Surgical gastroenterology Flashcards

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1
Q

The acute treatment of painful thrombotic haemorrhoids is:
A) use of laxatives and sit bath
B) haemorrhoidectomy
C) incision of the thrombosed haemorrhoids and the removal of the thrombus
D) rubber band ligation of haemorrhoids
E) local administration of sclerosing injection

A

C) incision of the thrombosed haemorrhoids and the removal of the thrombus

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2
Q

If there is no inguinal metastasis, the appropriate primary treatment of squamous cell carcinoma of the anus is:
A) radio-chemotherapy
B) supervoltage irradiation
C) cytostatic treatment
D) local excision with inguinal lymph node dissection
E) abdominoperineal resection with bilateral inguinal dissection

A

A) radio-chemotherapy

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3
Q

In a patient with a suspicion of appendicitis, in addition to intact appendix and cecum, regional enteritis is detected. The appropriate action to be taken is:
A) ileum biopsy to confirm enteritis
B) ileo-hemicolectomy
C) appendectomy
D) no further intervention
E) bypass ileotransversostomy

A

C) appendectomy

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4
Q

A patient with ulcerative colitis presents in severe condition, with high fever, bloody stool, and abdominal tenderness. Plain abdominal x-ray shows an extremely dilated colon with no free intra-abdominal air. The appropriate action to be taken is:
A) insertion of nasogastric probe, fluid replacement, antibiotic and steroid therapy
B) colectomy + creating a mucus fistula + creating an ileostomy
C) coecostomy
D) colonography
E) colonoscopy

A

B) colectomy + creating a mucus fistula + creating an ileostomy

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5
Q

All of the following treatment options are appropriate for the treatment of second-degree haemorrhoids, EXCEPT:
A) suppositories, ointments
B) radical excision
C) sclerotization
D) rubber band ligation
E) sitz bath

A

B) radical excision

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6
Q

All of the following statements are valid regarding villous adenomas. EXCEPT:
A) their lobuli give a typical macroscopic image
B) they may cause significant potassium loss
C) their malignant potential is lower than other adenomas’
D) their malignant potential increases proportionally with their size
E) they are accompanied by significant mucus production

A

C) their malignant potential is lower than other adenomas’

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7
Q

In the case of colorectal cancer causing no occlusion and solitary liver metastasis, the action that needs to be taken is:
A) radiotherapy of colorectal cancer
B) resection of colorectal carcinoma
C) local electrocoagulation
D) resection of the rectum and the removal of liver metastasis
E) creation of ileostomy

A

D) resection of the rectum and the removal of liver metastasis

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8
Q

What is UICC?
A) the international cancer organization of the United Nations
B) bowel stapler used to preserve the rectum
C) an international anti-cancer organization
D) chemotherapy regimen for colorectal cancer
E) a rare form of granulomatous colitis

A

C) an international anti-cancer organization

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9
Q

All of the following statements are valid regarding ulcerative colitis. EXCEPT:
A) severe bleeding
B) macroscopically coherent lesion
C) large, deep ulcers
D) responds well to drug therapy
E) perforation may occur

A

C) large, deep ulcers

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10
Q

Current treatment of acute cholecystitis is:
A) targeted antibiotic therapy and the application of ice packs
B) cholecystectomy within the first 48 hours following the onset of symptoms
C) radiation therapy to reverse the inflammatory process
D) anti-inflammatory, IV steroid treatment, combined with contact dissolution therapy

A

B) cholecystectomy within the first 48 hours following the onset of symptoms

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11
Q

What is Courvoisier’s sign?
A) painful, hydropic gallbladder
B) painless, palpable gallbladder
C) palpable pancreatic head tumour
D) palpable pseudocyst

A

B) painless, palpable gallbladder

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12
Q

Actions that need to be taken in the case of acute upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage are:
A) inserting a venous cannula, hematocrit (HCT) monitoring
B) fluid and blood replacement
C) esophagogastroscopy
D) all
E) A and B answers

A

D) all

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13
Q

All of the following statements are physical signs of an advanced gastric cancer, EXCEPT:
A) positive Blumer’s shelf finding
B) presence of ascites
C) palpable tumour in the epigastrium
D) presence of Virchow’s lymph node
E) palpable inguinal lymph node

