Bacterial Diagnosis - Hunter Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: a physician should begin treatment when an infectious disease is suspected BEFORE lab confirmation

A

yes

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2
Q

What is the most common reason to fail to establish an etiologic diagnosis or a wrong diagnosis of an infectious organism?

A

Failure to properly collect a specimen

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3
Q

In diagnosing a bacterial infection, what is the primary problem?

A

distinguishing normal flora from those causing infection

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4
Q

What is a direct specimen?

A

microbes are in sterile site that can be accessed directly (e.g., needle aspiration of deep abscess, or blood collection)

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5
Q

What is an indirect specimen?

A

microbes are in sterile site but must be collected through a non-sterile site (e.g., voided urine sample)

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6
Q

What is a contaminated specimen?

A

Microbes are in site contaminated with normal flora (e.g., throat or stool culture)

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7
Q

what two factors will dictate how the micro lab will approach isolating and identifying the bacteria?

A

the type of specimen you collected and your presumptive diagnosis

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8
Q

T/F: transport of bacterial specimens is aerobic only

A

false, it can be either

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9
Q
Microscopy
Broth and Agar Culture (antibiotic sensitivity testing)
Biochemical Characterization
Antibody Detection
Antigen Detection
Nucleic Acid-Based Tests

These are all methods of what?

A

identifying specific microbes in the lab

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10
Q

What type of microscopy focuses directly on the specimen?

A

brightfield

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11
Q

What type of microscopy has the central light blocked and peripeheral light is collected as scatter from the microbes?

A

darkfield

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12
Q

What type of microscopy has microbes labeled with fluorescent dye that interacts at a certain wavelength?

A

fluorescence

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13
Q

What type of microscopy is most common?

A

brightfield

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14
Q

What power mag do you need to see bacteria?

A

100x under oil immersion

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15
Q

What is the point of simple staining?

A

to just visualize bacteria

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16
Q

what is the point of differential staining?

A

to distinguish different groups of bacteria, such as gram pos/neg

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17
Q

what are special stains used for?

A

detect bacterial structures such as capsules, flagella, and endospores

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18
Q

what are the two most common stains?

A

Gram stain and acid fast

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19
Q

what medium is commonly used to grow bacteria?

A

agar

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20
Q

T/F: a single microbes can grow to visible amounts

A

true

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21
Q

T/F: almost all medically important microbes can be cultured

A

true

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22
Q

How do you describe the colony form?

A

Circular
irregular
filamentous
rhizoid

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23
Q

how do you describe colony elevation?

A
raised
convex
flat
umbonate
cateriform
24
Q

how do you describe colony margins

A
entire
undulate
filiform
curled
lobate
25
What is the difference between nutrient, selective, and indicator media?
nutrient used to grow microbes, selective include antimicrobials to limit overgrowth of undesired bacteria, and indicator media has stuff that demonstrates specific activities of certain bacteria
26
what type of media should you use if you have a sample of intestinal flora?
selective media to limit floral overgrowth to SELECT for you bacteria
27
media that has a pH indicator of fermentation of sugars or RBC hemolysis is what type of media?
indicator media
28
MacConkey agar is what type of media and is used to grow what?
Selective and indicator, gram negative, shows lactose fermentation
29
Eosin Methylene blue agar is what type of media and is used to grow what?
Selective and indicator, gram negative, also shows lactose fermentation
30
Hektoen Enteric agar is what type of media and is used to grow what?
Selective and indicator, SPECIFICALLY salmonella and Shigella, shows lactose fermentation and HYDROGEN SULFIDE production
31
what does capnophilic mean?
bacteria grows in air but requires CO2
32
Strictly (blank) bacteria die in the presence of air
anaerobic
33
What are the factors that must be accounted for to grow bacteria? (3)
1. Broth/solid media 2. aerobic vs. anaerobic 3. CO2 levels
34
What allows the selection of most effective chemotherapeutic agent against the bacterial isolate?
Antimicrobial sensitivity testing
35
What is used to determine the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of an abx?
broth dilutions and agar diffusion
36
Bacitracin A disk is used to ID what bacteria?
Strep pyogenes
37
Bile solubility allow for rapid differentiation of (blank) from other streptococci
pneumococci
38
Catalase activity differentiates what two major groups?
staph (catalase pos) from strep and enterococci (catalase neg)
39
Coagulase positive is KEY for what bacteria?
staph aureus
40
Hippurate hydrolysis will ID group (blank) streptococci
group B
41
An (blank) rapid test will detect E. coli in the urine
Indole A (hippurate hydrolysis)
42
Optochin (P) disk can be used to ID what?
strep PNEUMONIAE; P for P
43
Oxidase activity differentiates what type of rods?
gram negative rods from each other
44
Enterobacteriaceae, Acinetobacter, and Stenotrophomonas are oxidase pos/neg?
oxidase negative
45
Pseudomonas and Burkholderia are oxidase pos/neg?
oxidase positive
46
S. pyogenes and Enterococcus can be determined via rapid test using what?
PYR hydrolysis
47
What detection lab methods do you use to visualize sera Abs?
ELISA, westerns, or immunofluorescence
48
The Ab response to some bacteria can take (days/weeks)?
weeks
49
Serology is mostly useful in what type of studies?
epidemiologic
50
T/F: Abs are a good detection mechanism of bacterial infection in immunocompromised patients?
FALSE
51
Can Abs detect whole bacteria or bacterial toxins?
yes
52
How does a non-amplified nucleic acid assay work?
hybridization of nucleic acids FROM pathogens TO labeled probes
53
Are rapid non-amplified nucleic acid tests sensitive?
NO; but they are fast
54
what is the amplifed NA test?
PCR
55
IS PCR sensitive?
extremely
56
T/F: the genomes of most bacterial pathogens are known
ture
57
When would sensitivity not be an issue when IDing bacteria?
after the bacteria has bee grown up in vitro so you have a lot of it vs. trying to test in vivo