Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

CLEAN procedure

A

The procedure does not enter a colonised viscus or lumen of the body.

SSI risk entirely due to contaminants from the environment, with a rate of 2-5%.

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2
Q

POTENTIALLY CONTAMINATED procedure

A

The operative procedure enters into a colonised viscus or body cavity, but under elective or controlled circumstances.

SSI risk is from endogenous bacteria, with a rate of 10%.

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3
Q

What is the most common environmental pathogen causing surgical site infection?

A

S. aureus

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4
Q

CONTAMINATED procedure

A

Contamination is present at the surgical site, without obvious infection (e.g. intestinal spillage due to penetrating injury)

SSI risk is from endogenous bacteria, with a rate of 20%.

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5
Q

DIRTY procedure

A

Surgery performed where active infection is already present (e.g. abdominal exploration for intra-abdominal abscess and perforation.

Infection risk is from already-established pathogens, with a risk of 30%.

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6
Q

Rigid Proctoscopy vs Rigid sigmoidoscopy

A

PROCTOSCOPY = endoscopic examination of the anal canal using a proctoscope (direct vision).

SIGMOIDOSCOPY = endoscopic examination of the rectum to recto-sigmoid junction using a rigid sigmoidoscope (direct vision)

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7
Q

Indications for rigid proctoscopy/sigmoidoscopy

A
  • Suspicion of colonic neoplasia
  • Investigation of IBD
  • Biopsies under direct vision
  • Treatment of haemorrhoids
  • Prior to any ano-rectal operation.
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8
Q

Flexible sigmoidoscopy

A

= endoscopic examination visualising up to the splenic flexure.

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9
Q

What is haematochezia?

A

= passage of frank blood per rectum

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10
Q

Indications for tube thoracostomy

A

Pneumothorax

Pleural effusion / empyema

Post-operative (thoracotomy, oesophagectomy, cardiac surgery)

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11
Q

Where is the triangle of safety?

A

Between the lateral border of pec major and lat dorsi, superior to the 5th intercostal space, inferior to axillary border.

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12
Q

Thoracostomy - steps

A

Inject LA to infiltrate skin and parietal pleura

Make 2cm incision near upper border of rib below (avoiding neurovascular bundle) in the triangle of safety

Blunt dissect to parietal pleura, then palpate the lung with gloved finger to free adhesions

Insert drain and attach to underwater seal, suturing in to the chest wall

Apply airtight dressing and sit patient up to 45o.

Check position with CXR and repeat CXR daily.

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13
Q

Indications for urethral catheter

A

Acute/chronic urinary retention

Output monitoring (in critical illness / perioperative patients)

Incontinence

To aid surgery

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14
Q

Contraindications for urethral catheter

A

Urethral injury (e.g. pelvic fracture)

Acute prostatitis

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15
Q

Urethral catheter - complications

A

Retrograde infection

Paraphimosis (if fail to reduce the foreskin post-procedure).

Creation of false passages

Urethral strictures

Bleeding

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16
Q

How should a urine sample be collected from a catheter?

A

The specimen should be obtained aseptically from a port in the catheter tubing or by aseptic aspiration of the tubing.

NEVER collect a sample from the catheter bag.

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17
Q

Active drains

A

Involve suction forces provided by vacuumed containers

Used to draw out collections

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18
Q

Passive Drains

A

Function by differential pressures between the body and the exterior (e.g. using gravity).

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19
Q

Open Drains

A

Always passive

Lead into a dressing/stoma to provide a conduit around which secretions can flow.

May be tubes or corrugated sheets

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20
Q

Closed Drains

A

Tube systems that drain directly into a container

With or without suction (active / passive)

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21
Q

Common complications of surgical drains

A

Damage to structures during insertion
=> Avoided by image-guided insertion.

Damage to structures due to pressure effects of the drain.