A

E) palpable inguinal lymph node

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14
Q

The functional disorder of the oesophagus caused by Tripanosoma cruzii infection is:
A) oesophagus diverticulum
B) achalasia
C) reflux disease
D) diffuse oesophageal spasm

A

B) achalasia

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15
Q

The most common oesophagus diverticulum is:
A) Zenker’s diverticulum
B) epiphrenic diverticulum
C) middle third traction diverticulum
D) Meckel-diverticulum

A

A) Zenker’s diverticulum

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16
Q

In the case of massive, shock-inducing gastrointestinal haemorrhage, the most urgent action that needs to be taken is:
A) localization of bleeding
B) volume replacement
C) angiography
D) coagulation test

A

B) volume replacement

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17
Q

In portal hypertension, the following factors influence the development of ascites. EXCEPT:
A) increase in intravascular pressure in the portal system
B) hypoproteinemia
C) spider naevi
D) water electrolyte imbalances

A

C) spider naevi

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18
Q

The following procedures are surgical procedures performed due to portal hypertension in order to reduce direct bleeding. EXCEPT:
A) sclerotization of oesophageal varices
B) splenorenal shunt
C) oesophageal transection
D) endoscopic ligature

A

B) splenorenal shunt

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19
Q

The following collateral systems play an important role in portal hypertension. EXCEPT:
A) gastroesophageal collateral network
B) epigastric vein - internal thoracic vein system
C) haemorrhoid collaterals
D) umbilical veins
E) retroperitoneal network

A

B) epigastric vein - internal thoracic vein system

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20
Q

Which of the following cases of portal hypertension is an indication for surgery?
A) in patients with cirrhosis, in the case of oesophageal varices, if there is a history of bleeding
B) in the case of oesophageal varices for prophylactic purposes
C) in the case of ascites that cannot be influenced by internal medicine treatment
D) in the case of persistent icterus and poor liver functions
E) in poor general health condition

A

A) in patients with cirrhosis, in the case of oesophageal varices, if there is a history of bleeding

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21
Q

The prognosis of the treatment of the patient with acute oesophageal bleeding is good. EXCEPT if:
A) his consciousness is intact
B) he is not disoriented
C) he does not have cachexia
D) he has icterus
E) he has no ascites

A

D) he has icterus

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22
Q

The following disorders cause paralytic ileus. EXCEPT:
A) mesenteric artery occlusion
B) hypokalaemia
C) pancreatitis
D) gastrointestinal bleeding
E) perforation

A

D) gastrointestinal bleeding

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23
Q

The most common cause of portal hypertension is:
A) extrahepatic portal vein obstruction
B) cirrhosis
C) increased visceral arterial circulation
D) post hepatic venous outflow obstruction
E) right-sided heart failure

A

B) cirrhosis

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24
Q

Which of the test methods listed below can detect colorectal cancer with the greatest accuracy?
A) tumour marker test
B) colorectal thermography
C) stool analysis
D) colonoscopy

A

D) colonoscopy

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25
Q

The following factors influence the prognosis of oesophageal cancer. EXCEPT:
A) tumour stage
B) feasibility of R0 resection
C) type of therapy
D) age of the patient

A

D) age of the patient

26
Q

The routine treatment of bile duct stones causing jaundice is:
A) ERCP, endoscopic sphincterotomy and stone extraction
B) contact dissolution therapy
C) unblocking extrahepatic bile ducts surgically from laparotomy
D) removal of stones with percutaneous trans hepatic approach

A

A) ERCP, endoscopic sphincterotomy and stone extraction

27
Q

The following conditions presumably contribute to the development of oesophageal cancer. EXCEPT:
A) achalasia
B) corrosive stricture
C) diffuse oesophageal spasm
D) Barrett-oesophagus

A

C) diffuse oesophageal spasm

28
Q

The most accurate method of diagnosing bleeding oesophageal varices is:
A) swallowing test
B) esophagoscopy
C) selective angiography
D) oesophageal balloon tamponade (Blakemore tube)
E) splenoportography

A

B) esophagoscopy

29
Q

The following conditions are common complications of choledochus stones. EXCEPT:
A) pancreatitis
B) mechanical icterus
C) cholangitis
D) liver cancer

A

D) liver cancer

30
Q

What is Charcot’s triad?
A) a combination of fever, jaundice and abdominal pain
B) a combination of jaundice and painless hydrops
C) a combination of hydrops, Biliary colic and chills

A

A) a combination of fever, jaundice and abdominal pain

31
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true for LC (laparoscopic cholecystectomy)?
A) Bleeding can be so severe that the surgical intervention needs to be converted to an open surgery.
B) The so-called benefit-cost ratio is considerably more favourable than in open cholecystectomy.
C) The removal of the hydropic gallbladder is not possible during LC, because the gallbladder is too tight to be grabbed well with the instruments.
D) In patients with severe arrhythmia, “pneumoperitoneum” made during LC may be unfavourable.

