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SEE/NCE Boards CoreConcepts > Surgical Procedures/Special Populations > Flashcards

Surgical Procedures/Special Populations Flashcards

1
Q

Tonsillectomy is associated with.

A

severe pain,

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2
Q

Adenoidectomy is associated with

A

minimal pain

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3
Q

Up to 65% of patients undergoing tonsillectomy experience

A

postoperative vomiting.

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4
Q

LMA’s were first described for use in

A

tonsillectomy in 1990 and are especially useful for preventing exposure of the lower airway to blood.

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5
Q

What type of patient injury could occur if intravenous lines are allowed to lie in a coil in the MRI suite?

A

Burn

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6
Q

It is important to keep devices such as intravenous lines or ECG monitor wires straight during an MRI. Any coiled objects can induce

A

a current and cause a burn.

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7
Q

A patient presenting for carotid endarterectomy has amaurosis fugax. You know that this is

A

monocular blindness

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8
Q

You are performing anesthesia for a patient undergoing a total hip replacement. The surgeon is using polymethylmethacrylate to cement the prosthetic in place. You know that polymethylmethacrylate will result in

A

intramedullary hypertension

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9
Q

Intramedullary HTN cause

A

This can produce hypoxia, hypotension, dysrhythmias, and pulmonary hypertension. The circulating cement can also produce a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and a subsequent decrease in blood press

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10
Q

The onset of all muscle relaxants is significantly longer in elderly patients why?

A

Because of decreased cardiac output, longer circulatory time, and decrease in skeletal muscle blood flow,

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11
Q

Which of the following laboratory values tends to be decreased in full-term parturients?

A

ALBUMIN

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12
Q

Upon which of the following actions should you place the highest priority prior to commencing intravenous sedation for a patient undergoing an MRI?

A

Establishing a means for communicating with the MRI technician during the procedure

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13
Q

Oxygen consumption increases by about The plasma base (HCO3-) decreases from about 26 to 22 mEq/L, thus, the pH is essentially unchanged.

A

33 percent in the full-term parturient, but minute ventilation increases by 50 percent at term.

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14
Q

The increased alveolar ventilation in full term parturients results in an

A

increase in the PaO2 to about 106 mmHg and a decrease in the PaCO2 to about 30-32 mmHg.

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15
Q

Geriatric patients and fat?

A

increased adipose stores, which prolongs the action of lipid-soluble drugs.

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16
Q

Geriatric hepatic and renal blood flow

A

They also have decreased hepatic and renal blood flow which can prolong the action of drugs dependent on the liver and kidneys for elimination.

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17
Q

Protein normally are not affected by aging.

A

Alpha-1 acid glycoprotein levels

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18
Q

Although elderly they have a_____ vascular volume, this correlates with a

A

decreased ; higher initial plasma concentration of a drug, not a prolonged elimination half-life.

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19
Q

Extravasation of the cement in vertebroplasty vs kyphoplasty?

A

Vertebroplasty is more likely to result in extravasation of the cement because the cement used in vertebroplasty is less viscous than that used for kyphoplasty.

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20
Q

Potential neurologic complications of vertebroplasty.

A

Radiculopathy, spinal claudication, and paraplegia

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21
Q

After Vertebroplasty The patient should be .

A

The patient is positioned prone for the actual procedure and should remain supine for 3-5 hours after the procedure for evaluation of neurologic status and careful observation for bleeding

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22
Q

Vertebroplasty, kyphoplasty and anesthetics

A

General anesthesia and IV sedation are both acceptable techniques for these procedures.

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23
Q

A patient undergoing carotid endarterectomy exhibits profound bradycardia (23 bpm) which is successfully treated with atropine. To prevent a recurrence of this event, you should

A

ask the surgeon to infiltrate the carotid sinus area with lidocaine

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24
Q

CEA: Bradycardia may be caused by manipulation of

A

baroreceptors in the carotid sinus.

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25
Q

Following carotid endarterectomy, it is important to maintain the systolic blood pressure below what value to prevent an increased incidence of stroke, TIA, and myocardial infarction?

A

180 mmHg

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26
Q

You are preparing to perform a penile block for a patient undergoing surgical repair of hypospadius. You know that the principal nerve supply to the penis is provided by the

A

. pudendal nerve

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27
Q

How does obesity affect the pharmacokinetics of midazolam?

A

It increases the volume of distribution

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28
Q

Obesity : How do you dose midazolam for single IV dose vs continuous infusion dose?

A

A single intravenous dose should be based on total body weight, but a continuous infusion should be based on lean body weight.