Infection
=> Avoided by timely removal of the drain

Failure of the drain
=> Can give a “false sense of security”

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22
Q

Indications for central venous catheter

A
  • Critically ill patients requiring continuous CVP monitoring
  • Infusion of irritant substances
  • Precise infusion of substances with a very narrow therapeutic window.
  • Long-term access for parenteral nutrition, chemotherapy or antibiotics.
  • Haemodialysis
  • No other venous access available.
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23
Q

Hickman Line

A

Tunnelled beneath the skin for stability and to prevent infection

Generally at the IJV on the right, however can be either side.

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24
Q

PICC Line

A

“Peripherally inserted central catheter”

Inserted in the arm (brachial vein) and advanced to the SVC

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25
Q

Portacath

A

Port installed beneath the skin, and connected to a vein by a catheter

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26
Q

Routine care of central venous lines

A

Report any signs of infection/bleeding

Do not get the site wet

Avoid contact sports

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27
Q

Swan-Ganz Catheter

A

A balloon catheter, passed from the femoral vein, through the right side of the heart into the pulmonary artery.

Used to measure pulmonary artery pressures.

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28
Q

Swan-Ganz Catheter - complications

A

Arrythmias

Valve trauma

Pulmonary infarction / pulmonary artery rupture

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29
Q

Arterial catheterisation

A

Indications:
- Frequent blood sampling / ABG analysis
- Continuous invasive BP monitoring

Usually inserted into radial artery in the critically ill, after performing Allen’s test

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30
Q

What can be used as a landmark for checking central venous catheter placement in the SVC?

A

The location of the carina on a CXR

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31
Q

Features of an ileostomy

A
  • Spouted, with prominent mucosal folds
  • Tend to be on the RHS
  • Bag will have bilious contents
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32
Q

End ileostomy - appearance and indications

A

One lumen

Generally permanent

Indications = definitive surgery to remove colon

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33
Q

Loop ileostomy - appearance and indications

A

Two lumens

Often temporary and reversed at a later date;

Indications = to rest distal bowel, to protect distal anastomoses, to provide functional relief from severe incontinence

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34
Q

Features of a colostomy

A

Usually flush to the skin, with flat mucosal folds.

Tend to be on the LHS

Contents tend to be more faeculant.

Can be loop or end (but end colostomies are far more common)

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35
Q

Urostomy

A

Formed from a short section of disconnected ileum, into which one or both ureters are directed after a radical urinary tract surgery.

They are indistinguishable from an end ileostomy unless output can be seen.

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36
Q

Gastrostomy - features and indications

A

A connection from the anterior stomach to the anterior abdominal wall.

Features:
- Narrow in calibre
- Flush to the skin
- Usually in LUQ
- Fitted with indwelling access device.

Indications: for stomach drainage or direct feeding.

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37
Q

Jejunostomy

A

A connection from the jejunum to the abdominal wall, for direct feeding.

Appearances are the same as a gastrostomy.

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38
Q

Early stoma complications

A

Infarction / necrosis

Infection

High output from the stoma leading to severe dehydration

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39
Q

Late stoma complications

A

Parastomal hernia (incisional hernia at the stoma site)

Stoma prolapse (underlying bowel protrudes through the orifice)

Stoma retraction (pulled/drawn below skin level)

Stenosis (narrowing of stomal opening)

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40
Q

Examination of a stoma

A
  1. Ask the patient if they have had any pain or issues with their stoma.
  2. Gently palpate the abdomen for distension / tenderness.
  3. Ask the patient to cough – observe for parastomal hernia.
  4. Observe the surrounding skin quality for any signs of infection.
  5. Determine the type of stoma (define the siting, spouting and contents)
  6. Observe specifically for any signs of infarction, prolapse, or retraction.
  7. Listen for bowel sounds
  8. State that you would like to view the patient’s fluid balance chart.
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41
Q

What are the stages of wound healing and when do they occur?

