  1. When active data is modified but not executed the ________ is illuminated white.
A

execute light

393
Q
  1. The aircrafts sole source of attitude and heading information are the ______ except for the standby attitude indicator and standby magnetic compass.
A

IRSs

394
Q
  1. The IRS has begun the alignment process when the ______ light extinguishes and the ______ light illuminates.
A

ON DC; ALIGN

395
Q
  1. The navigation mode (including present position and ground speed outputs) is ________________ if IRS alignment is lost in flight.
A

inoperative for the remainder of the flight

396
Q
  1. Backup power to the _____ IRS is automatically terminated if ___ power is not restored within 5 minutes.
A

right; AC

397
Q
  1. Selecting the TK/GS position of the display selector on the IRS Display Unit displays present true track course in the left window and ___________ in the right window.
A

present ground speed

398
Q
  1. The aircraft must be ________ when placing the IRS mode selector to ALIGN for initial alignment.
A

stationary

399
Q
  1. After selecting the IRS mode selector to _________ the IRS provides attitude and heading only.
A

ATT

400
Q
  1. If an ALIGN Light on the Aft Overhead Panel flashes it indicates that alignment cannot be completed due to IRS detection of __________.
A

a significant difference between previous and entered positions or an unreasonable present position entry/no present position being entered

401
Q
  1. When the _______ light illuminates a system fault affecting the related IRS ATT and/or NAV modes has been detected.
A

FAULT

402
Q
  1. When the _______ light illuminates the DC power for the respective IRS is not normal.
A

DC FAIL

403
Q
  1. An amber illuminated GPS light indicates ______________.
A

failure of both GPS sensor units

404
Q
  1. A displayed magenta color on the radar indicates ___________ .
A

heavy turbulence

405
Q
  1. A displayed red color on the radar indicates ___________ .
A

strong returns areas of heaviest rainfall

406
Q
  1. A displayed yellow color on the radar indicates ___________ .
A

medium returns moderate rainfall

407
Q
  1. A displayed green color on the radar indicates ___________ .
A

light returns light rainfall

408
Q
  1. If you push the WX/T (turbulence) switch on the weather radar this display __________.
A

weather radar returns and turbulence

409
Q
  1. If you push the TEST switch on the weather radar __________.
A

tests weather radar system operation without transmitting/if on the ground with and the thrusts levers are not advanced for takeoff tests the predictive windshear system

410
Q
  1. The Minimum Maneuver Speed (amber) bar on the PFD Airspeed Indicator is inhibited on takeoff until _______________.
A

first flap retraction

411
Q
  1. The top of the Minimum Speed (red and black) bar on the PFD Airspeed Indicator is the speed at which _______________.
A

stick shaker occurs

412
Q
  1. The bottom of the Maximum Maneuvering Speed (amber) bar indicates shortly after takeoff when flaps are not up: _______________.
A

flap limit placard speed for the next normal flap setting

413
Q
  1. How is altitude acquisition alerting displayed on the PFD?
A

900 feet prior to reaching MCP altitude a white box shows around the selected altitude display and a momentary tone sounds

414
Q
  1. The Current Altitude box on the PFD highlights in amber and flashes to indicate__________
A

an altitude deviation

415
Q
  1. The Bank Pointer on the PFD Attitude Indicator indicates bank angle. The indicator fills and turns amber when the bank angle is ____ degrees or greater.
A

35

416
Q
  1. Attitude altitude and airspeed data is provided by the ___________ which track data to the FMC as well as to the displays.
A

ADIRUs

417
Q
  1. Critical information remains available to the pilots at all times if a _____________ fails by automatic display switching.
A

DU

418
Q
  1. The green Speed Trend Vector on the PFD Airspeed Indicator shows predicted airspeed in the next ______ seconds.
A

10

419
Q
  1. The bottom of the red and black Maximum Speed bar on the PFD Airspeed Indicator indicates the maximum speed as limited by __________.
A

VMO/MMO/Landing Gear or Flap placard speed

420
Q
  1. To resolve the traffic conflict during a TCAS RA the areas inside the red lines indicate the pitch region(s) to _________ .
A

avoid

421
Q
  1. An amber ALT DISAGREE alert is displayed if the Captains and First Officers altimeters on the PFD Altimeter Indicator disagree by more than ______ feet for more than 5 seconds
A