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29
Q

Why is pancuronium clearance increase in the elderly?

A

The elimination of pancuronium is prolonged in the elderly, but since it is eliminated primarily via the renal route, it is the decrease in renal clearance, not hepatic clearance that prolongs pancuronium.

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30
Q

The O’Brien and Nadbath blocks are used to prevent movement of the eyelids during ocular surgery. A side effect of both of these blocks is

A

Unilateral facial paralysis

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31
Q

Select two physiologic changes associated with obesity.

A

Increased renal tubular reabsorption

Increased glomerular filtration rate

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32
Q

Obesity is characterized by an

A

increased glomerular filtration rate, increased renal tubular resorption, and impaired sodium excretion which further worsens hypertension.

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33
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia occurs in about_____live births.

A

1:2000

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34
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia In about 90 percent of cases, the herniation occurs on the and can result in

A

left side through the foramen of Bochdalek

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35
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia results in

A 
D-CRACS
diminished breath sounds on the affected side
Cyanosis
Respiratory distress
apparent dextrocardia,
cardio-respiratory failure, 
scaphoid abdomen
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36
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia what should be placed?

A

A nasogastric tube should be placed to prevent further gastric distention.

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37
Q

What should be avoided in congenital diaphragmatic hernia and why?

A

Positive pressure ventilation by mask should be avoided as it can result in stomach inflation and worsen mediastinal displacement.

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38
Q

The degree of fatty liver infiltration seen in obese patients is primarily related to

A

. the length of time the patient has been obese

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39
Q

It should be noted that fatty infiltration is not affected by the degree of obesity in liver . Rather, it is a

A

reflection of the length of time one has been obese.

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40
Q

Severely obese patients often have elevated liver enzymes.

A

Alanine aminotransferase

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41
Q

Which enzyme is elevated due to the blockage of bile canaliculi by triglyceride depositions?

A

Clearance of drugs is usually not reduced, however.

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42
Q

Abnormal liver function tests are present in about

A

1/3 of morbidly obese individuals.

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43
Q

Is the most common abnormality

A

Increased alanine aminotransferase

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44
Q

What is the only local anesthetic that is metabolized rapidly enough to avoid substantial accumulation in the fetus?

A

Chloroprocaine

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45
Q

How is a patient positioned for splenectomy?

A

Lateral decubitus

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46
Q

Hepatic function and neonate?

A

Hepatic function is immature in the newborn and some hepatic pathways do not mature until after a year of age.

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47
Q

Albumin and neonates

A

Levels of albumin and other serum proteins are low in the full-term infant and result in a higher free fraction of many protein-bound drugs.

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48
Q

Which of the following characteristics are consistent in a neonate with congenital diaphragmatic hernia? (select two)

A

Lung hypoplasia and tachypnea

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49
Q

The initial presentation of Congential Diaphragmatic Hernia is.

A

respiratory distress due to lung hypoplasia with tachycardia and tachypnea being present at birth

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50
Q

In congenital diaphragmatic hernia, the compression of the

A

Compression of the vena cava by the intestines can also produce reduced preload and a corresponding decrease in cardiac ouput. The abdomen may appear scaphoid due to its contents being extruded into the thorax.

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51
Q

The most commonly used strategy for fluid resuscitation is to take the

A

percent of body surface area burned, multiply it by 2-4 times the weight in kilograms, and administer that volume during the first 24 hours following the burn.

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52
Q

You are caring for a patient about to undergo anesthesia for a cesarean section. You assist her into the supine position on the surgical table. She soon experiences hypotension, tachycardia, dizziness, and nausea. What first action should you take?

A

Place in left lateral tilt position

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53
Q

When placing monitors on a patient presenting for mediastinoscopy, which of the following is the most appropriate arrangement?

A

Radial arterial line and O2 saturation monitor on the right arm and the blood pressure cuff on the left arm

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54
Q

During mediastinoscopy, there is a significant risk of compression of the i

A

Innominate artery by a mediastinal mass or by the mediastinoscope itself resulting in a drop in right arm blood pressure. If only the right arm blood pressure is monitored, the patient may be treated inappropriately for hypotension. If only the left arm is monitored, the obstruction may go unnoticed. If the pressure in the right arm is less than that of the left arm, you should suspect innominate vessel compression. Placing the arterial line and O2 saturation monitor on the right arm will detect compression of the artery sooner.

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55
Q

Pain that follows the distribution of a nerve or group of nerves is referred to as

A

Neuralgia

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56
Q

A patient exhibits persistent postoperative hoarseness following an anterior cervical disk fusion. A possible cause is damage to the _____ nerve from the retractors.