A
  1. Haemostasis (immediate)
  2. Inflammation (0 – 3 days)
  3. Proliferation (3 days – 3 weeks)
  4. Remodelling (3 weeks – 1 year)
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42
Q

Wound Healing - Haemostasis

A

Platelets aggregate at the site in response to exposed collagen, releasing inflammatory markers and activate clotting and coagulation cascades

Haemostasis is then achieved by vasospasm and thrombus formation.

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43
Q

Wound Healing - Inflammation

A

Days 0-3

Vasodilatation and increased capillary permeability allow inflammatory cells to enter the wound, leading to oedema.

Neutrophils enter the tissues to debride and kill bacteria, followed by macrophages to phagocytose debris and orchestrate fibroblast migration.

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44
Q

Wound Healing - Proliferation

A

Day 3 - 21

Fibroblasts migrate in to synthesise collagen, with myofibroblasts secreting actin-containing products to cause wound contraction.

Angiogenesis is stimulated by hypoxia and cytokines => creates granulation tissue.

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45
Q

Wound Healing - Remodelling

A

3 weeks - 1 year

Re-orientation and maturation of collagen fibres to increase wound strength.

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46
Q

What is granulation tissue?

A

The combination of capillary loops and myofibroblasts, giving the appearance of small, red foci that bleed easily (commonly seen when a scab is picked).

It is these capillary loops that allow the inflammatory cells to enter the damaged tissue to promote defence and healing.

Infected granulation tissue will be painful; discharging; erythematous & swollen; and the patient may have systemic features.

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47
Q

What is “Epithelialisation” in wound healing?

A

The covering of a surface with the skin layers removed with epithelial tissue, occurring from the outer edges of the wound after granulation.

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48
Q

Primary Intention Healing

A

Takes place when there is a close apposition of clean wound edges.

=> Fibrin is able to form a weak framework between the edges, over which the capillaries proliferate and secrete collagen into the fibrin network.

=> The elastic network of the dermis cannot be replaced.

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49
Q

Secondary Intention Healing

A

Takes place in wounds where skin edges cannot be clearly opposed.

  1. Phagocytosis removes debris
  2. Granulation tissue forms to fill the defect.
  3. Epithelial regeneration then covers the surface
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50
Q

Inflammatory changes in a wound

A

Occur in a wound or around a suture:

  1. Heat
  2. Erythema
  3. Swelling
  4. Pain
  5. Loss of function
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51
Q

Mx of infected surgical wound

A

Depending on the severity, the patient may need:

  1. No treatment
  2. Oral/IV ABX
  3. Re-intervention on the ward / in theatre to open, drain, debride, rinse and pack the wound

Cultures are always recommended.

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52
Q

Venous Ulcers - Pathophysiology

A

• Valve incompetence and reflux
• Calf muscle dysfunction
• Toxins accumulate => inflammation and necrosis of tissue.

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53
Q

Venous Ulcers - Features

A

Generally located below the knee and above the ankle (gaiter area).

• Large and irregular
• Shallow with sloping edges
• Granulation tissue

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54
Q

Venous Ulcers - Leg condition

A

• Lipodermatosclerosis
• Venous eczema
• Haemosiderin (red/brown colour)
• Atrophie Blanche (smooth, white sclerotic plaques)
• Heavy, aching, pruritis, oedema

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55
Q

Management of venous ulcers

A

• Dressings +/- antibiotics +/- emollients
• Debridement – surgery/dressings/larvae

• Elevation and compression (EXCLUDE ARTERIAL INSUFFICIENCY FIRST)
=> 1st line = 4-layer bandaging
=> Other = stockings

• Skin graft / superficial venous surgery

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56
Q

Arterial Ulcer - pathophysiology

A

• Atheromatous changes cause compromised blood flow

• Results in hypoxia and accumulation of toxins => inflammation and necrosis of tissue.

