Surgery - Other Flashcards

1
Q

What are the clinical features of pyloric stenosis?

A

vomiting - becoming increasingly frequent and forcefulness over time ultimately becoming projectile
hunger after vomiting until dehydration
weight loss if presentation is delayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is pyloric stenosis?When does it present?

A

hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle causing gastric outlet obstruction presents at 2-8 weeks of age, irrespective of gestational age more common in boys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is a diagnosis made of pyloric stenosis?

A
  • diagnosis can be made through ultrasound
  • test feed is performed
  • calms the hungry infant and allows examination to be performed
  • gastric peristalsis can be seen across the abdomen and pyloric mass which feels like an olive is usually palpable in the right upper quadrant
  • ultra sound examination can be helpful
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is pyloric stenosis managed?

A

1) correct fluid and electrolyte disturbance with IV fluids

2) pyloromyotomy operation (division of hypertrophied muscle) can be performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What fluid and electrolytes imbalance occurs in pyloric stenosis?

A

vomiting contents from the stomach causes:

  • a hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis
  • hyponatraemia
  • hypokalaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the differential diagnosis of cervical lymphadenopathy in children?

A
TB 
Toxoplasmosis 
SLE 
Syphilis 
Infection - chickenpox, HIV, rubella
Lymphoma 
Leukaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is lymphadenopathy investigated?

A

examination

biopsy for large nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is suppurative adenitis/lymphadenitis?

A

common form of soft tissue caused by staph aureus or strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does cleft lip present?

A

may be unilateral or bilateral

failure of fusion of the frontonasal and maxillary processs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the common associations with cleft lip/palette?

A

may be part of a syndrome of abnormalities (chromosomal disorders) may be detected on antenatal ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the problems associated with cleft lip/palette?

A

feeding is more difficult and in bottle fed babies though some breast fed babies can be successfully fed surgical repair of the lip occurs at 3 months and palette at 6-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does congenital diaphragmatic hernia present?

A
  • failure to respond to resuscitation
  • respiratory distress
  • heart and bowel sounds are displaced
  • usually picked up on antenatal scan
  • x ray shows left sided herniation of abdominal contents through posterolateral foramen of the diaphragm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is diaphragmatic hernia treated?

A
avoid mask ventilation 
intubate immediately 
use NG to deflate bowel 
surgical repair 
mortality is high if lungs are hypoplastic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does a trachea-oesophageal fistula present?

A

if not suspected before birth then presents with

  • persistent salivation
  • drooling from the mouth
  • infant will cough and choke when fed
  • may be aspiration into the lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is the diagnosis of oesophageal fistula made?

A

pass NG tube and x ray is checked to see if it reaches the stomach
see polyhyramnios antenatally as baby can’t swallow amniotic fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What conditions is oesophageal atresia associated with?

A

VACTERL conditions

vertebral ano-rectal cardiactracheo-oesophageal atresia/fistula renal limb

17
Q

How is oesophageal atresia managed?

A

1-2 days after birth, tie off fistula post repair risk of strictures is high and RF for GORD later

  • NG drainage, tracheostomy, gastrostomy, IV hydration + abx
  • If no pulmonary complications, repair within first few days of life
  • Complications – parenteral nutrition, gastrostomy + upper pouch suction until lower risk
  • Palliative – treatment is relief of obstruction + diversion of contamination away from respiratory tract
18
Q

What is an ano-rectal malformation?

A

imperforate anus and fistula to vagina or scrotum classified as high or low (low easier to treat)

19
Q

How are anorectal malformations surgically managed?

A

colostomy initially and pull through later

long term issue of continence

20
Q

What are the differential diagnoses of a congenital neck cyst based on anatomical location?

A
thyroglossal duct cysts
brachial cleft cysts
dermoid cyst 
vascular malformations 
hemangiomas
21
Q

How should a child with a head injury be assessed and investigated?

(long)

A

ABCDE
Is the child responsive/unresponsive?
Is the child breathing?

Then:
Suspicion of non-accidental injury 
Post-traumatic injury 
Glasgow coma scale 
Suspected open or depressed skull fractures
Sign of basal skull fracture 
Focal neuro signs 
Bruise or swelling in <1 year olds 
if YES --> CT 

Then:
loss of consciousness >5 min
drowsiness
3 or more discrete episodes of vomiting
Dangerous mechanism of injury
Amnesia lasting >5 mins
if YES - admit and observe, CT if further concerns

22
Q

What are the indications for admission and imaging in a head injury?

A

no symptoms/signs and benign mechanism of injury = discharge home with written advice

minor symptoms or dangerous mechanism of injury = monitor for evolution of symptoms

significant or progressive symptoms or signs - resuscitate (if necessary), CT scan, and neurosurgical referral if appropriate

23
Q

What are the differentials for a solid tumour?

A
Sarcomas 
Carcinomas 
Neuroblastoma 
Wilms tumour 
Rhabdomyosarcoma 
Retinoblastoma 
Osteosarcoma and Ewing sarcoma
24
Q

What is Wilms tumour?

A

originates form embryological renal tissue
uncommon after 10 years
presents with large abdominal mass and haematuria

25
Q

What is neuroblastoma?

A

tumours arise from neural crest tissue in the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system can be benign or highly malignant more common before the age of 5 can present with metastatic disease

26
Q

What is a sacrococcygeal teratoma?

A

presents in the newbron, tumour is located at the base of tail bone
they are not ususally malignant