Survey of Bacteriology - Kozel Flashcards
1
Q
Strep pyogenes is (blank) hemolytic?
A
beta
2
Q
Is strep pyogenes gram pos or neg?
A
gram pos
3
Q
strep pyogenes has group specific CHO (blank) and type specific protein (blank)
A
Group A , protein M
4
Q
What bacteria is catalase negative, bacitracin sensitive, and has Group A Ag
A
strep pyogenes
5
Q
Suppurative infections such as pharyngitis, cellulitis, scarlet fever, pyoderma, erysipelas, TSS, necrotizing fascitis are caused by
A
strep pyogenes
6
Q
Non suppurative infections such as rheumatic heart disease and acute glomerulonephritis are caused by what ?
A
strep pyogenes
7
Q
Strep agalactiae is (blank) hemolytic
A
beta hemolytic
8
Q
What group is Strep agalactiae
A
group B
9
Q
what strep has a type specific antiphagocytic capsular polysaccharide?
A
strep agalactiae, strep pneumoniae
10
Q
What bacteria is catalase negative, CAMP positive, and has group B antigen?`
A
s. agalactiae
11
Q
What is the major cause of meningitis in the newborn>?
A
s. agalactiae
12
Q
Early onset and late onset neonatal disease, along with disseminated infections in adults is caused by what organism?
A
s. agalactiae
13
Q
Viridan streptococci is (blank) hemolytic
A
ALPHA BITCHES
14
Q
What bacteria lacks a Lancefield CHO ag?
A
V. streptococci
15
Q
What bacteria is catalase negative, optochin resistant, and may appear at first glance to be a-hemolytic S. pneumoniae?
A
V. streptococci
16
Q
S. mitis, S. mutans, S. salivaris are all species of?
A
V. streptococci
17
Q
What are the common disease caused by V. streptococci?
A
Endocardiditis
Bacteremia in neutropenic patients
Dental Caries
18
Q
Which organism is LANCET shaped, gram positive, paired cocci, and a-hemolytic?
A
S. pneumoniae
19
Q
Which is bile soluble, V. streptococci or S. pneumoniae?
A
S. pneumoniae
20
Q
Pneumonia Meningitis Bacteremia Sinusitis and otitis media Sickle cell disease is risk factor
These are all disease caused by what organism?
A
S. pneumoniae
21
Q
Sickle cell disease is a risk factor for what infection type?
A
S. pneumoniae
22
Q
What does an S. pneumoniae vaccine contain?
A
capsular polysaccharide or CPS-protein conjugate
23
Q
What bacteria often causes pyoderma?
A
GAS
24
Q
What group is the CHO cell wall in enterococci?
A
group D
25
What are the two most important species of enterococci?
E. faecalis and E. faecium
26
T/F: enterococci are highly resistant to abx, including vancomycin
TREU
27
What does enterococci cause?
UTI, intra-abdominal wound infection, bacteremia and endocarditis
28
What organism is catalase positive, COAGULASE POS, and has protein A?
staph aureus
29
What are the virulence factors of staph aureus?
adhesive and antiphagocytic factors, toxins, and enzymes
30
What is the altered protein and gene in MRSA?
PBP (PBP2') encoded by mecA gene
31
Impetigo, endocarditis, folliculitis, osteomyelitis, furuncles/boils, septic arthritis, carbuncles, pneumonia and empyema, bacteremia and brain abcesses are all (blank) infections caused by (blank)
suppurative by staph aureus
32
What are the toxin-mediated diseases caused by s. aureus?
food poisoning, toxic shock, and scalded skin sydrome
33
Is coagulase-negative staph catalase pos/neg?
catalase pos
34
T/F: coagulase neg staph can form a biofilm
true
35
what is the primary species of coag-neg staph?
S. epidermidis
36
What is S. saprophyticus
UTI in young, sexually active women
37
Endocarditis, catheter and shunt infections, and UTIs are causecd by what?
coag-neg. staph
38
which neiserria can you diagnose via PCR?
N. gonorrhoeae
39
The neisserias are classifed how?
Gram negative cocci
40
Ceftriaxone is used to treat what infection?
N. gonorrhoeae
41
Gonorrhea/ VD, including spreading to skin or joints, and Ophthalmia neonatorum are caused by?