A

RLN

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57
Q

The symptoms of an amniotic fluid embolism include:

A

sudden shortness of breath, hypoxia, cyanosis, and severe hypotension.

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58
Q

Following an open colon resection, a patient exhibits liver enzymes that are twice the normal value. You know that this

A

is common and typically resolves in 48 hours

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59
Q

Patients who suffer a myocardial infarction following noncardiac surgery have an elevated in-hospital mortality rate of

A

15-25%

60
Q

In fact, is an independent predictor of death in the 6 months after the surgery.

A

a perioperative myocardial infarction

61
Q

Which change is principally responsible for the reduction in alveolar surface volume in the elderly?

A

Decreased pulmonary elastic tissue

62
Q

All of the following ventilatory parameters remain unchanged in pregnancy

A

Lung compliance
Deadspace volume
Total lung capacity

63
Q

CDH is associated what type of abdomen

A

SCAPHOID

64
Q

In which Rexed lamina are second-order wide dynamic range neurons found?

A

Lamina V

65
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the hematology studies of a full-term parturient is correct?

A

The red blood cell mass increases

66
Q

What is the maximum recommended aspirant amount in an office based liposuction procedure?

A

5000 ml

67
Q

Which of the following is greater in a healthy two year-old patient than it is in an adult? (select two)

A

Protein binding is decreased in preterm and term infants but is similar between children and adults. The bioavailability of ketamine is high in adults (93%) but is even higher in children.

68
Q

Vd of propofol children vs adults

A

The volume of distribution of propofol is larger in children than adults.

69
Q

By 6-12 months of age, the clearance of morphine is

A

equal to that of adults.

70
Q

You are performing a preoperative assessment on a full-term parturient being admitted for scheduled cesarean section. She states that her physician told her she had hydronephrosis, but that he told her not to worry about it.

A

You should reassure her that hydronephrosis is common in pregnancy

71
Q

The incidence of hydronephrosis in pregnant women?

A

80% in pregnant patients.

72
Q

Hydronephrosis in pregnancy and why? what are increase

A

The increased blood and interstitial volume produce a compensatory increase in renal volume. The urinary collecting system (collecting ducts, calcyes, renal pelvis, and ureters) dilate substantially, producing hydronephrosis in 80% of pregnant women by

73
Q

What would be considered an advantage of combined spinal-epidural analgesia?

A

It is highly effective when initiated during fast progressing labor

74
Q

Which electrolyte disorder would be most likely to worsen cerebral edema following a craniotomy?

A

Hyponatremia causes the extracellular fluid to become hypotonic. As this occurs, water begins moving into the brain cells causing cerebral edema and intracranial hypertension.

75
Q

You are preparing to perform a general anesthetic for a patient undergoing a CT scan. Which of the following statements is true?

A

PEEP should be applied in pediatric patients to improve scan visibility

76
Q

Studies have demonstrated that CT scans performed on children using general anesthesia resulted in what ? What can prevent is from happening? Pregnancy is a

A

atelectasis severe enough to obscure evidence of metastasis on the scan. Adding 5 cm H2O of PEEP was sufficient enough to prevent this from occurring.

77
Q

Contraindication to the administration of intravenous contrast media.

A

Pregnancy

78
Q

CT scan with contrast: LMA what is the exception?

A

General anesthesia can be performed with an LMA if the patient has no contraindications.If the patient has received oral contrast, however, an endotracheal tube must be used to prevent aspiration.

79
Q

Which of the following is true of CO2 lasers?

A

They can melt steel

80
Q

A CO2 laser is.

A

infrared and emits primarily as heat

81
Q

It can melt almost any structure upon which it is focused, including steel.

A

CO2 laser

82
Q

Because the CO2 laser is greatly absorbed by water, Vaporization of tissues usually occur when?

A

the vaporization of tissues usually occurs within the first 200 micrometers of tissue depth.

83
Q

CO2 laser and water absorption

A

is greatly absorbed by water,

84
Q

Because it has very limited thermal effect on surrounding tissues, the_______ laser is better suited for LASIK surgery, the ____laser is not.

A

excimer; CO2

85
Q

Not suited for LASIK surgery

A

CO2 laser.

86
Q

Effects of mannitol when administered during vascular surgery

A
  • Mannitol increases urine output during aortic cross-clamp, but this effect has not been shown to alter renal outcomes after surgery involving aortic cross-clamping. – serve as a free radical scavenger which may be of benefit after the release of the aortic cross-clamp.
    Increases prostaglandin synthesis which causes renal vasodilation.
87
Q

You are performing general anesthesia for a morbidly obese patient undergoing laparoscopic surgery. Which of the following is more likely to occur in this patient than in a patient of normal weight?

