Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Surgery > Surgery IV > Flashcards

Surgery IV Flashcards

1
Q

What head and neck infection is characterized by trismus, muffled voice, and deviation of the uvula on physical exam?

A

Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)

other symptoms include fever, pharyngeal pain, and earache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What hip movement (flexion or extension) worsens the pain associated with a hip septic arthritis?

A

Hip flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What hip movement (flexion or extension) worsens the pain associated with a psoas abscess?

A

Hip extension

i.e. the psoas sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What imaging modality can confirm the diagnosis of diaphragmatic rupture in patients with suggestive X-ray findings?

A

CT scan (chest, abdomen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What imaging modality is best for confirming a meniscal tear?

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What imaging modality is preferred for diagnosis of acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

CT angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What imaging modality is typically used to diagnose acute cholecystitis?

A

Ultrasound

CT scan also be used but is less sensitive; HIDA scan is useful when US findings are indeterminate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What imaging modality is used for diagnosis of a psoas abscess?

A

CT scan of abdomen/pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What imaging modality is used for the definitive diagnosis of syringomyelia?

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What imaging modality is used to confirm a diagnosis of duodenal hematoma?

A

Abdominal CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What imaging modality is used to confirm a rotator cuff tear?

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What imaging modality is used to determine the need for urgent surgical intervention in patients with ischemic colitis (e.g. extensive bowel damage, perforation)?

A

CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What imaging modality is used to diagnose urethral injury?

A

Retrograde urethrogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What imaging modality is useful for hemodynamically stable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST exam?

A

CT scan of the abdomen

helps distinguish blood from urine or ascites and can help quantify the amount of intraperitoneal blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What imaging modality should be used to confirm placement of a central venous catheter tip?

A

Chest X-ray

this step may be omitted in the setting of an uncomplicated ultrasound-guided CVC placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What imaging modality should be used to evaluate a suspected urethral injury (e.g. patient with a penile fracture)?

A

Retrograde urethrogram

symptoms may include blood at the meatus, dysuria, urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What imaging test can confirm the diagnosis of ischemic colitis after a CT scan has been obtained?

A

Colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What initial imaging modality is used to diagnose GI perforation?

A

Upright X-ray of chest and abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a common early clinical feature of compartment syndrome?

A

Paresthesia

due to sensory nerve ischemia

20
Q

What is next step for blunt abdominal trauma with GI perforation identified on CT?

A

Exploratory laparotomy

21
Q

What is the best initial step in the management of a hemodynamically stable patient with hemoptysis and a high clinical suspicion for tuberculosis?

A

Respiratory isolation

22
Q

What is the emergency treatment of choice for acalculous cholecystitis in a critically ill patient?

A

antibiotics and percutaneous cholecystostomy

followed by cholecystectomy when the medical condition stabilizes

23
Q

What is the first step in the management of a necrotizing surgical site infection?

A

Surgical exploration and debridement

adjunctive therapies including broad-spectrum antibiotics, adequate hydation, and tight glycemic control are also important

24
Q

What is the first step in the management of cervical spinal trauma?

A

Spine immobilization

25
Q

What is the first step in the treatment of acute upper GI bleed (e.g. variceal hemorrhage) in a patient with a normal airway/breathing?

A

Vascular access with 2 large-bore IV catheters

26
Q

What is the first test used to evaluate splenic injury in a hemodynamically stable and alert patient?

A

Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST)

27
Q

What is the first test used to evaluate splenic injury in a hemodynamically stable patient with altered mental status?

A

CT scan of abdomen

in stable patients with AMS, the FAST exam is often skipped

28
Q

What is the fluid of choice to restore volume quickly in the management of septic shock?

A

IV 0.9% saline (crystalloid)

equally effective as albumin, but less costly and easier to acquire

29
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of sphincter of Oddi dysfunction?

A

sphincter of Oddi manometry

30
Q

What is the ideal placement for a central venous catheter tip?

A

Lower superior vena cava

31
Q

What is the initial intervention for the management of stress fractures of the 2nd, 3rd, or 4th metatarsals?

A

rest and simple analgesics (e.g. acetaminophen)

non-union is uncommon

32
Q

What is the initial management for a large pneumothorax in a hemodynamically stable patient?

A

Needle decompression

33
Q

What is the initial management for a small (< 2 cm), spontaneous pneumothorax?

A

observation and supplemental O2

most common in tall, thin, men in their early 20s

34
Q

What is the initial management for a tension pneumothorax in a hemodynamically unstable patient?

A

Urgent tube thoracostomy or needle decompression

35
Q

What is the initial management for hemodynamically stable patients with an appendiceal abscess?

A

IV hydration, antibiotics, and bowel rest

appendectomy should not be performed right away (may return in 6-8 weeks for elective appendectomy, “interval appendectomy”); abscess formation should be suspected in patients who present > 5 days after the onset of symptoms

36
Q

What is the initial screening test for blunt aortic trauma?

A

Chest X-ray

should be ruled out in patients with blunt deceleration trauma (MVA or fall from > 10 feet)

37
Q

What is the initial step in management of dumping syndrome?

A

Dietary modification

38
Q

What is the initial step in the management of small-bowel obstruction that is complicated by fever, hypotension, and tachycardia?

A

Urgent surgical exploration

39
Q

What is the initial treatment for prerenal acute kidney injury in patients with evidence of hypovolemia?

A

IV fluid bolus

40
Q

What is the likely cause of gastric outlet obstruction in a patient with a history of acid ingestion?

A

Pyloric stricture

characterized by early satiety, nausea, non-bilious vomiting, weight loss, and abdominal succussion splash

41
Q

What is the management for a young patient with persistent symptoms due to a meniscal tear?

A

Surgery (after evaluation by MRI)

42
Q

What is the management for older and/or mildly symptomatic patients with meniscal tears?

A

rest/activity modification

43
Q

What is the most common blood transfusion reaction?

A

Febrile non-hemolytic reaction

44
Q

What is the most common cause of lower extremity edema?

A

Venous insufficiency (valvular incompetence)

classically worsens throughout the day and resolves overnight

45
Q

What is the most common cause of primary hypoparathyroidism?

A

Post-surgical

46
Q

What is the most common cause of small-bowel obstruction (SBO) in the U.S?

A

Adhesions

typically result from abdominal operations or inflammatory processes; other common causes include hernias (#1 cause in developing countries) and malignancy

47
Q

What is the most common location for anal fissures?

A

Posterior midline

Surgery (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions