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Advanced Wound Care > Surgical Wounds > Flashcards

Surgical Wounds Flashcards

0
Q

Describe a clean/ contaminated wound

A

Surgical wounds of the genitourinary, respiratory or alimentary/oropharengeal cavity. Contaminated by resident flora. No reaction by host

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1
Q

Describe a clean wound

A

Wounds made under aseptic surgical aseptic technique. No clinical signs of infection. Don’t enter genito urinary, respiratory or alimentary tracts/ oropharengeal cavity

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2
Q

Describe a contaminated wound

A

Contaminated by bacteria. Honest reaction. No pus.

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3
Q

Describe an infected wound

A

Clinical signs of infection (pain, heat,swelling,redness,^exudate). Increased leukocyte and macrophages. Chronic wound infection signs.

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4
Q

List the signs of a chronic wound infection

A

New or increased pain. Delayed healing. Friable, bright red hyper granulation. Pocketing/irregular deposition of granulation tissue, bridging tissue. Malodour and ^exudate.

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5
Q

List the surgical methods for primary wound healing

A

Sutures, staples, surgical tape, tissue glue (histacryl)

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6
Q

List the surgical wound healing methods for delayed primary intention

A

Suture after 3-10 days

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7
Q

What are the two types of natural sutures?

A

Absorbable and non-absorbable

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8
Q

Describe the two types of Natural absorbable sutures

A

Natural - purified collagen.
Catgut (plain or chromic)
- plain: rapidly absorbed, tensile strength, lasts 7-10 days.
-chromic: treated with chromium salt solution to resist enzymes, last 10-14 days.

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9
Q

Describe Non-absorbable sutures

A

Silk
Linen
Stainless steel

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10
Q

What are the four types of synthetic sutures?

A

Absorbable e.g. polyglycolic acid, polyglactin
Non absorbable e.g. Polyamide,polyester,polypropylene
Vicryl e.g. Tensile strength 65@14days ,40%@21 days10%35days
Poly dioxane e.g. Tensile strength 70%@14days,50%@28days. Absorption complete by 180 days.

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11
Q

Name the four types of suture techniques

A

Simple square, interrupted sutures, mattress sutures, continuous sub cuticular sutures and tension sutures

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12
Q

Describe simple square interrupted sutures

A

Inserted 1cm apart and 1cm across

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13
Q

Describe mattress sutures

A

Less pressure/tension on wound opening.
Vertical: in,under wound, out other side, then in,back across, out, knotted.
Horizontal: same as above, only sit parallel with incision line

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14
Q

Describe continuous subcuticular suture

A

One piece of suture. Start by going into SC inside wound, come up , leave a stitch, go into skin, across other side, repeat

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15
Q

Describe tension sutures

A

Inserted into deep tissue, provide additional support, nylon sutures covered with polyurethane cove to prevent cutting into skin.

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16
Q

Describe wound closure strips

A

Adhesive strips. Eg. Steri strips or leukocyte-strips

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17
Q

What are the principles for wound healing by primary intention?

A 
Protect the wound from physical or pathogenic assault
Absorb exudate
Maintain wound temperature
Maintain body temperature
Oxygenation
Avoid stress-pain relief
Observe suture line for complications
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18
Q

What can you use to dress a suture line?

A 
Keep dressing on for 24-48 hours (unless there is a drain )
Dry low-adherent dressings 
Island dressings
Semi permeable film
Hydro colloid
Foam
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19
Q

What are the indications for a drainage tube

A

Abscesses cavity-prevent premature closure
Insecure intra abdo wound- compromised healing, malnourished
Anticipated exudate
Risk of peritonitis -bowel, gastric, biliary
Extensive dissection- large collections
Traumatic injury- to drain contaminants

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20
Q

List the 3 types of drains

A

Capillary wicking:Penrose, corrugated,ported
Attached negative pressure suction devices: redivac, Jackson Pratt, sump,axiom
Percutaneous: biliary, nephrostomy

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21
Q

What are the indications for percutaneous tubes?

A 
Gastrostomy - feeding or decompression
Jejunostomy- feeding
Nephrostomy - draining urine
Supra public catheter -draining urine
Biliary-draining bile
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22
Q

Describe peri tubular skin care

A

Keep skin clean and dry
Peri tubular leakage -indicates width of tube is too small for fistula track
Hypergranulation around tubes indicates friction - secure tube

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23
Q

What is a Biliary T-Tube?