200

422
Q
  1. Airspeed and altitude on the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) are computed from the pneumatic pressure data provided by direct connections to the ___________.
A

auxiliary pitot and alternate static ports

423
Q
  1. Heading information on the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) is provided from _______________.
A

the #1 ADIRU

424
Q
  1. Placing the Mode Selector to APP or VOR on the EFIS control Panel displays information in a __________ format.
A

heading-up

425
Q
  1. Placing the Mode Selector to MAP on the EFIS control Panel displays information in a __________ format.
A

track-up

426
Q
  1. Pushing the ____ button on the EFIS control Panel would allow for the display of estimated time of arrival for each active route waypoint.
A

DATA

427
Q
  1. Pushing the ____ button on the EFIS control Panel would allow for the display of IRS positions GPS positions and VOR bearing vectors extended from the nose of the aircraft symbol to the stations.
A

POS

428
Q
  1. The approach reference located above the PFD turns amber when _____________.
A

the ILS tuned frequencies disagree/the approach courses in the MCP disagree

429
Q
  1. When the aircraft descends below selected minimum altitude the green BARO Minimums Pointer on the PFD _____________.
A

turns amber

430
Q
  1. The Landing Altitude Reference Bar indicates amber on PFD Landing Altitude/Minimums Indications when height above touchdown is __________.
A

0 to 500 feet above landing altitude

431
Q
  1. The rising runway on the PFD is displayed when the localizer signal is usable and ____________.
A

the radio altitude is less than 2500 feet

432
Q
  1. Two ________receive data from sensors and aircraft systems and supply data to the DUs.
A

Display Electronic Units (DEUs)

433
Q
  1. Weather radar returns are limited to ___________when the weather radar is selected to the 640 nm range.
A

320 nm

434
Q
  1. The flight recorder begins operating on the ground _________________________.
A

when either engine is operating

435
Q
  1. If the flight recorder test switch is moved from NORMAL (guarded position) to TEST it____________________.
A

powers the flight recorder on the ground

436
Q
  1. Frequencies are monitored by SELCAL from _________.
A

VHF radios/HF radios

437
Q
  1. The Selective Calling (SELCAL) Panel illuminates alerting crew to incoming communication________.
A

on indicated radio

438
Q
  1. ________ independent channels on the voice recorder are used to record flight deck audio.
A

Four

439
Q
  1. When ACARS is operational on the B737-800 do not use _____ for ATC communication.
A

VHF-3

440
Q
  1. The GPWS and windshear audio warnings for altitude alert are heard through _________. They ________ be controlled or turned off by the crew.
A

the speakers and headsets; cannot

441
Q
  1. The audio system_____________ if the remote electronic unit or audio control panel malfunctions.
A

reverts to degraded mode

442
Q
  1. Crewmembers can ______________________ if the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is operating in the degraded mode.
A

only communicate on one radio (CA #1/FO #2) and the passenger address system cannot be accessed through the Audio Control Panel (ACP)

443
Q
  1. The Captain can use radio __________ for transmission and reception while the First Officer uses radio __________ if the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is operating in the degraded mode.
A

VHF-1; VHF-2

444
Q
  1. Pushing a ____________ selects the related communication system for transmission and for reception regardless of whether the related receiver switch is on.
A

Transmitter Selector (MIC SELECTOR) Switch

445
Q
  1. Pushing a Receiver Switch allows reception of related communication system or navigation receivers. __________ may be selected at a time.
A

Multiple switches

446
Q
  1. Pushing the Push-To-Talk Switch on the ACP to R/T (Radio-Transmit) keys the oxygen mask or boom microphone for ____________ transmitter selector.
A

transmission as selected by

447
Q
  1. Pushing the Push-To-Talk Switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) to I/C (Intercom) keys the oxygen mask or boom microphone for ____________ and bypasses the transmitter selector.
A

transmission over the flight interphone

448
Q
  1. Selecting the MASK position on the MASK-BOOM Switch selects ____________
A

the oxygen mask microphone for transmission

449
Q
  1. Selecting the BOOM position on the MASK-BOOM Switch selects____________
A

the boom microphone for transmission

450
Q
  1. To ________________ push and rotate the Speaker (SPKR) switch to allow audio from the selected receiver to be heard on overhead speaker.
A