N. gonorrhoeae
42
Which neisseria has a Antiphagocytic Group-specific capsular polysaccharide?
Neisseria meningitidis
43
Which neisseria produces LPS endotoxin?
n. meningitidis
44
What would a vaccine for N. meningitidis contain?
capsular polysacc or CPS-protein conjugate
45
Meningitis in young adults, meningooccemia are caused by?
N. meningitidis
46
A disseminated infection with both petehcia and purpura is what disease and caused by what?
meningococemia cuased by N. meningitidis
47
Pts with COMPLEMENT DEFICIENCIES often get what bacteria?
NEISSERIA MENINGITIDIS mofo's
48
What family of bacteria are spore forming rods?
Bacillus
49
B. anthracis contains a poly-(blank) polypeptide that is antiphagocytic
poly-glutamic
50
What are the three toxins of B anthracis?
PA, EF, and LF: protective ag, edema factor and lethal factor
51
What is the Tx for b anthracis?
ciproflaxin
52
A black eschar formation is associated with what form of anthrax?
cutaneous
53
Ulcers at the site of invasion are associated with what type of anthrax?
GI anthrax
54
Non-specific signs followed by sepsis is what form of anthrax?
inhalational
55
T/F: Bacillus cereus is only found in the soil of east-asian countries
FALSE; found world wide
56
B. cereus codes for how many enterotoxins?
2
57
vomiting and diarrheal forms of food poisoning, ocular infections post penetrating traumatic injury and severe pulmonary disease that looks like anthrax in IMMUNOCOMPETENT patients can all be caused by:
B. cereus
58
Which bacteria is a motile gram positive coccobaccilli?
listeria monocytogenes
59
Listeria is a facultative (blank) pathogen
intracellular
60
What is the treatment for listerai?
penicillin alone or with gentamycin
61
How is listeria spread?
contaminated food or transplacentally
62
Besides S. agalactiae, what other organism can cause early onset and late onset neonatal disease?
listeria
63
What does listeria cause in healthy adults?
either asymptomatic or have flu like symptoms
64
when are pregnant women normally infected with listeria>?
third trimester
65
If listeria infects in utero, what does it cause? If it infects shortly after birth?
in utero=early onset neonatal disease, other is late onset
66
What pleomorphic gram pos rods in filaments is zoonotic and colonizes swine, turkey, and fish?
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
67
what is the Tx for E. rhusiopathiae?
penicillin
68
What is erysipeloid?
painful, puritic inflammatory skin infection at a site of trauma
69
T/F: E. rhusiopathiae can present as a diffuse cutaneous diseasE
true
70
What is an uncommon but potential complication of E. rhusio?
septicemia leading to endocarditis
71
Diphtheria produces (blank) toxin which inactivates (blank)
AB toxin, EF-2
72
what special media is needed to grow C. diphtheriae
cysteine-tellurite agar
73
What is in the diphtheria vaccine?
diphtheria toxoid
74
what are the two types of diptheria?
respiratory and cutaneous
75
In respiratory diphtheria, exudative pharyngitis evolves to form a (blank) over the tonsils, nasal cavity, and pharynx
pseudomembrane
76
AB toxin from diphtheria effects what two organs?
heart and brain; myocarditis and neurotoxicity
77
Following contact with a person with diptheria, cutaneous diphtheria will present as:
chronic, non-healing ulcer
78
T/F: E. coli is part of the normal flora of the GI tract
true
79
Is E. coli gram neg or pos?
gram neg
80
can E. coli ferment?
yes
81
what is the most common cause of UTI?
e. coli
82
What does E. coli cause?
Gastroenteritis, UTI, neonatal meningitis, and septicemia
83
What exotoxin does the common E. coli produce?
a-hemolysin
84
What are the exotoxins, pathogenic lesions, and disease of UPEC?
a-hemolysin, iflammatory lesions, and UTI
85
What are the exotoxins, pathogenic lesions, and disease of ETEC?
toxin: LT-labile toxin and ST- stable toxin
hypersecretion lesions
causes watery diarrhea
86
What are the exotoxins, pathogenic lesions, and disease of EPEC?