A

C) The removal of the hydropic gallbladder is not possible during LC, because the gallbladder is too tight to be grabbed well with the instruments.

32
Q

Which of the following interventions would you recommend to a patient with combined gallstones as the least invasive and the lowest-risk intervention?
A) first step is the removal of the gall bladder and, in case of jaundice, choledochus exploration
B) LC after successful EST
C) open cholecystectomy and choledochus exploration with Kehr’s drainage
D) open cholecystectomy and drainage surgery (eg choledochoduodenostomy or choledochojejunostomy).

A

B) LC after successful EST

33
Q

When is PTC contraindicated?
1) if the patient suffers from coagulopathy which is not corrected
2) if intrahepatic stones are also formed
3) if the intrahepatic bile ducts are narrowed
4) if only biliary draining is planned

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct

34
Q

Prognosis for bleeding gastroduodenal ulcer depends on:
1) intensity of bleeding
2) activity of bleeding
3) patient’s age
4) site of bleeding

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

35
Q

Possible complication for gastroesophageal reflux disease is:
1) reflux laryngitis
2) aspirational pneumonia
3) oesophageal adenocarcinoma
4) Schatzki ring

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

36
Q

Possible therapy options for treating first-stage achalasia
1) Calcium channel blocker medications
2) balloon dilation
3) Heller myotomy
4) botulinum toxin injections

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

37
Q

Resection of the terminal ileum results in:
1) anaemia
2) loss of biliary acids
3) loss of Vitamin B12
4) low levels of serum Fe

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

38
Q

Risk for colorectal cancer is increased in the following conditions:
1) familial polyposis
2) pseudomembranous colitis
3) Gardner syndrome
4) juvenile polyposis

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct

39
Q

In acute pancreatitis, the following may refer to unfavourable prognosis:
1) extended necrosis
2) high levels of serum amylase
3) infection
4) meteorism

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct

40
Q

The following may mimic the manifestations of acute appendicitis:
1) mesenteric lymphadenitis
2) acute cholecystitis
3) perforated duodenal ulcer
4) right-sided ureterolithiasis

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

41
Q

Symptoms of diffuse peritonitis are:
1) tachycardia
2) oliguria
3) muscular defense
4) diarrhoea involving hyperperistaltics

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

42
Q

The following are common complications of acute pancreatitis, except:
1) pseudocyst formation
2) ARDS
3) diabetes mellitus
4) bleeding varix of the oesophagus

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

D) only 4th answer is correct

43
Q

Observable symptoms during perforation of duodenal ulcer:
1) sudden onset epigastric pain
2) free peritoneal fluid on ultrasound examination
3) free peritoneal gas present on plain abdominal X-ray picture
4) hyperperistaltic bowel sounds

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

44
Q

Signs and symptoms of gallstone ileus:
1) intermittent cramping abdominal pain
2) air present within the biliary tract
3) intestinal gas-fluid levels on X-ray examination
4) tenesmus

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

45
Q

The following statements are true when tarry stools occur:
1) it may even be caused by only 50 ml of blood
2) it is more often indicative of upper GI bleeding
3) the black color may be due to reaction between gastric acids and hemoglobin
4) it may be detected for a few days even after the bleeding has stopped

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

46
Q

Familial polyposis is characterised by:
1) risk of malignancy
2) number of the polyps are between 10–20
3) correct treatment involves total proctocolectomy
4) may be treated effectively with colposcopic excision

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

B) 1st and 3rd answers are correct

47
Q

Which factors increase the probability of the presence of stones at the choledochus?
1) elevated serum bilirubin levels
2) elevated levels of serum alkaline phosphatase (above 39 IU)
3) diameter of choledochus lumen exceeds 12 mm
4) familial hyperlipidaemia
5) if biliary drainage detects Giardia lamblia
6) occurrence of jaundice in patient history