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57
Q

RFs for arterial ulcers

A

Diabetes, HTN, smoking, arterial disease, cholesterol emboli, Raynaud’s disease, Trauma

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58
Q

Arterial Ulcer - features

A

Located on bony prominences (usually lateral malleolus and toes)

• Smaller and round
• “Punched out” borders
• Little granulation tissue and dry
• Very painful

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59
Q

Arterial Ulcer - leg condition

A

• 6Ps – pain, pulseless, pale, paraesthesia, paralysis, perishingly cold

• Claudication/ischaemic rest pain symptoms

• Cool, hairless, dry, shiny skin

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60
Q

Management of arterial ulcers

A

Dressings +/- antibiotics +/- emollients
Debridement – surgery/dressings/larvae

ABPI to identify severity

Manage vascular risk factors – e.g. antiplatelets, stop smoking

Surgical revascularisation

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61
Q

Neuropathic Ulcers - pathophysiology

A

Peripheral neuropathy => loss of protective sensation and trauma goes unnoticed

Vascular disease => reduced wound healing

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62
Q

Neuropathic Ulcers - features

A

• Small, round, deep
• “Punched out” borders
• Thick rim
• PAINLESS

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63
Q

Neuropathic Ulcers - leg condition

A

• Surrounding callous
• Loss of sensation
• Dry, cracked skin

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64
Q

Neuropathic Ulcers - Management

A

• Dressings +/- antibiotics +/- emollients
• Debridement – surgery/dressings/larvae

• Optimise glycaemic control
• Treat co-existing arterial disease
• Good foot care
• Offload pressure (therapeutic footwear)

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65
Q

marginal artery of Drummond

A

an anatomically variable blood vessel that forms a major anastomotic network between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries

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66
Q

Most common variant of colorectal cancer

A

Most common variant is Adenocarcinoma

Squamous and adeno-squamous variants can be found in the distal rectum.

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67
Q

Risk Factors for colorectal cancer

A

Family History (+ FAP / HNPCC)
Age
Western Diet (low in dietary fibre, high in fats)
UC
Smoking
Heavy alcohol consumption

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68
Q

Protective factors for colorectal cancer

A

Fruit and veg / fibre consumption
Exercise
HRT
Aspirin/NSAIDs

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69
Q

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)

A

Autosomal dominant defect in tumour-suppressor APC gene.

Develop hundreds of adenomas throughout colon, CRC in 100% if untreated (~36y).

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70
Q

Hereditary Non-polyposis Colorectal cancer (HNPCC)

“Lynch Syndrome”

A

Responsible for <5% of all cancers

Arises from autosomal dominant mutations affecting various mismatch repair genes

Predisposes to cancers of colon, ovaries, endometrium, stomach, bladder, brain and skin

Young onset and aggressive

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71
Q

Spread of CRC

A

Initially by direct infiltration through the bowel wall.

It then involves lymphatics and blood vessels with subsequent spread – primarily to the liver (also lung, bone).

Transcoelomic spread can occur

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72
Q

Appearance of colorectal adenocarcinoma on investigations

A

Usually as a polypoid mass with ulceration

Characteristic “signet ring cells” on histology.

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73
Q

Where do colorectal cancers usually occur?

A

Recto-sigmoid region

Rectum ~45%
Sigmoid colon ~25%
Descending colon ~5%
Transverse colon ~10%
Caecum & ascending colon ~15%

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74
Q

Symptoms of CRC

A

Right-sided tumours:
=> Often asymptomatic; may present with weight loss/iron-deficiency anaemia; can present with abdominal discomfort and change in bowel habit.

Left-sided tumours:
=> PR bleeding/mucous, altered bowel habit, tenesmus, obstruction, mass on PR examination.