NO TOXINS, attaches to effaces the small intestine, causes watery diarrhea
87
What are the exotoxins, pathogenic lesions, and disease of EIEC?
NO TOXINS, invades and causes inflammation and ulcers, causes DYSENTERY
88
What are the exotoxins, pathogenic lesions, and disease of EHEC 0157:H7?
Shiga toxin, attaches and effaces the COLON, causes hemorrhagic lesions, causes bloody diarrhea and HEMOLYTIC UREMIC SYNDROME
89
What are the exotoxins, pathogenic lesions, and disease of EAEC?
Shiga toxin, adherent BIOFILM LESIONS, and causes watery or bloody diarrhea and HEMOLYTIC UREMIC SYNDROME
90
Can salmonella ferment?
no
91
What is the most common infection of contaminated food?
salmonella--particularly poultry or eggs
92
How many O serotypes of salmonella are there?
>2500
93
Serovars Typhi and Paratyphi are highly adapted strains of (blank) to humans
salmonella
94
Salmonella induced gastroenteretis can be infectious at a lower dose if what is reduced?
gastric acidity
95
S. typhi causes what?
enteric fever aka TYPHOID FEVER
96
Where is there asymptomatic colonization of salmonella?
gall bladder; can become a carrier of typhoid--TYPHOID MARY
97
Can shigella ferment?
no
98
What does shiga toxin do?
damages intestinal epithelium
99
what does AB toxin do?
blocks protein synth
100
what animal is the only resevoir of shigella?
humans that are ASYMPTOMATIC
101
What are the symptoms of shigellosis-gastroeneteritis
watery diarrhea (enterotoxin), abd. cramps, fever, bloody stools (invasion of colonic mucosa)
102
What are the resevoirs for Yersinia?
rats, squirrels, rabbits, domestic animals
103
what strain of plague is found with the flea vector?
Y. pestis
104
bubonic plague is spread via
fleas
105
pneumonic plague is spread via (blank)
aerosol
106
Y. entercolitica and Y. pseudotuberculosis – enterocolitis following ingestion of infected (blank)
meat, milk, or water
107
Can klebsiella ferment?
yes
108
How is klebsiella antiphagocytic?
it is encapsulated
109
What drug is klebsiella resistant to?
carbapenem
110
Klebsiella usually presents as (blank) in pts with impaired immunity from diabetes, alcoholism, malignancy, or COPD
pneumonia
111
What is the sputum like in pts with klebsiella pneumoniae?
bloody and mucoid
112
Besides pneumonia, what else can klebsiella pneumoniae cause?
UTI and sepsis
113
Proteus mirabilis is urease (pos/neg)
POSITIVE
114
is proteus mirabilis motile?
yes
115
Urease activity produces ammonia making the urine (blank) and producing (blank) crystals in the kidney
alkaline, struvite
116
What bacteria is responsible for a UTI with crystals in the kidney?
Proteus mirabilis
117
Which bacteria is RED?
serratia marcesens
118
Where is serratia ubiquitous?
damp environs
119
What are the common diseases associated with serratia?
nosocomial infections in neonates and compromised patients, UTIs, URIs, wound infection
120
T/F: aeromonas is found only in fresh water
false; fresh and brackish
121
T/F: aeromonas can cause diarrhea in healthy people
true
122
People with hepatobiliary disease or malignancy are predisposed to what type of infection?
aeromonas
123
what is the main vector for aeromonas?
water
124
What does V. cholerae require for growth?
salt
125
cholera AB toxin is similar to (blank) toxin of ETEC
LT- heat-labile toxin
126
AB toxin interacts with G protein upregulating (blank) resulting in secretion of water and electrolytes
adenylate cyclase
127
T/F: V. cholerae infection may be asymptomatic or self-limiting
true
128
What is the characteristic appearance of cholera?
watery diarrhea with rice-water stool (speckled with mucus)
129
What is the shape of V cholerae?
curved gram neg rod
130
What is the shape of V parahaemolyticus?
curved gram neg rod
131
In what environs do you find V paraheam?
estuarine and marine
132
what is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in Japan and SE Asia?
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
133
What is the most common cause of seafood associated GE in US from raw shellfish?