A) 1st, 2nd and 6th answers are correct
B) 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 6th answers are correct
C) 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
D) 3rd, 5th and 6th answers are correct
E) 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

B) 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 6th answers are correct

48
Q

Gastric cancer is incurable if:
1) carcinosis peritonei is present
2) multiple liver metastases are present
3) the tumour affects the left adrenal gland and hilus of the spleen
4) the tumour affects the body and tail of the pancreas

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st, 2nd and 4th answers are correct
C) 1st and 2nd answers are correct
D) 1st, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
E) 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct

A

C) 1st and 2nd answers are correct

49
Q

Development of colon carcinoma is enhanced by:
1) high animal fat content diet
2) fibre rich diet
3) prior cholecystectomy
4) ulcerative colitis
5) presence of polyps bigger than 3 cm

A) 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
B) 1st, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
C) 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
D) 1st, 3rd, 4th and 5th answers are correct
E) 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
F) 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct
G) 3rd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

E) 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct

50
Q

What is the role of coloscopy in the diagnosis of colon diseases?
1) It ensures accurate visualization of mucosal lesions
2) It provides biopsies from mucosal lesions
3) It can be used to remove small sized mucosal lesions
4) It provides basis for assessing the depth of a tumour and its adjacent relationships

A) 1st, 2nd, and 3rd answers are correct
B) 1st and 3rd are answers correct
C) 1st and 2nd are answers correct
D) 3rd and 4th are answers correct

A

A) 1st, 2nd, and 3rd answers are correct

51
Q

Which type of operation may be assigned to the following diagnoses:
A) Esophageal transection
B) Heller operation
C) Antireflux operation
D) Torek operation
E) cricopharyngeomyotomy

SUR - 4.65 - achalasia cardiae
SUR - 4.66 - reflux oesophagitis
SUR - 4.67 - oesophageal perforation
SUR - 4.68 - cervical dysphagia
SUR - 4.69 - oesophageal varicosity

A

65- B
66- C
67- D
68- E
69- A

52
Q

Match the diagnoses with the items represented by numbers:
A) acute cholangitis
B) gangrenous cholecystitis
C) enter biliary fistula
D) spontaneous rupture of hepatic adenoma
E) pancreatic head cancer

SUR - 4.70 - Courvoisier’s gallbladder
SUR - 4.71 - Charcot’s triad
SUR - 4.72 - haemobilia and GI bleeding may occur
SUR - 4.73 - air bubbles in the biliary ducts
SUR - 4.74 - air bubbles within the wall of the gallbladder and gallbladder bed

A

70- E
71- A
72- D
73- C
74- B

53
Q

In acute necrotic pancreatitis there is no specific medication therapy, therefore, antibiotics are not given.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;

54
Q

Helicobacter pylori plays an important role in the etiology of gastric lymphomas, therefore, a number of gastric lymphomas may be cured when Helicobacter pylori is eradicated.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;

55
Q

Helicobacter pylori plays an important role in the etiology of gastric lymphomas, therefore, a number of gastric lymphomas may be cured when Helicobacter pylori is eradicated.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;

56
Q

The secretin test provides significant assistance in the differential diagnostics between Zollinger–Ellison syndrome and hypergastrinaemia, since Z-E syndrome is usually associated with an elevation in gastrin levels due to the effect of secretin.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;

57
Q

Chronic pancreatitis leads to progressive parenchyma damage, therefore, pain will disappear after some time.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;

58
Q

The mortality rate for Whipple surgery may be as low as 5% with a highly experienced surgeon, therefore, patients with pancreatic tumour at the age 70 may also undergo this operation.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;

59
Q

Distension and gas-fluid levels observed on plain abdominal x-ray picture does not indicate intestinal obstruction in all cases, because gas-fluid levels often presents with enteritis, and distension may also be due to the effect of medications.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;

60
Q

Opiate pain relievers may hide abdominal symptoms, therefore, analgesics are not given in case of acute abdominal conditions.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;

61
Q

In intestinal occlusion, a large quantity of fluids and electrolytes is lost, therefore, endotoxin producing microbes may potentially accumulate in the intestines.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;