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Step 2 CK > Surgery > Flashcards

Surgery Flashcards

0
Q

Icp tx (3)

A

Elevate head
Hyperventilate to pco2 35
Meds

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1
Q

Blown pupil with contralateral hemiparesis

A

Epidural hematoma on side of pupil.

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2
Q

Dx for gsw to upper neck

A

Arteriographic studies

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3
Q

2 sx of brown-sequard

A

Paralysis on same side distal

Loss of pain on distal contralateral side

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4
Q

Lost (2) and preserved (1) of anterior cord syndrome

A

Loss motor and pain

Preserved proprioception

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5
Q

Syndrome with hyper extension of neck in elderly and sx

A

Central cord syndrome

Paralysis and burnning of UE only

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6
Q

Rib fracture tx in elderly (2)

A

Local nerve block and epidural

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7
Q

Indication for surgery after chest tube in hemothorax

A

1500 mL from chest tube

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8
Q

Tx flail chest

A

Restrict fluids and diurese

Monitor ABGs

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9
Q

Most common site of metastasis crc

A

Liver

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10
Q

Sequence of 3 cr polyps. Increasing to more dangerous

A

Tubular, tubulovillous, villous

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12
Q

Type of pain relief for biliary dz

A

Demerol (meperidine)

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13
Q

asymtomatic dz to suspect in severe deceleration injury w/ chest bones difficult to break (sternum, scapula, or first rib)

A

ruptured aorta

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14
Q

3 locations where 1500 mL of blood can “hide”

A

pelvis, thighs, abdomen

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15
Q

3 tx for possible renal failure in sever electrical burns

A

fluids
mannitol
alkalinize urine

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16
Q

legs in rule of 9’s

A

each leg is 2 9’s

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17
Q

trunk of person in rule of 9’s

A

4 units

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18
Q

target with rehydration after burn (2, 1 target, 1 to monitor)

A

hourly urinary output of 1-2 mL/kg

avoiding CVP over 15 mmHg

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19
Q

SA (surface area) threshold for treating burns with ringer lactate

A

> 20% of body surface

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20
Q

bolus in babies

A

20 mL/kg

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21
Q

2 changes in rule of 9 in babies

A

head = 2 9’s

2 legs = 3 9’s (instead of 4)

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22
Q

prophylaxis to burn patients

A

tetanus

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23
Q

3 oitments for burns (shallow, deep, near eyes)

A

silver sulfadiazine
mafenide acetate
triple abx ointment

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24
Q

tx(2) for all bites

A

tetanus

wound care

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25
Q

black widow antidote

A

IV calcium gluconate

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26
Q

helpful drug for brown recluse

A

dapsone

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27
Q

chubby 13 yo w/ groin or knee pain

legs dangling, affected side points in

A

slipped capital femoral epiphysis

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28
Q

little kid w/ fever
severe localized pain in bone
-XR
condition, test, and tx

A

acute hematogenous osteomyelitis
MRI
abx

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29
Q

dz = consistent varus beyond age 3

A

blount dz

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30
Q

inward turned feet w/ plantar flexion, inversion

seen at birth

A 
talipes equinovarus
(club foot)
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31
Q

monteggia fracture vs galeazzi fracture

A

mont: fracture of proximal 1/3 ulna
gale: distal radius

Mount Ulna and Gale-adius

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32
Q

tx of scaphoid fracture

A

thumb spica cast

(remember XR show fx 3 weeks later!

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33
Q

apearance of hip fracture (2)

A

shortened and externally rotated leg

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34
Q

tx for postop of intertrochanteric fx of hip

A

anticoagulation

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35
Q

describing fractures (5)

A

LD PAU

Location
Displaced
Pattern (transverse vs oblique vs comminuted)
Angulation/Rotation
Unusual Circumstance
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36
Q

most reliable sign of compartment syndrome

A

excruciating pain w/passive extension

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37
Q

tx and dx of De Quervain tenosynovitis

A

thumb in fist, and ulnar deviation = pain

steroid injection

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38
Q

tx of felon

A

surgical drainage

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39
Q

PEx finding w/ disc dz

A

straight leg testing gives excruciating pain

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40
Q

amaurosis fugax

A

transient visual loss one eye

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41
Q

carbuncle

A

collection boils (furuncles)

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42
Q

furuncle

A

boil (small subcu staph infection of follicle)