V. parahaemolyticus
134
How woud V parahaem cause wound infection?
exposure to infected water
135
What is true about the growth requriements and shape of all of the vibrio species?
they are curved and require salt to grow
136
What are the zoonotic resevoirs for campylobacter jejuni?
poultry, contaminated food, unpasteurized milk, contaminated water
137
What is the most common disease associated with C. jejunni?
GI disease
138
What is the most common cause of bacterial GE in the US? (Not just seafood related)
C. jejuni
139
You have an increased risk of developing C jejuni GE if you have decreased (blank)
gastric acid
140
What is an uncommon complication of C. jejuni?
septicemia
141
What nerve syndrome is involved with C jejuni LPS cross reactivity with peripheral nerve gangliosides?
Guillain-Barre syndrome
142
What is repsonsible for 90% of the vibrio deaths in the US?
vibrio vulnificus
143
How do you get infected with v. vulnificus?
expsoure to contaminated SALT water; ingestion of contaminated shellfish
144
What particular shellfish is associated with V. vulnificus?
Oysters; septicemia common, HIGH MORTALITY 25%
145
Describe the morphology of H. pylori?
SPIRAL, HIGHLY MOTILE, gram neg rod
146
What is the primary resevoir for H pylori?
hoomans
147
T/F: H pylori colonization is fo life
true
148
Is H. pylori easy or hard to culture?
hard
149
What diseases are associated with H. pylori?
Gastritis
gastric ulcers: 10-20% lifetime risk if colonized
gastric cancer: 1-2% lifetime risk if colonized
150
What bacteria is GREEN?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
151
What is the oxidase status of P. aeruginosa?
oxidase POS
152
What is the capsule of P. aeruginosa like?
mucoid polysaccharide
153
T/F: pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common nosocomial infection
true
154
T/F: Pseudomonas is easily treatable
FALSE; requires abx combos as it is resistant
155
Patients with (blank) have a predisposition to pulmonary infection of p. aeruginosa mucoid strains
cystic fibrosis
156
What type of wounds does p. aeruginosa like to invade?
burns
157
long-term indwelling catheters, swimmer's ear, bacteremia when neutropenic and infection of burns are characteristic of:
P. aeruginosa
158
What strain of burkholderia presents as a pulmonary infection in patients with underlying lung disease such as cystic fibrosis?
B. cepacia complex
159
What strain of burkholderia causes melioidosis?
B. pseudomallei; found in thailand and australia
160
What causes glanders in a horse?
b. mallei
161
What is the morphology of acinetobacter baumanii?
gram neg coccobacillus
162
(blank) is a ubiquitous saprophyte in many environments
acinetobacter baumanii
163
T/F: A. baumanii is highly resistant to abx
true
164
What is a common cause of ventilator associated pneumonia in the ICU?
A. baumanii
165
what is common cause of nosocomial infections of battlefield wounds?
A. baumanii
166
Describe the morphology of H flu?
small gram neg cocoobacillus; ENCAPSULATED
167
What are the special nutritional requirements of H flu?
X (hemin) and V (NAD) factors
168
What is the most important subtype of H flu?
Hib type B
169
what does the H flu vaccine contain?
protein conjugate of type B polysacc
170
Meningitis in unimmunized children, epiglotitis, acute and chronic otitis media/sinusitis are characteristic of:
H flu
171
Non-typeable, acapsular strains of H flu are the most common causes of acute and chronic otitis media/sinusitis along with what else?
Strep pneumoniae
172
What bacteria is a commensual of the oropharynx of healthy animals?
Pasteurella multocida
173
How does one contract P. multocida?
bites, scratches, shared food or exposure to infected animals
174
Cellulitis and lymphadenitis following CAT OR DOG BITES is probably:
P. multocida
175
T/F: P. multocida can also cause respiratory infection in healthy patients
FALSE; need underlying pulmonary dysfunction; can also cause systemic infection in IMMUNOCOMPROMISED pt
176
What is the mechanism of pertussis toxin?
inhbits protein that regulates adenylate cylase activity; INCREASE cAMP levels!