A

The endotracheal tube will become displaced

88
Q

Which location would be least appropriate for placement of an arterial line in a patient undergoing surgery on the distal aortic arch?

A

LEFT WRIST. Because the left subclavian artery may be manipulated during the operation, which would disrupt monitoring in the left radial artery, monitoring pressures via another site would be preferred. The right radial is often used.

89
Q

Rubbing the skin of a painful area decreases the sensation of pain according to what pain control theory?

A

Gate CONTROL THEORY

90
Q

According to the gate control theory of pain,. Rubbing the skin activates A-beta fibers, which are faster than the A-delta and C fibers carrying the pain transmission.

A

pain can be transmitted to the supraspinal regions of the brain if the gate is open. If the pain pathway is competing with other types of stimulation, the gate may be closed to the painful stimuli, and it wouldn’t be felt

91
Q

An example is rubbing the skin over a painful area.

A

Gate control theory

92
Q

The A-beta fibers override

A

some of the pain messages and close the gate, decreasing the sensation of pain.

93
Q

The primary function of von Willebrand factor is

A

o promote platelet aggregation and adhesion to collagen

94
Q

The composition of the inspired gas mixture delivered to the patient is dependent upon all of the following except

A

CO of the patient

95
Q

Filtration fraction is the a.

A

ratio of the glomerular filtration rate to renal plasma flow, and it is normally about 20%.

96
Q

The glomerular filtration rate is dependent on the relative

A

tone of the afferent and efferent arterioles in the nephron.

97
Q

What increase filtration fraction?

A

an increase in the diameter of the afferent arteriole
a decrease in the diameter of the efferent arteriole

An increase in the diameter of the afferent arteriole (vasodilation) or a decrease in the diameter of the efferent arteriole (vasoconstriction) will increase the filtration fraction and vice vers

98
Q

The changes in the tone of these arterioles can maintain a steady glomerular filtration rate between mean arterial

A

pressures of 80 and 180 mmHg.

99
Q

Which of the following clinical signs are consistent with a diagnosis of hypothyroidism? (select four)

A

pressure-controlled ventilation

100
Q

With laparoscopic surgeries hospitalizations are______ recovery _____ pain_______, and pulmonary function are

A

shorter ; faster; less pain: pulmonary function better preserved

101
Q

Preferred anesthetic for Laparoscopic surgery is

A

General anesthesia with cuffed ET. due to discomfort of a pneumoperitoneum, positioning, length of surgical time and hypercarbia.

102
Q

Early ambulation and return to normal activities associated with open vs lap surgeries

A

Laparoscopic surgeries

103
Q

How is a pneumoperitoneum created?

A

When CO2 is insufflated into the peritoneal cavity.

104
Q

Vascular injury during trocar insertion can be diagnosed directly and immediately by

A

Bleeding through the laparoscope.

105
Q

What suggest intravascular injury after trocar insertion>

A

Refractory hypotension and tachycardia

106
Q

Venous return and High IAPs

A

Decreased venous return.

107
Q

How does the pneumoperitoneum affect pulmonary compliance?

A

Pulmonary compliance is reduced by 30-50%

108
Q

The reduction of pulmonary compliance on minute ventilation

A

The minute ventilation needed to avoid hypoxemia and hypercarbia is increased

109
Q

With pneumoperitoneum , the increase in PAW and plateau pressure is due to

A

Diaphragmatic elevation and increased IAPs.

110
Q

What are the 4 common complications that can happen abruptly during insufflation of the peritoneal cavity

A

Subcutaneous emphysema
Pneumothorax
Endobronchial intubation
Gas embolization

111
Q

What causes subcutaneous emphysema during laparoscopic surgery?

A

When the insufflation needle is poorly stabilize and not completely in the peritoneal cavity. Gas accumulates between fascia and peritoneum

112
Q

Signs of subcutaneous emphysema during laparoscopic surgery

A

Rise in PEtCO2 and crepitus along fascia planes in head, neck and abdomen

113
Q

What can cause pneumothorax with laparoscopic surgery?

A

Pressurized gas goes into the pleural cavity .

114
Q

Large pressurized gas to the pleural cavity can lead to a tension affect causing: what happens to
BP, HR, PAW, capnograph, EtCO2.