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43
Q

inspissated

A

hard

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44
Q

lieno-

A

denoting spleen

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45
Q

obstipation

A

failure to pass flatus or stool

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46
Q

-pexy vs. -raphe

A

pexy = fixation (pexation)

raphe=repair

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47
Q

phlegmon

A

soft tissue inflammation (commonly pancreatic)

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48
Q

succus

A

fluid

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49
Q

ballance’s sign

A

dullness to percussion L flank, resonance on R.

splenic rupture

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50
Q

carcinoid triad

A

FDR

flushing, diarrhea, R. sided heart failure

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51
Q

blue coloration of periumbilical area

A

cullen’s sign = retroperitoneal hemorrhage cought be hemmhoragic pancreatitis

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52
Q

obturator sign

A

passive internal rotation of leg

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53
Q

pheochromocytoma (3)

A

PhD

palps, HA, episodic diaphoresis

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54
Q

psoas sign

A

keep knee extended, and passively extend hip (on side)

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55
Q

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

A

perihepatic gonorrhea

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56
Q

3 things (besides GI polyps in Gardner’s syndrome)

A

Gardeners plant SOD

sebaceous cysts
osteoma
desmoid tumors

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57
Q

most common indication for surgery w/ Crohn’s

A

SBO : small bowel obstruction

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58
Q

most common bacteria in stool

A

Bacteroides fragilis

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59
Q

Upright AXR finding w/SBO

A

air-fluid levels

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60
Q

position of anal fissure

A

posterior

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61
Q

most common benign tumor of liver

A

hemangioma

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62
Q

monocryl

A

absorbable monofilament

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63
Q

postop ordering

A

VAN DISL

Vital signs and monitoring
Activity
Nutrition
Drugs
IV
Special orders
Labs, XR
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64
Q

normal time period for wound tensile strength

A

6 weeks

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65
Q

increased complications after what time period with ileus

A

3-5 days

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66
Q

IV maintenance

A

4-2-1 rule
4 cc/kg for the first 10 kgs of a patient’s weight
2 cc/kg for the next 10 kgs of a patient’s weight
1 cc/kg for the rest of the patient’s weight

60 kg person = 100 mL/hr

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67
Q

when do you look at bandage?

A

after 48 hours (daily)

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68
Q

2 labs if concerned about shock/resuscitation

A

ABG and lactate

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69
Q

contents seroma

A

lymph

serum

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70
Q

2 most common causes acute pancreatitis

A

Gallstones and etoh

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71
Q

Boundaries of axilla for ln dissection (4)

A

Axillary vein, superior
Long thoracic nerve, posterior
Latissimus Dorsi, lateral
Pectoral minor

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72
Q

4 nerves at risk Axillary ln dissection

A

Long thoracic
Thoracodorsal
Medial and lateral pectorals

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73
Q

Ltn innervates

A

Serratus anterior

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74
Q

Thoracodorsal innervates

A

Latissimus dorsi

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75
Q

Course of medial and lateral pectoral nerves

A

Opposite of one another!

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76
Q

Cutaneous nerve that crosses axilla

A

Intercostobrachial nerve

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77
Q

Levels 1,2,3 of Axillary lymph nodes

A

Lateral, deep, and medial to pectoral minor

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78
Q

Rotter’s nodes

A

Between pec major and minor

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79
Q

Tail of spence

A

Tail of breast tissue into axilla

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80
Q

Breast cancer risk (5)

A

NAACP

Nulliparity
Age menarche 55
Ca breast, self or family
Pregnancy 1st, >30

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81
Q

3 major blood sources to breast

A

Lateral and internal thoracic arteries

Intercostal

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82
Q

Dermatome of knee

A

L3 is the knee

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83
Q

FENa =

A

yoU Need Pee

UNa * Plasma creatinine
For numerator

Denominator is reversed

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84
Q

Prerenal FENa

A

<1.0

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85
Q

Melanoma on Palm or sole of African american

A

Acral lentiginous

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86
Q

Two findings with chronic anal fissure

A

Sentinel pile

Hypertrophied Anal papilla

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87
Q

Surgical tx anal fissure

A

LIS lateral internal sphincterotomy

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88
Q

indirect vs direct hernia location

A

indirect = lateral to inferior epigastrics

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89
Q

position inguinal hernias usually resolve

A

recumbency

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90
Q

indirect v direct etiology

A 
indirect = patent processus vaginalis
direct = weakness of transversolis fascia
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91
Q

vague aching low back pain
sudden onset severe neurogenic pain
excruciating pain on straight leg test