177
What is in the vaccine for pertussis?
cocktail of purified proteins
178
What are the three stages of pertussis? (whooping cough)
1. catarrhal stage
2. paroxysmal state
3. convalescent state
179
What do pts develop that are only partially immunized against bordetella pertusis?
chronic cough
180
If you suspect an infection with Franciscella tularensis, what two things do you need to tell the lab?
1. FUCKING DANGEROUS
| 2. Needs cysteine for growth so use special medium!
181
F. tularensis is a facultative (blank)
intracellular pathogen
182
What is the zoonotic resevoir for F. tularensis?
rabbits
183
What are the vectors for tularensis?
hard ticks and biting fleas
184
What type of tularemia follows insect bite or direct inoculation?
ulceroglandular
185
Oculoglandular tularemia follows (blank)
incoluation of an eye, eg. rubbing
186
What is the biothreat version of tularemia?
pneumonic via inhalation
187
What special agar is used to culture bordetella pertussis?
Regan-Lowe charcoal agar
188
Chocolate and Thayer-Martin agar is used to grow what?
F. TULARENSIS
189
Describe the morphology of Brucella?
very small coccobacilli
190
what bacteria infects tissue rich in erythritol such as the uterus and placenta?
Brucella
191
B melitensis has a resevoir in (blank)
goats and sheep
192
B abortus has a resevoir in (blank)
cattle and american bison
193
B suis has a resevoir in (blank)
reindeer and caribou
194
B canis has a resevoir in (blank)
dogs, foxes, and coyotes
195
An UNDULANT fever with multiple symptoms can be caused by:
Brucella spp.
196
Describe the morphology of Legionella?
slender, pleimorphic gram neg rod
197
What are the speical nutrient requirments of legionella?
nutritionally FASTIDIOUS, reqiures cysteine
198
What type of media do you need to grow legionella?
buffered charcoal yeast agar
199
Where does legionella replicate in the body?
inside of macrophages and amoebae
200
Where is the natural resevoir for legionella?
natural bodies of water and cooling towers
201
T/F: an asymptomatic infection of legionella pneumophila is common
true
202
what is legionnaire's disease?
severe pneumonia, need UNDERLYING PULMONARY DISEASE
203
What is pontiac fever? what causes it?
self-limiting flu like illness caused by several legionella spp.
204
What is transmitted by several blood sucking arthropods?
bartonella spp.
205
B. quintana was (blank) in WWI, showing severe headache, fever, pain in long bones
trench fever
206
What was the vector in trench fever?
human body louse
207
What is the reservoir of Bartonella henselae?
cats and their fleas
208
Bacillary angiomatosis, a vascular proliferative disease, is caused by what species of bartonella?
b. henselae
209
What causes cat-scratch disease?
Bartonella henselae; chronic regional lymphadenopathy associated with innoculation of flea excreta via cat scratch
210
What is the morphology of streptobacillus moniliformis?
long, thin, gram neg rod
211
What is the reservoir for Strep moniliformis?
rats and other small rodetns
212
What laymen's term disease is associated with Strep moniliformis?
rat-bite fever
213
Where does strep moniliformis live in the rat?
normal flora of the nasopharynx
214
Irregular fever, headache, chills, and MIGRATORY POLYARHRALGIA, MACULOPAPULAR or petechial rash, and a rate bite all suggest?
rat bite fever caused by strep moniliformis
215
T/F: eikenella corrodens is part of the normal human flora of the upper respiratory tract
true
216
What is commonly isolated from human bite wounds or fist fights?
Eikenella corrodens
217
What is common in the morphology of the clostridium strains?
Spore forming, anaerobic, gram pos rod
218
C. perfringens is ubiquitous where?
soil, water, and GI tract of humans and animals
219
(blank) releases alpha toxin lecithinase and enterotoxin
C. perfringens
220
Cellulitis, fasciitis, suppurative myositis, mynecrosis or GAS GANGRENE or consumption of contaminated meat products could cause infection of:
C. perfringens
221
What is generalized tetanus?
spread of tetanus toxin from local site
222
what is localized tetanus
toxic effects at local site
223
what is neonatal tetanus
toxemia after infection of umbilical stump
224
What is a tetanospasmin
neurotoxin that blocks release of neurotransmitters for inhibitory synapses (spastic paralysis)
225
T/F: C. diff is common in hospitals
true
226
how do you diagnose C. diff?
detection of toxins in tha poop
227
What are the two toxins released by C diff?
enterotoxin and cytotoxin
228
Following the use of broad spectrum abx like CLINDAMYCIN, you could develop (blank)
pseudomembranous colitis from C. diff
229
What is the morphology of actinomyces israelli?