Rectal tumours:
=> PR bleeding, pain, changes in bowel habit, masses/stricture

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75
Q

2WW referral for ?bowel cancer

A

In patients >40 years

  • Rectal bleeding or change in bowel habit >6 weeks
  • Persistent rectal bleeding in those >45, with no obvious cause of benign anal disease
  • Iron deficiency anaemia, without an obvious cause
  • Palpable abdo/PR mass
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76
Q

Colorectal cancer - screening

A

HIGH RISK GROUPS
Routine regular colonoscopy – in high-risk groups with positive family history (FAP, HNPCC, MUTYH-associated polyposis).

AVERAGE-RISK POPULATION – faecal occult blood (FOB) testing
- FOB test is done every 2 years between the ages of 50 and 74, and a single flexible sigmoidoscopy is performed at age 55.
- A colonoscopy is performed if there is a positive FOB test.

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77
Q

Colorectal cancer - Ix

A

History, Abdo Exam + DRE

Blood tests
=> FBC, U&E, LFT, Magnesium, Calcium
=> Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) – tumour marker, can be used to monitor disease.
=> Coagulation
=> G&S/XM

Colonoscopy +/- biopsy = gold-standard

Imaging for staging
- CT colon – “virtual colonoscopy”
- CT CAP

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78
Q

What tumour marker is useful for monitoring of colorectal cancer?

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

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79
Q

CRC - Duke’s stage A

A

Tumour invades submucosa +/- muscularis propria

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80
Q

CRC - Duke’s stage B

A

Tumour invades past the muscularis propria (into subserosa / directly into other organs, but no LN involvement)

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81
Q

CRC - Duke’s stage C

A

Regional LN involvement

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82
Q

CRC - Duke’s stage D

A

Distant metastases

(= advanced bowel cancer)

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83
Q

CRC treatment

A

Involves a wide resection of the mass and regional lymphatics and blood supply

Surgical procedure depends on location of tumour

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84
Q

What is an anterior resection?

What are the indications?

A

Removal of the rectum and sigmoid colon

Almost always performed due to a sigmoid or rectal cancer

Can be high vs. low - depending on how much of the rectum is removed

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85
Q

Sigmoid colectomy

A

Removal of sigmoid colon

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86
Q

What is a left hemicolectomy?

What are the indications?

A

Removal of the splenic flexure, descending colon, and a portion of the sigmoid colon.

  • bowel malignancy (most common)
  • diverticular disease,
  • bowel ischaemia
  • bowel perforation.
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87
Q

What is a right hemicolectomy?

What are the indications?

A

Removal of the terminal ileum, caecum (including the appendix), ascending colon, and hepatic flexure.

An EXTENDED right hemicolectomy further involves the removal of the transverse colon as well.

  • bowel malignancy (most common)
  • diverticular disease,
  • bowel ischaemia
  • bowel perforation.
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88
Q

What is an Abdominoperineal Resection?

What are the indications?

A

Removal of perineal skin, anal sphincters, rectum, and sigmoid colon.

  • very low rectal cancers
  • anal cancers refractory to chemoradiotherapy
  • severe perianal Crohn’s disease
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89
Q

Total proctocolectomy

A

Removal of entire colon and rectum

Used in ulcerative colitis

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90
Q

Subtotal colectomy

A

Removal of the large bowl, but leaving the sigmoid colon and rectum

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91
Q

CRC - radiotherapy

A

Used pre-operatively in rectal cancer to reduce recurrence and increase survival.

Higher risks of post-operative complications (DVT, pathological fractures, fistula formation).

Post-operative radiotherapy is used only if high risk of local recurrence.

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92
Q

CRC - chemotherapy

A

Adjuvant chemotherapy – usually oxaplatin or 5-FU based.

May be used in palliation of metastatic disease.