adjust overhead speaker volume

451
Q
  1. The V on the Filter Switch on the Audio Control Panel is for _______.
A

receiving NAV voice audio

452
Q
  1. The B on the Filter Switch on the Audio Control Panel is for _______.
A

receiving both NAV voice and range audio

453
Q
  1. The R on the Filter Switch on the Audio Control Panel is for _______.
A

receiving NAV range (code) audio

454
Q
  1. Private communication between ____________ is the primary purpose of the flight interphone system.
A

flight deck crew members without intrusion from the service interphone

455
Q
  1. Intercommunication between the flight deck flight attendants and ground personnel is accomplished by selecting the _______________
A

service interphone system

456
Q
  1. Selecting the service interphone switch allows ______________.
A

maintenance or service personnel to be added to the service interphone system

457
Q
  1. When the ____________ uses the passenger address (PA) system their announcements have first priority and override all other users.
A

flight deck

458
Q
  1. When the Flight Deck CALL Light illuminates blue this indicates the flight deck is being call by the __________________.
A

all answers are correct

459
Q
  1. What happens when you Press the Ground (GRD) CALL Switch __________________.
A

sounds a horn in the nose wheel until released

460
Q
  1. Pushing down on Push-To-Talk Switch on the pilot control yoke to INT (Interphone) keys the oxygen mask or boom microphone for ____________.
A

direct transmission over the flight interphone

461
Q
  1. The white Offside Tuning Light located at the top of the Radio Tuning Panel indicates what?
A

It indicates that radio tuning panel is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with the radio tuning panel

462
Q
  1. Weak VHF signal reception can be improved by pressing the ____________?
A

Communication (VHF) Test (TEST) Switch

463
Q
  1. INOP displayed in the frequency window on the Radio Tuning Panel indicates _________.
A

the selected radio is not available

464
Q
  1. The B737-800 HF communication system has _____ HF systems. Each system has _________ HF antenna.
A

two; a common or shared

465
Q
  1. HF communication system operation in the transmit mode while fueling the aircraft is _____________
A

not permissible

466
Q
  1. The TEST Switch on the Voice Recorder Panel activates a green light (or raises the indicator into the green band) when pushed and ___________.
A

sounds a tone through the HEADSET jack located on the Voice Recorder Panel

467
Q
  1. The (ATTEND) CALL Switch __________________ when selected.
A

sounds a two-tone chime and illuminates a pink Master Call Light in the Cabin

468
Q
  1. What is the maximum operating pressure altitude for the B737?
A

41000 feet

469
Q
  1. What is the maximum takeoff/landing tailwind component for the B737?
A

15 knots

470
Q
  1. Icing conditions exist in flight when
A

visible moisture in any form is present (i.e. clouds fog with visibility of 1 mile or less rain snow sleet or ice crystals) and Total air temperature of 10°C or below

471
Q
  1. On takeoff or missed approach do not engage the autopilot below
A

400 feet AGL

472
Q
  1. The minimum altitude for use of the autopilot on a non-precision approach is
A

50 feet below MDA/DA

473
Q
  1. The minimum altitude for use of the autopilot on an ILS approach is
A

50 feet AGL

474
Q
  1. Max flap extension altitude is
A

20000 feet

475
Q
  1. Identify the recommended severe turbulence penetration speed
A

CRUISE TURB N1 setting from cruise page

476
Q
  1. Identify the recommended severe turbulence penetration speed CLIMB and DESCENT
A

280 knots / .76 Mach

477
Q
  1. What is the RECOMMENDED CROSSWIND COMPONENT for the following conditions/parameters: Runway Condition Code: 5 Surface Condtion:1/8 inch WATER TAKEOFF Crosswind Component (Blended winglets/Spilt Scimitar Winglet)
A

25/25

478
Q
  1. What is the RECOMMENDED CROSSWIND COMPONENT for the following conditions/parameters: Runway Condition Code: 6 Surface Condition: DRY TAKEOFF Crosswind Component (Blended winglets/Split Scimitar Winglet)
A

34/33

479
Q
  1. What is the RECOMMENDED CROSSWIND COMPONENT for the following conditions/parameters: Runway Condition Code: 6 Surface Condition: DRY LANDING Crosswind Component (Blended Winglet/Spit Scimitar Winglet
A

40/37

480
Q
  1. Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below _______.
A

1000 feet AFE

United 737 (3 decks)

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