Anaerobic gram pos BRANCHING rod; just like all the sects of judaism!
230
Infection with A. israelli is (blank), caused by poor oral hygeine and dental work
endogenous
231
What microscopic finding is characteristic of A. israelli?
SULFUR GRANULES; large yellow or organ masses of filamentous organsims at site of infection
232
Oral-cervicofacial infections with the potential to have thoracic, abd., pelvic, or CNS infections are probably:
A. israelli
233
What bacteria is common in sebaceous and sweat glands?
Propionibacterium acnes
234
T/F: P acnes releases proinflammatory molecules
treu
235
Acne vulgaris stimulates the (blank) response
inflammatory
236
Pts with prosthetic devices like artificial heart valves or IV lines are likely to get an infection of:
P. acnes
237
Bacterioides fragilis are found where in the body?
upper respiratory tract and GU tract
238
What is the common morphology of the mycobacteria?
Acid-fast, aerobic rods; cell wall rich in lipids
239
which mycobacteria has a slow doubling time of 16-20hours?
TB
240
where does TB replicate?
un-activated macrophage
241
What causes disease in TB?
host response
242
T/F: there are multiple drug resistant strains of TB
true
243
T/F: most TB infections are asymptomatic and latent
true
244
T/F: you can have extrapulmonary TB infections
true
245
T/F: you cannot culture mycobacterium leprae
treu
246
why can't you culture M. leprae?
it is an obligate intracellular pathogen
247
Which leprosy has a strong cellular response?
tuberculoid leprosy
248
Which leprosy has a strong Ab response but DEFECT in cellular response?
lepromatous leprosy
249
Which leprosy is caused with only a few bacteria?
tuberculoid
250
which leprosy shows with andundant bacteria and is the MOST INFECTIOUS form?
lepromatous
251
What type of mycobacterium presents with asymptomatic colonization, chronic localized pulmonary disease, disseminated disease in AIDS pts, and is found in soil and water?
M. avium complex
252
What is the morphology of the nocardia spp.?
gram pos rods with filamentous forms that resemble hyphae; weakly acid fast
253
WHere is nocardia found in the environment?
soil rich with organic matter
254
T/F: nocardia is potentially fatal in immunocompromised pts
true
255
What does nocardia cause?
bronchopulmonary disease, lymphocutaneous disease leading to mycetoma, and brain abscesses
256
Do the cell walls of spirochetes resemble gram pos or neg?
gram neg
257
What is the only natural host of treponema pallidum?
hoomans
258
can you culture treponema?
NO; darkfield microscopy of primary lesion only
259
When is serology used for diagnosis of treponema?
in secondary and late stages
260
What disease does treponema pallidum cause?
SYPHILUS
261
Primary syphilis presents with:
painless chancre at site of inoculation
262
secondary syphilis presents with:
disseminated disease; rash
263
tertiary (late) syphilis presents with:
destruction of multiple organs
264
latent-asymptomatic syphilis can be detected by:
serological evidence of infection
265
T/F: syphilis can be passed vertically from mother to child
true
266
Does borrelia bergdorferi stain well?
nope
267
what is the leading vector borne disease in the US?
LYME DISEASE from B. burgdorferi
268
What is the reservoir for b. burg?
mice (larval form of vector) and deer (adult form)
269
What is the vector for b. burg?
hard shelled ticks
270
The (larval/adult) form found on (mice/deer) accounts for 90% of human lyme disease
larval; mouse
271
What is the characteristic lesion of lyme disease?
bull's eye ERYTHEMA MIGRANS
272
What are the systemic signs of lyme disease
arthritis, neurologic, cardiac
273
Why does borrelia cause relapsing fever?
bacterium varies expression of lipoprotein coat to evade immune surveillance
274
Where is there endemic relapsing fever?
world wide and western US
275
What borrelia sp. is repsonsible for endemic relapsing fever?