A

Inserted into the biliary track to drain bile following a cholecystectomy.

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24
Q

What are the principles of drain management?

A 
Client/carer support and education
Secure drain
Maintain patency 
Maintain skin integrity
Contain exudate
Observe type and amount of exudate
Prevent infection
Observe for complications -infection,discomfort, dislodgement,blocksge. If on -ve pressure -loss of suction, loss of skin integrity
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25
Q

List the types of surgical wound complications

A 
Haemorrhage- primary or secondary 
Haematoma
Seroma
Oedema
Infection 
Occlusion blood  supply- necrosis
Dehiscence / evisceration
Adhesions
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26
Q

What is the aetiology of dehiscence?

A

Heamatoma, seroma,infection, trauma

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27
Q

What is a sinus?

A

A track or opening into tissues

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28
Q

What is a fistula?

A

An abnormal track connecting one viscus to another viscus or to the skin surface

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29
Q

What is the aetiology of a fistula?

A

Leaking surgical anastomoses ,
Spontaneous rupture due to obstruction, disease, trauma or radiotherapy.
Mesenteric ischaemia
Sepsis - diverticulitis & appendicitis

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30
Q

What are the two types of fistula classifications?

A

Internal fistula - vesicovaginal,enterocolonic,rectovagal

External fistula - enterocutaneous, buccal,vesciocutaneous

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31
Q

What are the principles for fistula management?

A

Patient comfort and support, fluid and electrolyte replacement, nutritional assessment and supplementation
, prevention and management of infection, maintenance of skin integrity, containment of effluent and odour, cost-effective care.

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32
Q

Describe medication management for fistula’s?

A

Anti-motility agents e.g. Loperamide, lomotil, opioids.
Cholestyramine e.g. If fistula’s in the duodenum or proximal jejunum and if excess bile salts in the intestine.
Somastatin analogues- enhances fluid and electrolyte absorption.
1t and 2t sugar solution

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33
Q

What is an evisceration of the abdomen?

A

Spontaneous rupture of the abdominal suture line and intestines protrude through the opening

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34
Q

What are the types of aberrant healing?

A

Hypergranulation, contracture, hypertrophic scar, keloid

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35
Q

Describe Hypergranulation

A

Raised granulation tissue above the level of the surrounding skin commonly occurs as a result of;
Friction
Increased bacterial burden in the wound
Infection

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36
Q

Describe contracture

A

Abnormal scar formation that can inhibit movement or function due to excessive myofibroblast activity.

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37
Q

Describe a Hypertrophic scar

A

Excessive scar that remains within the perimeter of the original wound

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38
Q

Describe a Keloid scar

A

Excessive scar that extends outside the perimeter of the original wound

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39
Q

What are the 6 F’s of when not to pack a wound?

A

Fistula, fascial plane separation,facilitate exudate drainage,foreign bodies,formed track (lined with epithelium) , fear of the unknown

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40
Q

What are the risk factors for burns?

A

Young children, adult males, elderly.
Indigenous
Alcohol,cigarettes, drug abuse,low socioeconomic status
, residential factors

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41
Q

Describe a thermal burn

A

Hot surfaces, flames,scalds (e.g hot water) flash injuries from explosions

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42
Q

What is a chemical burn?

A

Acidic and alkaline substances, household and industrial cleaning agents

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43
Q

What is an electrical burn?

A

Low or high voltage, lightening

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44
Q

What is a radiation burn?

A

Over exposure to UV, electromagnetic, x-ray, particulate (alpha/beta or neurons)

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45
Q

What is a cold injury?

A

Frost bite, tissue hypothermia/freezing, impaired vascular function, tissue necrosis.

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46
Q

What is friction?