A

disc dz

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92
Q

ulcer w/o pressure gradient on doppler

A

microvascular dz (no amenable to surgery)

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93
Q

SCC from chronic leg ulcer

A

Marjolin ulcer

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94
Q

inflammation at digital nerve at between 3rd, 4th toe

A

morton neuroma

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95
Q

EF cutoff for +surgery risk

A

35%

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96
Q

fever over 104, 30-45 minutes after surgery

A

bacteremia

if wound pain, consider gas gangrene

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97
Q

therapy for atelectasis if no imrpovement w/deep breathing, cough and postural draining

A

bronchoscopy

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98
Q

most common fever POD>3

A

UTI

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99
Q

fever on POD 5

A

thrombophlebitis

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100
Q

fever days 7 vs 9

A

7 = wound infection

9=abscess

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101
Q

ABG w/PE (2)

A

hypoxemia

hypocapnia

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102
Q

FENa significance, 1, >4

A 
1 = intrinsic AKI
>4 = postrenal
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103
Q

FENa =

A

(PCr * UNa ) / (PNa x UCr) %

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104
Q

ileus not resolving after 7 days

A

mechanical ileus (adhesions)

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105
Q

paralytic ileus in immobilization
+abd distension, dilated colon
mechanical obstruction ruled out

A

Ogilvie syndrome

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106
Q

tx Ogilvie syndrome (2, 1 is a consideration)

A 
Decompress w/ sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy and rectal tube 
IV neostigmine (consider)
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107
Q

typical day for wound dehiscence

A

day 5

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108
Q

hypernatremia, how much dehydration for every 3 meg above 140?

A

1 liter

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109
Q

safe speed limit of potassium admin

A

10 meq/hr

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110
Q

colicky abd pain w/ high pitched bowel sounds

then silence and loops of bowels w/air-fluid levels

A

mechanical obstruction

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111
Q

main tx of SCC of anus

A

chemoradiation

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112
Q

rate of active Gi bleed caught on angiogram

A

2 mL/minute (1 unit blood q4 hrs)

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113
Q

blood er rectum child

A

meckel diverticulum

114
Q

dx meckel

A

technetium scan

115
Q

parrot’s beak on axr

A

volvulus of sigmoid

116
Q

large thin-walled distended gallbladder

A

Courvoisier-Terrier sign (malignant obstructive jaundice)

117
Q

acute pancreatitis w/+ Ht or -Ht

A 
\+Ht = edematous pancreatitis
-Ht = hemhorrhagic pancreatitis
118
Q

size of pancreatic pseudocyst likely to rupture or have prob

A

6 cm

119
Q

bloody nipple discharge

A

intraductal papilloma

120
Q

breast cancer patient w/ backache or persistent headache

A

metastasis to brain or vertebral pedicles

121
Q

hypersecretion of insulin in newborn

A

nesidioblastosis (devastating = 95% pancreatic resection)

122
Q

patient w/DM
migratory necrotic dermatitis
mild anemia, glossitis, stomatitis

A

glucagonoma

123
Q

newborn first fed;

feeding intolerance, abd. distension, rapidly developing thrombocytopenia

A

necrotizing enterocolitis

124
Q

person w/mono gets L. shoulder pain

A

Kehr sign

ruptured spleen

125
Q

physical findings (2) in hemorrhagic pancreatitis

A

cullen sign; bruising around umbilicus

bruising on flanks

126
Q

electric alternans on EKG

A

pericardial tamponade

127
Q

abdominal pain 10/10 but no physical findings

A

acute mesenteric ischemia

128
Q

acute abd pain out of proportion.
best first test?
most accurate test?

A

CT scan of abdomen

angiography

129
Q

subcutaneous emphysema upon palpation of thorax or clavicles

A

esophogeal perf

130
Q

histology of boerhaave vs mallory-weiss

A 
boerhaave = full thickness tear
mallory-weiss = mucosa only
131
Q

3rd vs 4th degree burn

A 
3rd = subcu
4th = muscle
132
Q

front of torso = what percent?