A 
hypoxia
Hypotension
Tachycardia
High PAW
Obstructive pattern on capnograph
Decreased PEtCO2 as Cardiac Output is compromised
115
Q

With a patient with a small pneumothorax what can be done

A

conservative management if stable and pneumothorax is small because time and manual positive pressure will re-expand the lung.

116
Q

What is a capnothorax?

A

CO2 Pneumothorax that occur during laparoscopy

117
Q

Signs and symptoms of capnothorax

A

worsening obstructive pattern on capnography
Progressive increase in PAW
increasing PEtCO2

118
Q

Action to take with capnothorax?

A

Alert surgeon to release pneumoperitoneum

Chest xray

119
Q

Endobronchial intubation occuring with laparoscopic surgery is due to

A

Cephalad movement of the diaphragm due to pneumoperitoneum and head-down positioning.

120
Q

Prolonged endobronchial intubation lead to

A

desaturation and increased PAW

121
Q

A gas embolism can occur after

A

Trocar or veress needle is inadvertently inserted into a vein or into an abdominal organ and CO2 insufflated

122
Q

Large gas embolism will result in

A

Large physiologic dead space
decrease EtCO2
Hypoxia
hypotension and eventually cardiac arrest

123
Q

Gas embolism first action

A 
CO2 insufflation stopped
FiO2 100%
stop nitrous
increase MV, PEEP
place patient in LEFT LATERAL and TRENDELENBURG POSITION
124
Q

Intraabdominal pressure should never exceed

A

15 mmHg

125
Q

Exceeding 15mmhg of insufflation can lead to

A

increase intrathoracic pressure
Increase Co2 tension,
Physiologic dead space.

126
Q

During insufflation, stretching of the peritoneum can cause

A

A rapid vagal-mediated bradycardia and even asystole.

127
Q

Treatment of insufflation mediated vagal bradycardia is

A

immediate release of pneumoperitoneum even asystole.

Administration of an anti-muscarinic can be helpful

128
Q

MAP , CI with pneumoperitoneum

A

Increased by 35%

CI is decreased by as much as 50%

129
Q

Pneumoperitoneum and immune

A

Pneumoperitoneum lead to a release of humoral factors such as catecholamines, prostaglandins, the RAAS and vasopressin

130
Q

Vasopressin and IAP

A

fivefold increase in vasopressin levels at an IAP of 10 mmHg

131
Q

What are the major implications of pneumoperitoneum>? CO, MAP, PVR,

A 
Decreased CO
MAP unchanged or increased
increased PVR
Increased SVR
Increase neuroendocrine response
Possible bradycardia/asystole from vagal stimulation
132
Q

Very high IAP > 15 mmHg on intrathoracic pressure

A

Limiting venous return

133
Q

Why is arrhythmia associated with pneumoperitoneum?

A

Bradycardia / asystole from peritoneal stretching.

134
Q

During insufflation of the peritoneum, the PaCo2 will

A

Increase and reach a plateau after 15-30 minutes

135
Q

What is the primary mechanism of increased PaCo2 with insufflation?

A

Absorption of Co2 from the peritoneal cavity.

136
Q

Correction of increased PaCo2 with insufflation can be achieved by

A

an increase in alveolar ventilation

137
Q

With patients with impaired CO2 excretion capacity such as COPD or cyanotic heart disease there is not a ____. What shoud be obtained.

A

reliable correlation between PaCo2 and ETCO2.

Obtain arterial blood sampling

138
Q

Top differential diagnosis of hypercarbia during laparoscopy?

A

Prolonged laparoscopy (surgical times)
IAP > 15mmhg due to enlargment of resp dead space
Inadequate minute ventilation

139
Q

Lap cholecystectomy position is

A

RT or head up position

140
Q

Lap Hysterectomy position is

A

Trendelenburg or head down position

141
Q

What is the goal of positioning with laparoscopic procedures?

A

For gravity to displace the abdominal viscera away from the surgical location .

142
Q

Pneumoperitoneum and CO

A

Decreases CO.

143
Q

Pneumoperitneum and lung

A

Decreased lung compliance and volume

144
Q

CV changes with a trendelenburg position

effect on healthy patients?

A

Increased central blood volume to the right heart
Increased CO
(insignificant in healthy)

145
Q

CV changes effect of trendelenburg position with patient with cardiac issues

A

Increase myocardial oxygen demand

acute heart failure.

146
Q

Pulmonic changes of the head down position are

A

decreased vital capacity
FRC
compliance
Tendency of post-op atelectasis.

SEE/NCE Boards CoreConcepts (49 decks)

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