B. hermsii
276
What is the reservoir for endemic relapsing fever?
rodents and small mammals
277
What is the vector for relapsing fever endemic?
soft ticks
278
Where is there epidemic relapsing fever?
regions of Africa
279
what strain of borrelia causes epidemic relapsing fever?
B. recurrentis
280
What is the reservoir of epidemic relapsing fever
humans
281
what is the vector of epidemic relapsing fever?
human body louse
282
What animals can leptospira interrogans infect?
rodents, dogs, farm animals, wild animals
283
How do you get infected with leptospira?
contact with water/soil/food contaminated with URINE of infected animal
284
What are the presentations of leptospirosis?
most is mild flu like symptoms--fever/myalgia
systemic is aseptic meningitis
WEIL SYNDROME: overwhelming disease; vascular collapse; HEPATIC DISEASE with JAUNDICE, renal dysfunction
285
What is the smallest free-living bacteria?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
286
Describe the morphology of M. pneumoniae?
LACKS A CELL WALL; contains STEROLS from the host
287
How is M. pneumoniae spread?
strictly human; spread via aerosol
288
How do you treat M. pneumoniae?
macrolides (azithromycin) or quinolones
289
Tracheobronchitis, pharyngitis, and atypical walking pneumonia are caused by?
M. pneumoniae
290
T/F: M. genitalium/hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum are other species of M. pneumoniae and cause disease
true
291
How does Rickettsia rickettsii travel in the body?
obligate intracellular parasite that invades endothelial cells and causes vasculitis
292
In R. rickettsi, hard ticks are both a (blank and blakn)
reservoir and vector
293
What is Weil-Felix agglutination?
test for Ab to R. rickettsi, has LOW sensitivity and specificity
294
Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by?
R. rickettsii; fever headache, malaise, myalgia, nausea, MACULAR RASH with CENTRIPETAL spread (hands and feet going to trunk)
295
R. prowazekii causes epidemic typhus whose vector is?
lice
296
R. typhi causing endemic typhus whose vector is?
fleas
297
Orientia tsutsugamushi causes scrub typhus whose vector is?
mites
298
Ehrlichia and anaplasma are obligate intracellular pathogens that reside where in the cell?
cytoplasmic vacuoles of hematopoeitic cells
299
what are the reservoirs of ehrlichia and anaplasma?
deer, mice, voles, canines
300
what is the common vector of erlichia and anaplasma?
ticks
301
T/F: ehrlichia and anaplasma cause immune dysregulation and multiple symtpoms
true
302
W. chafeensis causes what form of ehrlichiosis?
human monocytic ehrlichiosis
303
A. phagocyticum causes what form of ehrlichiosis?
human granulocytic ehrlichiosis
304
Describe the morphology of Coxiella burnetti?
small, gram neg, "spore" forming; obligate intracellular
305
What are the reservoirs for C. burnetti?
cattle, sheep , goats, dogs, and cats
306
T/F: C. burnetti is extremely stable in the environment
true
307
How do you contract C. burnetti?
inhalation or ingestion of unpasteurized milk
308
What disease does C. burnetti cause?
Q fever
acute: pneumonia, hepatitis, fever
chronic: inflammation of the heart (endocarditis)
309
What is interesting about the cell wall of chlamydia trachomatis?
NO PDG LAYER
310
The elementary bodies of C. trachomatis are (infectious/noninfectious) and the reticulate bodies are (infectious/noninfectious)
elementary: infectious
reticulate: noninfectious
311
How do you treat C. trachomatis?
Azithromycin or doxycycline
312
What is the most common STD in the US?
C. trachomatis; causes urethritis, PID
313
What is an important global cause of blindness?
Trachoma; C. trachomatis
314
What is the STD where the primary lesion extends to the lymphatics and lymph nodes?
Lymphogranulumoa venerum; C. trachomatis
315
Chlamydophila pneumonia causes what?
respiratory infection: sinusitis, pharyngitis, pneumonia; may have a role in atheroscerlosis
316
What causes parrot fever?
chlamydophila psittaci
317
Parrot fever begins with a respiratory fever that spreads to the (blank) cells of the liver and spllen
RES
318
What are a reservoir for C. psittaci?
birds--ornithosis aka parrot fever