A

Motorbike or treadmill accidents

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47
Q

Name the five burn aetiologies

A

Thermal, chemical, electrical, radiation and friction

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48
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of a burn

A

Increased capillary permeability and oedema straight after the burn.
Caused by inflammatory mediators- histamine,prostaglandins, leukotrienes and kinins.
Increased capillary permeability = loss of small protein molecules, odema and fluid loss proportional to TBSA%
TBSA +30% leads to hypovolaemic shock, cardiovascular, respiratory, GI, urinary, metabolic and autoimmune compromise.
Local effects: extent and depth of burn determined by temperature, duration of contact and thickness of skin.
Systemic effects: fluid loss from site, increased metabolism, nitrogen loss, hypothermia, protein loss, gluconeogenesis, impaired insulin production and glucose metabolism = hyperglycaemia

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49
Q

Name Jackson’s zone of burn injury

A

Zone of ;
Coagulation
Stasis
Hyperaemia

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50
Q

Describe the zone of coagulation

A

Occurs at the point of maximal damage. Central, inner zone, blood vessel thrombosis, irreversible necrosis

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51
Q

Describe the zone of stasis

A

Medial zone. Decreased tissue perfusion, potentially salvageable. Tissue can become necrotic due it impaired circulation, release of inflammatory mediators and poor first aid. Main aim = increase tissue perfusion and prevent irreversible damage

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52
Q

Describe the zone of hyperaemia (erythema)

A

Outermost zone, erythematous due to increased tissue perfusion, tissue heals within 7 days, complications due to infection, ongoing trauma or oedema can hinder healing

53
Q

Describe a superficial burn

A

Involves the epidermis. Painful, erythema, blanching on pressure, mild odema, May blister and peel.
3 - 10 days to heel.
Spontaneous healing

54
Q

Describe a deep partial thickness burn

A

Extends to reticular or deeper layer of dermis. Fluid filled blisters, erythema, shiny wet surface, sever pain, mild to moderate oedema. Deceased capillary refill.
Heals within 3 weeks, scarring,hypertrophic.
Will require surgical intervention for healing. Excision and skin graft to reduce contracture and scar.

55
Q

Describe a superficial-partial thickness burn

A

Involves epidermis, extends to papillary/superficial layer of dermis. Erythema,blisters,exudate, pain, skin blanches.
Heals within. 2 weeks.
Minimal scar
Pigmentation change to skin

56
Q

Describe a full thickness burn

A

Involves epidermis, dermis, SC tissue. Dry, Thick white, brown, tan, bloc leathery skin. Escher doesn’t blanch. Not sensitive to light touch due to nerve damage. May involve muscle, tendons and bones.
Excision and skin graft to reduce scarring and contracture. Hypertrophic scar.

57
Q

What are the types of burns classifications?

A 
First= superficial
Second (superficial) = superficial partial thickness 
Second (deep) = deep partial thickness
Third = full thickness
Fourth= sub-dermal
Wallace's rules of nines;
Neck and genito perineal= 1%
Head, R &L arm= 9% each
Back and front of trunk = 18% each
R & L leg= 18% each

Age dependent graphs
Lund & browder - good for children and neonates
Burns classified according to age group
Allows for anatomical different at different ages

58
Q

Describe burn management

A

First aid: remove safely from source of burn, thermal burn( stop drop roll) , cool clean running water 20mins, resuscitation( 48-72hrs) . Primary survey (ABCDE) and secondary survey (after PS assess for other injuries).

Acute wound healing: inflammation, reconstruction, maturation

Rehabilitation: follow up, bio psychosocial adjustment, scar management, multidisciplinary output

59
Q

Describe first aid for burns

A

Remove from source of burn, stop burning process, cool the burn - 20 mins water, no ice can increase depth of burn, irrigate with large amounts of water

60
Q

Describe primary survey for burns

A

Airway
Breathing & ventilation : humidified 02 100%, bag ventilation, intubation. Assess for CO poisoning (decreased consciousness, cherry red ) RR>20 is a concern. Eschatology of restrictive skin.
Circulation: pulse strength/ regularity, cap refill <2secs. Control haemorrhage, elevation , cardiac complications with electrical burns.
Disability and neurological status: GCS, pupil reaction, hypoxia,shock.
Exposure and environment: remove jewellery/clothing, prevent hypothermia. Trim stuck clothes.
Fluid resuscitation: IVC in non burnt area, blood samples/cross matching, IVH via ANZBA guidelines/ Baxter formula;

2-4 ml Hartmanns per kg/ per %TBSA= total fluid requirements over 24hrs post burn. 1/2 TF over first 8hrs, 1/4 TF over next 8. Hrs, 1/4 TF over final 8hrs (of first 24hrs).
IDC: dark urine indicates myoglobinuria and acute tubular necrosis.
Pain: full thickness burns are innervated, intact & regenerating nerves trigger pain.
Tetanus prophylaxis

61
Q

Describe secondary survey for burns

A

Full body assessment; fractures etc, referral to burn unit, protect wound following cooling,cling wrap to prevent evaporation and heat loss( longitudinal and circumference) , enteral nutrition or parental.