A

18

133
Q

% more calories w/major burns

A

40%

134
Q

IV access for all burns over

A

20% (NG tube too)

135
Q

2 tests to order with 20 yo F w/ RLQ pain

A

B-HCG

pelvic sonogram

136
Q

most accurate test for cholecystitis

A 
HIDA scan
(delayed emptying of gallbladder)
137
Q

high pitched tinkling bowel sounds
+lactate and acidosis
dx?

A

bowel obstruction

138
Q

open reduction and internal fixation fractures

A

displacement or misalignment of bones

139
Q

close fracture vs open fracture

A 
closed = mild w/o displacement
open = skin punctured
140
Q

fracture w/several pieces

A

comminuted fracture

141
Q

most common stress fracture

A

metatarsals

142
Q

tx scaphoid fracture

A

thumb spica cast

143
Q

unhappy triad knee (3)

A

ACL
MCL
Lateral meniscus

144
Q

surgery indicated on AAA when……

A

5 cm

145
Q

5 causes, in order of post-operative fever

A 
WIND: 1-2
water: 3-5
walking: 5-7
WOund: 7
WOnder/abscess: 8-15
146
Q

infant first few months
failure to thrive
pansystolic murmur at USB

A

VSD

147
Q

gradient where surgery indicated for aortic stenosis

A

50 mmHg

or CHF, angina or syncope

148
Q

square root sign on EKG

A

pericarditis

149
Q

FEV1 required for surgery in lung cancer

A

minimum 800 mL

150
Q

management tender AAA

A

surgery

151
Q

medical term lazy eye

A

amblyopia

152
Q

medical term crossed eyes

A

strabismus

153
Q

abscess of floor of mouth, often due to bad tooth infection

A

ludwig angina

154
Q

diplopia with person with sinutisitis

A

cavernous sinus thrombosis

a medical emergency

155
Q

therapy for prolactinoma

A

bromocriptine

156
Q

several months after crush injury

pain

A

reflex sympathetic dystrophy (causalgia)

157
Q

reflex sympathetic dystrophy

dx and tx

A 
dx = successful sympathetic block
tx = sympathectomy
158
Q

absolute contraindication to surgery

A

DKA

159
Q

Assist-control on vent

A

patient takes a breath, vent gives volume

160
Q

vent setting for weaning

A

pressure support

patient rules rate

161
Q

with high paCO2, adjustment on vent

A

tidal volume

rate also acceptable

162
Q

acidosis vs alkalosis

check what 2 values after pH?

A

HCO3, pCO2

163
Q

anion gap equation

include normal

A

Na - (Cl + HCO3)

8-12

164
Q

Na correction rate

A

12-24 meq/24 hours

165
Q

maintenance daily
1-10 kg?
10-20?
20+?

A

4-2-1 rule

1-10 = 4 mL/kg/hr
10-20 = +2 mg/kg/ hr
20+= +1 mL/kg/hr
166
Q

clotting
edema, htn
foamy pee

A

nephrotic syndrome

167
Q

bleeding with isolated thrombocytopenia

A

ITP

168
Q

parkland formula for burn resuscitation

A

kgX BSA X 4 ml

Over 24 hrs. 1/2 over 1st 8

169
Q

side effect silver sulfadiazene

A

leukopenia

170
Q

burn topical that penetrates

A

mafenide

171
Q

burn topical that causes hypoK and hypoNa

A

silver nitrate

172
Q

electrolyte to check if rhabdo

A

potassium

173
Q

pressure of compartment syndrome

A

> 30 mmHg

174
Q

normal CVP w/flat neck veins’what type of shock?

A

hypovolemic

175
Q

GCS scoring

A

eyes 4
motor 6
verbal 5

176
Q

GSW or stab to zone 3 workup (2)

A

aortography and triple endoscopy

177
Q

zone 3 of neck

A

above mandible

178
Q

zone 2 of neck

A

angle of mandible to cric

179
Q

GSW or stab wound to zone 2 of neck workup

A

2D doppler +/- surgery

180
Q

zone 1 of neck

A

below cricoid

181
Q

zone 1 of neck penetrating workup

A

aortography

182
Q

handlebar sign

A

pancreatic rupture

183
Q

4 phases wound healing

A

In every fresh cut

Inflammation
Epitheliazation
Fibroplasia
Contraction

184
Q

effusion characteristic of lung adenocarcinom

A

exudative w/ high hyalurondase

185
Q

PCWP cutoffs for ards vs cardiogenic

A

Less than 12 is ards

More than 15 is cardiogenic

186
Q

valsalva or squatting with systolic murmurs(2)

