Surgery Final Flashcards

1
Q

what are 3 questions to ask when you get an oncology case

A

1) what is it
2) where is it
3) how bad is it

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2
Q

what are two reasons to give prophylactic antibiotics

A

> 2h
entry into a hollow viscus (dirty surgery)

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3
Q

when would you give antibiotics prior to surgery if you want them to be in the blood for when you cut

A

30 minutes prior

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4
Q

why are biological indicators more accurate than chemical indicators

A

indicates there was appropriate temperature and time to kill the organisms present in the biological indicator

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5
Q

what are 3 important characteristics for choosing suture material

A

strength, suture size, monofilament vs multifilament, absorbable vs non-absorbable

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6
Q

what areas of the gown are not sterile

A

back, 2 inches above the elbows, neck, shoulders, below the armpits, anything below the level of the surgical field, cuffs

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7
Q

describe flash sterilization

A

unwrapped instruments placed in an open tray with towel lining bottom; 132 C for 4 min minimum; requires prevacuum autoclave

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8
Q

describe steam sterilization

A

uses a gravity displacement autoclave (like a pressure cooker); controlled temperature, pressure and time; minimum 121 C for 30 minutes; arrange instruments vertically and do not overfill

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9
Q

describe ethylene oxide sterilization

A

kills all microorganisms using gas (chemical sterilization); many illegal in Canada and the US; requires long aeration times; cannot use on some material such as plastic and rubber

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10
Q

describe plasma sterilization

A

uses vapour phase hydrogen peroxide; no aeration or toxic residues; expensive and cannot sterilize all materials with this method (ex. gauze, plastics)

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11
Q

describe cold sterilization

A

used for instruments for “dirty” surgeries; soaking instruments in chemicals such as glutaraldehyde; must rinse thoroughly before using

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12
Q

describe radiation sterilization

A

uses gamma radiation; commonly in manufacturing settings due to cost and regulations

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13
Q

describe primary fracture healing

A

occurs when there is absolute fracture stabilty (<2% strain and <0.01mm gap)

Steps:
1) initial fibrin matrix with angiogenesis
2) lamellar bone fills gap within days-weeks; initially laid down perpendicular and eventually is reorganized

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14
Q

describe secondary fracture healing

A

occurs when there is good fracture stability; sequential production of granulation tissue, fibrous tissue, fibrocartilage, bone; faster than primary bone healing

Steps:
1) inflammation
2) intramembranous ossification
3) soft callus (chondrogenesis)
4) hard callus (endochondral ossification)
5) bone remodelling

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15
Q

what type of fracture can you use a pin-cerclage for?

A

simple long oblique (>2x width of bone) or spiral fractures

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16
Q

what are the 3 bandage layers

A

contact, padding, compression

17
Q

what type of splint can immobilize the humerus

18
Q

what is a Velpau sling

A

immobilizes the elbow

19
Q

What is the Ehmer sling

A

immobilizes a hindlimb

20
Q

what are the wound classifications

A

clean, clean-contaminated, contaminated, dirty

21
Q

what are the 3 complications of bone healing

A

malalignment, non-alignment, delayed alignment

22
Q

what are the 5 forces acting on the bone and what type of fracture would they create

A

SIMPLE
- tension (transverse fracture)
- compression (oblique fracture)
- shearing (transverse fracture)

COMPLEX
- torsion (spiral fracture)
- bending (Y-shaped fracture)

23
Q

how do you describe a fracture (6)

A
  • bone involved
  • location within the bone
  • fracture complexity (simple, comminuted, segmental)
  • fracture configuration (spiral, wedge, oblique, transverse)
  • fracture characteristic (open, closed)
  • displacement
24
Q

what are the types of biopsies

A

incision and excisionaln

25
what are the two types of incisional biopsy? excisional biopsy?
incisional: Wedge/keyes punch; Core/Tru-cut excisional: Keyes punch; surgical
26
what are the pros and cons of incisional biopsy
pros: won't change change of a future clean cut; won't change definitive surgical margins cons: always requires a second surgery (unless benign)
27
what are the pros and cons of excisional biopsy
pros: may be curative cons: increases future surgical margins; may decrease the chance of a clean cut
28
what are the steps in the scrub after patient clipping
1) Chlorhexidine (2: dirty and clean) 2) Alcohol (3 passes) 3) Chlorhexidine/Alcohol (3 passes)
29
What are the steps in burying a knot?
START: Deep to superficial (surgeon side) -> superficial to deep (opposite side) -> tie 6x END: Superficial to deep -> pull through -> deep to superficial -> superficial to deep -> tie 7x
30
What is the difference between staging and grading a tumor
Staging: extent (looking at local LN, lungs, etc...) Grading: behaviour (requires histopathology)
31
What are the 3 different ligaments in the female reproductive tract and what are their connection points?
1) Suspensory (ovary to kidney) 2) Broad (uterus to body wall) 3) Proper (ovary to uterine horn)
32
Put the following suture material in order of speed of absorption (fastest absorption to slowest absorption) - Monocryl - PDS - Vicryl - Prolene
Monocryl, Vicryl, PDS, Prolene
33
Where would you clip for an exploratory laparotomy
Cranial to xyphoid and distal to pubis
34
What is the first structure you would see when doing a cranial abdominal incision
falciform ligament
35
what does CREPI stand for
Crepitus Range of motion Effusion Pain Instability
36
What are the most common nerve blocks in cats
inferior alveolar and infraorbital
37
what are the 9 steps in a spay
1) locate and break/cut suspensory ligament 2) make window in broad ligament 3) apply clamps (in dogs) 4) apply ligatures 5) cut pedicle, observe for bleeding 6) repeat 2-5 on other side 7) locate/break down broad ligament 8) ligate uterine aa and uterine body 9) cut uterine body, observe for bleeding