62
Q

What are the goals of care for burns

A

Alleviate pain, prevent infection, prevent conversion to deeper wound, achieve wound coverage as early as possible, promote function of healing skin, preserve function of body part, minimise scarring

63
Q

Describe management of Blisters

A

Intact provides protection and less pain.
Aspiration to pressure and pain
Small prune like blisters not on joints can be left roofed.
Large and over joints should be de roofed
On palm, should be slit,drained and left roofed for 48hrs before completely de-roofed(reduces pain )
Tense blisters should be de-roofed or aspirated
Opaque indicates infection, de-roofed and dressed.

64
Q

Define a skin graft

A

A segment of dermis and epidermis which has been completely separated from its blood supply and donor site and transplanted yo another site.

  • speeds up healing
  • reduces infection
  • deep partial thickness and full thickness undergo surgical debridement and skin grafting
65
Q

List the types of skin grafts

A

Autografts , allografts/ homografts, xenografts/ heterografts, tissue culture, bio engineered skin, split skin graft (thin, intermediate, thick) and meshed graft

66
Q

What is an autograft?

A

Transfer of tissue from one site to another site on same person

67
Q

What is an allograft/ homograft?

A

Transfer of tissue from one person to another

68
Q

What is a xenografts/heterograft?

A

Transfer of tissue from one species to another (e.g pig skin)

69
Q

What is a tissue culture?

A

Epidermal cells cultured in a lab

70
Q

What is an example of bioengineered skin?

A

Dermagraft, apligraf

71
Q

What is a split skin graft?

A

Contain epidermis and varying amounts of debris

72
Q

What is a thin split skin graft?

A

Epidermis and upper part of papillary layer of dermis.
Contracts within the first few months
no hair
Higher survival rate as vascularisation occurs easily

73
Q

What is a thick split thickness graft

A

Epidermis, most of dermis layer, thin layer of reticular dermis. Less contraction. Some hair follicles and sweat glands.

74
Q

What is an intermediate split thickness graft?

A

Epidermis, most of papillary layer.

75
Q

What is a meshed graft?

A

Allows greater wound surface cover as mesh is stretched. Cultured epidermal cells need to be sprayed between interstices of mesh

76
Q

What is a full thickness graft?

A

All of epidermis and dermis. Donor site has to be directly closed or grafted.

77
Q

What Are the reasons for grafting?

A

Wounds deficient in surface covering may require closure with skin graft or skin flap. E.g skin cancer, burns.
Exceptions;
Bone, tendon, cartilage and nerve

78
Q

Name the processes involved in the vascularisation of skin grafts

A

Plasmatic imbibition, inosculation of blood vessels and true circulation

79
Q

Describe Plasmatic inhibition

A

First step in SG vascularisation. Occurs in first 48 hrs, plasma like fluid absorbed into graft, fibrin network established between graft and recipient bed to hold graft in place.

80
Q

Describe innoculation of blood vessels

A

In the first 48 hours, vascular buds grow into fibrin network, anchors graft to bed

81
Q

Describe the establishment of true circulation?

A

Angiogenesis within 4-7 days, lymphatic establishment

82
Q

What are the factors that inhibit graft take?

A

Poorly vascularised recipient bed, shearing movement, fluid collection beneath the graft (e.g haematoma, seroma, pus,debris), infection, inadequate graft support when dependent, patient intrinsic or extrinsic factors

83
Q

Describe shearing movement and nursing interventions to prevent this

A

Movement between the graft and the recipient bed cusses damage to the capillaries growing into the graft and prevents revascularisation.

  • splinting (e.g thermoplastic splints)
  • patient education (e.g keeping graft site immobilised)
  • dressings (e.g tie over, compression)
84
Q

How does infection inhibit graft take? What are some nursing interventions to prevent this?

A

Pre-graft recipient bed preparation
Post grafting - bacteria can destroy migrating epithelial cells and increase exudate .