A 
softer = aortic stenosis
louder = HOCM
187
Q

mentrier’s

A

protein losing gastropathy

188
Q

if duodenal ulcers persist, consider

A

ZE syndrome

189
Q

best test for ZE syndrome

A

secretin stimulation test (high gastrin)

190
Q

chronic pancreatitis causes thrombosis of

A

splenic veins (gives gastric varices)

191
Q

hyperglycemia
diarrhea
weight loss
dark rash

A

glucagonoma

192
Q

tumor that looks like carcinoid

A

VIPoma

193
Q

choledochal cysts

type 1 v 4

A

1 = fusiform dilation Biliary duct = excision

4=caroli’s dz = intrahepatic ducts =liver transplantation

194
Q 
RUQ pain
fever
jaundice
-BP
AMS
A

ascending cholangitis

195
Q

RUQ pain
+bili
+alk phos

A

choledocholithiasis

196
Q

+AST, ALT

s/p hemorrhage, surg, or sepsis

A

shock liver (from hypotension)

197
Q

TIPS relieves portal HTN, but

A

worsens hepatic encephalopathy

198
Q

3 most common bugs for liver abscess

A

EBE
E.coli
Bacteroides
enterococcus

199
Q

RUQ pain in traveler

sweating, rigors, palpable liver

A

ENTAMOEBA HISTOLYTICA

200
Q

TX entamoeba histolytica

A

metronidazole

do not drain it

201
Q

from mexico
RUQ pain
large liver cysts on US

A

echinococcus

202
Q

thrombocytosis post splenectomy

tx?

A

asa

203
Q

ITP tx

1st, 2nd

A 
1st= steroids
2nd = splenectomy
204
Q

carcinoid tumor #1 site

A

appendix

205
Q

when sx of carcinoid

A

mets to liver

206
Q

vitamin deficiency with carcinoid

A

niacin (Diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis)

207
Q

postop ileus vs ogilvie’s syndrome on XR

A

postop ileus = dilated loops of small bowel w/air-fluid livels
ogilvie = colonic distension

208
Q

tx of ogilvie syndrome (2)

A

> 10 cm decompression w/NG tube

neostigmine

209
Q

sigmoid vs cecal volvulus on AXR

A 
sigmoid = coffee bean sign
cecal = bird beak
210
Q

direct vs indirect inguinal hernias anatomy

A

Indirect Inguinal-MC through inguinal ring (lat to epigastric vessles) in spermatic cord. R>L, more often congenital (patent proc vaginals)
•Direct Inguinal-through Hasselbeck’s triangle (med to epigastric vessles), more often acquired weakness.

211
Q

MEN syndromes

names and shapes (3)

A

diamond
square
triangle

212
Q

MEN syndromes

mnemonics

A

PPP
MPP
MMP

213
Q

MEN 1 syndrome (3)

A

pituitary
parathyroid
pancreas

214
Q

MEN2a syndrome (3)

A

medullary thyroid Ca
parathyroid
pheo

215
Q

MEN2b syndrome

A

medullary thyroid Ca
marfan
oral
pheo

216
Q

tx for fibrocystic change of breast (3)

A

restrict caffeine
vitamin E
supportive bra

217
Q

ped umbilical hernia association

and big tongue

A

hypothyroidism

218
Q

ddx (2) of 3 day old newborn has still not passed meconium

A 
meconium ileus (CF)
Hirschprung's
219
Q

4-5 yo w/painless limp and avascular necrosis

A

leg-calve-perthes’s dz

220
Q

caution rocuronium

A

allergic rxn if asthmatic

221
Q

caution meperidine

A

lower seizure threshold, esp if renal failure

222
Q

problem with succinylcholine if burn/crush victim

A

hyperK

223
Q

Varus memory tool

A

Varus = airus. Air between knees

224
Q

normal urinary output

A

.5 cc/kg

225
Q

paralytic ileus on AXR

A

everything is dilated

226
Q

paralytic ileus of entire large colon in elderly

A

Ogilvie’s

227
Q

tx Ogilvie’s (2)

A

rectal tube

colonoscopy

228
Q

etiology of dehiscence vs evisceration

A

failure of fascia

failure of fascia and skin

229
Q

tx wound evisceration prior to surgery (2)

A

saline towel
strict bed rest

never push back in!