Identify signs and symptoms of infection , compliance with treatment plan if infected, graft care: removal of accumulated exudate and crusts, trimming of graft once taken.

85
Q

How does inadequate graft support affect graft uptake? What are interventions to prevent this?

A

Increased graft hydrostatic pressure when graft site is dependent, may cause fragile new capillaries to rupture and bleed resulting in blistering, haematoma, and possible loss of graft.

Graft support (compression dressing)
Staged mobility regime
Observation of the graft following mobilisation

86
Q

Describe care of skin grafts

A

Palpate for fluid collection
Nick with fine point scissors and dab excess fluid
Protect with silicone or tulle gras dressing
Fill defect with fluffed quaze

87
Q

Describe patient factors affecting graft uptake

A

Non-compliance : lack of education/ understanding
Impaired healing: e.g anaemia, immunosuppression, diabetes, malignancy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, PVD, smoking and poor nutritional status

88
Q

Describe interventions for incomplete graft uptake

A

Regrafting
Healing by secondary intention and using moist wound healing principles
Treatment of any Hypergranulation with antiseptic dressings to control any infection

89
Q

List the skin graft donor site dressings

A

Alienates, hydro colloids, acrylic, silicone impregnated

90
Q

What is the ongoing management for skin grafts

A

Support, ambulation regimes, education, continuing wound awareness, keep skin supple, massage gently, observation, treat all breakdown as it arises

91
Q

Define a flap

A

Surgical relocation of tissue from one part of the body to another part in order to reconstruct a primary defect.

Flaps are described as skin or cutaneous flaps and composite flaps

92
Q

What are the two different type of flaps?

A

Skin or cutaneous: consisting of skin and superficial fascia.
Composite tissue:
- fasciocutaneous flap= skin, SC, underlying and deep fascia & muscle
-myocutaneous= skin! underlying fascia, muscle, bone
-osteomyocutaneous= skin, underlying fascia, muscle,bone

93
Q

What is a free flap?

A

Relocation of skin and subcutaneous tissue as a complete segment with an anastomosis of the blood supply

94
Q

What is a pedicle flap?

A

Transfer of skin and tissue to another site. Blood supply to the flap is maintained via a vascular pedicle.

95
Q

What is a rotational flap?

A

Z-plasty, flap rotated to cover adjacent tissue

96
Q

What flap observations would you conduct as a nurse?

A

Vitals,fluid intake, UO, 02 therapy, exudate, pain, warmth, change in tissue turgor (prune like or hollow if arterial occlusion. Tense, swollen and distended if venous occlusion) , skin colour changes, bleeding, cap refill, doppler -arterial, venous force, regularity

97
Q

How do certain medications effect flaps?

A

Diuretics: cause sudden change in flap perfusion
Aspirin: can inhibit aggregation of platelets
Heparin: can inhibit thrombin clot formation
Caffeine: is a cardiac stimulant and diuretic
Nicotine: inhibits oxygenation of tissues

98
Q

What is a skin tear?

A

Traumatic wound occurring on older adults as a result of friction or shearing which separates epidermis from dermis or both from underlying structures.

99
Q

Describe features of ageing skin

A 
Thinning and flattening of epidermis
Decreased epidermal proliferation 
Cells in horny layer loose elastin
Atrophy of the dermis =  decreased contraction
Changes to and loss of collagen
Decreased vascularity of dermis
Decreased number of oil and sweat glands
Vascular response is compromised
Altered or reduced sensation 
Fragility
100
Q

What is the name of the skin tear classification system?

A

STAR

101
Q

Describe the classification of a STAR 1A skin tear

A

Edges CAN be realigned to normal position without stretching

Skin or flap is NOT pale,dusky or darkened

102
Q

Describe the classification of a STAR 1B skin tear

A

Edges CAN be realigned to normal without stretching

Skin or flap IS pale, dusky or darkened

103
Q

Describe the classification of a STAR 2A

A

Edges CANNOT be realigned

Flap colour is NOT pale,dusky or darkened

104
Q

Describe the classification of a STAR 2B skin tear

A

Edges CANNOT be realigned

Flap colour IS pale, dusky or darkened

105
Q

Describe a STAR 3 skin tear

A

Skin tear where flap is completely absent

106
Q

Describe the management of skin tears

A

Control bleeding
Realign
Assess tissue loss and colour
Assess SS for swelling, discolouration, bruising
If dusky reassess in 24-48 hrs
Use silicone dressing for fragile skin, draw an arrow to indicated dressing removal direction

107
Q

Define debridement

A

Removal of all foreign material, contaminated and devitalised tissue from or adjacent to a traumatic or infected lesion, until healthy tissue is exposed.