230
Q

borborygmi

A

high pitched sounds of bowel obstruction

231
Q

on test, if person has appendicitis sx, next step

A

OR!! (CT not necessary)

232
Q

String of pearls sign

A

SBO

233
Q

initial tx of sigmoid volvulus

A

sigmoid scope for decompression

234
Q

crohn’s dz most commonly effects

A

terminal ileum

235
Q

bezoar

A

chunk of food; commonly a gastrolith

236
Q 
pancreatic tumor
Copious Watery Diarrhea,
Hypokalemia, and
Achlorhydria (WDHA
syndrome).
A

VIPoma

237
Q

amt and fluid to give 75 kg person with burns in 24 hrs.

A

15 L of LR

238
Q

most common lung cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

239
Q

if necrotizing pancreatiti, ICU, daily CTs, and what abx?

A

carbepenem

240
Q

weeks after pancreatitis

early satiety, +/- ascities, dyspnea

A

pseudocyst

241
Q

pseudocyst >6 weeks or >6 cm

A

complicated pseudocyst

drainage necessary

242
Q

soot on their nostrils/mouth

A

respiratory burn; evaluated w/bronchoscopy

243
Q

electrical burn, what labs

A

CK-MB

244
Q

tx rhabdo

A

IVF and mannitol

245
Q

parkland formula for burns

A

%BSA * kg * 4cc
+2000 D5W

50% in 8 hours
50% in 16 hours

246
Q

PCWP in CHF vs ARDS

A

normal (10) in ARDS

+ (25) in CHF

247
Q

O2 rate of face/venti mask vs NRB

A

face/venti = 6-10

NRB is 10-15

248
Q

FiO2 of NC vs face/venti mask

A

to 40%

40-80%

249
Q

after NRB,

NIPPV - 3 types

A

high flow NC
CPAP
BiPAP

250
Q

NIPPV if AMS or vomiting

A

high flow NC

251
Q

bipap 10/5 means

A 
10 = pressure support
5 = PEEP
252
Q

bipap used in ventilation support for unloading CO2 for COPD NOT

A

asthma

253
Q

ventilation changes

A

CO2

254
Q

2 components of ventilation

A

Tidal volume

Respiratory rate

255
Q

+PS/PEEP increases

A

ventilation

256
Q

monitoring vents
CO2 method
O2 method

A

CO2 method = ABG

O2 method = O2sat

257
Q

2 components of oxygenation

A

FiO2

PEEP

258
Q

normal pCO2

A

40

259
Q

normal pO2 range

A

75-105

260
Q

lab to check if suspecting inhalation burn

A

carboxyhemoglobin

261
Q

autograft vs allograft

A 
autograft = patient's own skin
allograft = cadaveric skin
262
Q

SCC ulceration in burn rissue

A

marjolin’s ulcer

263
Q

before chemo/surgery with lung Ca (3) but after bx

A

stage
PET CT
PFT

264
Q

stable pulmonary nodule size to watch only

A

<2 cm

265
Q

tx of small cell Ca

A

chemo only!

never operate

266
Q

lung mass
flushing, diarrhea

dx, and side of heart affected

A

carcinoid

LEFT! (unlike GI which is right)

267
Q

dx of +PTHism

A

sestamibi scan

268
Q

migratory necrolytic dermatitis

mild DM

A

glucagonoma

269
Q

calcium and phos levels in 1 vs 2nd degree hyper PTH

A

exact opposites!

Ca+, Ph- in 1
Ca-, Ph+ in 2

270
Q

chalazion

A

like a stye, but painless, and inside the lid (rather than on edge

271
Q

Hyphema

A

blood in anterior chamber of eye

272
Q

iridocyclitis

A

uveitis

273
Q

Ratio of NS or LR to replace blood lost

A

3:1

274
Q

PaO2/ FiO2 indicative of ARDS

A

Less than 200

275
Q

Dx of ventilator associated pneumonia

A

Greater than 10K cfu/ml

276
Q

Tx of urine if myoglobinuria

A

Alkalize the urine

277
Q

Mafenide side effect

A

Metabolic acidosis

278
Q

Flap

A

Vascularized tissue for skin graft

279
Q

2 types coag - staph

A

Epidermidis and saprophyticus

280
Q

+ diagnostic peritoneal lavage

A

100 k/uL

Step 2 CK (12 decks)

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