108
Q

What is the rationale for debridement

A

Necrotic tissue hinders assessment, granulation, contraction, epithelial migration, causes bacteria risk and is odorous

109
Q

List the methods of debridement

A

Surgical, conservative sharp, enzymatic, autolytic, mechanical, chemical, parasitic/larval, low frequency ultrasound

110
Q

Describe surgical debridement

A

Aseptic, in theatre by surgeon

Done when there is extensive tissue damage or infection, prep for skin graft, comprising factors from enviro/client

111
Q

What is conservative sharp debridement?

A

Removal of loose,avascular tissue without pain or bleeding
Aseptic conditions in clinical setting
Performed by competent RN

112
Q

What is enzymatic debridement?

A

Enzymes to promote lysis of necrotic tissue, blood clots and fibrinous tissue

113
Q

What is autolytic debridement

A

Rehydrating or moisture retention dressings or agents assist
Physiological response to presence of devitalised tissue and cellular debris
Hydrogels and honey facilitate by adding fluids
Hydro colloids and semi permeable films facilitate moist healing

114
Q

What is mechanical debridement

A

Removal via mechanical means- wet to dry dressings, pressure irrigation.
Short term goal

115
Q

What is chemical debridement?

A

Chemical agents for control or removal
Sodium hyper chlorite and hydrogen peroxide are NOT recommended as cytotoxic to healthy skin.
Cadexomer iodine- is non toxic, assists control of bacterial burden

116
Q

What is parasitic/larval debridement

A 
Bio surgical or myasitic larval therapy 
Deliberate infestation of lab raised maggots
Lucilia sericata(green bottle fly)
Enzymes from maggot breaks down tissue, maggots ingest tissue
117
Q

What is low frequency ultrasound debridement?

A

Ultrasonic frequencies 20-100khz

Mechanical - converts electrical currents to vibrations

118
Q

Give examples of safe chemical debridement agents

A

Cadexomer Iodine, hypertonic saline, wound honey

119
Q

What are the contraindications for conservative wound debridement

A

Densely adherent necrotic tissue
When interface between viable and non viable tissue cannot be clearly identified
Impaired clotting mechanism
Increased risk of bleeding .e.g malignant wound
Non infected ischaemic ulcer covered with dry Escher when tissue oxygenation is insufficient to support infection control and wound healing

120
Q

What is a sinus?

A

A cavity or track into the tissues

121
Q

How do we heal a sinus?

A

Aim is to heal from base upward in order to eliminate dead space. Gently packed to facilitate wound closure

122
Q

What is a dehiscence ?

A

Separation of tissue layers in a surgical wound as a result of infection, haematoma, fluid collection or localised trauma

123
Q

What is an evisceration?

A

Protusion of viscera or bowels through a surgical incision or traumatic wound.
Keep covered with sterile moistened pads or drapes
A surgical emergency

124
Q

What is the host- bacterial relationship?

A

Infection = organism number x virulence / host resistance

125
Q

What is critical colonisation?

A

Increased exudate, static edges, friable granulation, bridging tissues, increased or new pain

126
Q

When would you use an aseptic technique?

A

If individual , their wound and healing environment is compromised
I.e client is auto immune suppressed, wound entered a sterile cavity, enviro is unhygienic

127
Q

When is a clean technique acceptable?

A

Acceptable if individual, their wound and healing enviro is not compromised

128
Q

What is a compromised wound?

A

Acute surgical or traumatic wound
Wounds enters a sterile,cavity, exposed bone or tendon
Infection evident
Ischaemia of tissues

129
Q

What is the rationale for packing a wound ?

A

Control wound closure and bleeding
Keep a narrow sinus opening patent
Avoid dead space in wounds to eliminate risk of abscess
Prepare wound prior to skin grafting- mechanical debridement for reduction of bacteria

Advanced Wound Care (5 decks)

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