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93
Q

Management of an obstructing colorectal cancer

A
  1. ABCDE Approach
  2. Analgesia & NG tube decompression
  3. AXR & erect CXR – confirm Dx and check for perforation
  4. CT to determine level of obstruction
  5. Surgery once the patient is adequately hydrated (or endoscopic stenting for palliation).
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94
Q

What is the most common variant of anal cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (80%)

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95
Q

RFs for anal cancer

A
  • Ano-receptive sex
  • Syphilis infection
  • Anal warts/cervical cancer (HPV)
  • Immunosuppression
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96
Q

Pectinate Line

A

= an embryological division between the upper 2/3rds and the lower 1/3rd of the anal canal

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97
Q

Anal cancer ABOVE pectinate line

A

Columnar epithelium

Lymph draining to internal iliac nodes

Portal venous drainage (thus hepatic metastases).

More common in women, worse prognosis.

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98
Q

Anal cancer BELOW pectinate line

A

Squamous epithelium

Lymph drainage to superficial inguinal nodes.

Caval venous drainage (thus pulmonary metastases)

More common in men, better prognosis.

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99
Q

Anal cancer - presentation

A

Bleeding, discharge
Pain, fistula
Changes in bowel habits
Pruritis ani
Masses or stricture, ulcer

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100
Q

2WW referral for ?anal cancer

A

Unexplained anal mass
Anal ulceration.

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101
Q

Anal cancer - pattern of spread

A
  1. Spreads locally (rectum, sphincter, scrotum, vagina).
  2. Inguinal LNs involved in 10-20% at presentation.
  3. Metastases to liver, lung, bone.
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102
Q

Anal Cancer - Tx

A

Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy = mainstay of treatment

Small tumours at anal margin = local excision alone

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103
Q

Anal Cancer - Ix

A

Examination under general anaesthetic (PR + proctoscopy)
Imaging
Biopsy

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104
Q

What is the definition of bowel obstruction?

A

The mechanical or functional blockage of the bowel, resulting in absolute constipation.

  • Mechanical – physical blockage of the passage of intestinal contents.
  • Functional – decreased bowel motility.
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105
Q

Bowel Obstruction - Sx

A

Vomiting
(Bilious vomiting = upper small bowel obstruction; Faeculent vomiting = more distal small bowel obstruction)

Pain
(initially colicky, then constant; NO pain in functional obstruction)

Constipation

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106
Q

What is absolute constipation?
What does this suggest?

A

= when the patient is not passing flatus or faeces rectally.

Suggests complete obstruction of the bowel

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107
Q

Bowel obstruction - signs

A

Abdo Distension
=> Due to fluid and air accumulation in the bowel.

Tinkling Bowel Sounds (or NO bowel sounds if paralytic ileus)

Dehydration
=> Caused by:
1. Vomiting,
2. Lack of fluid intake
3. “Third spacing”

Central resonance to percussion, dull flanks
Scars (previous surgery => Adhesions)
Palpable mass (causing the obstruction)
NO abdominal tenderness (unless strangulation)

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108
Q

Large Bowel obstruction presentation

A

Absolute constipation and pain are more prominent early, vomiting often late.

Symptoms are generally more gradual due to the large volume of colon.

Pain tends to be lower (suprapubic)

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109
Q

Small Bowel obstruction presentation

A

Vomiting is the predominant early feature, constipation often late.

Pain tends to be peri-umbilical.

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110
Q

Fluid sequestration in bowel obstruction

A

There will be dilatation of proximal bowel with sequestration of fluid into the intestinal lumen.

The fluid sequestered into the bowel tends to be very electrolyte rich – patients will typically have an AKI and hypokalaemia.

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111
Q

SBO - mechanical causes

A

Adhesions (80%)
Hernias
Crohn’s Disease
Intussusception

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112
Q

LBO - mechanical causes

A

Carcinoma of the colon UNTIL PROVEN OTHERWISE

Diverticular disease
Sigmoid volvulus
Constipation

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113
Q

Bowel obstruction - complications

A
  1. The bowel wall becomes oedematous and distends.
  2. Bacteria proliferate in the obstructed bowel.
  3. As the bowel distends, vessels become stretched and the blood supply is compromised, leading to strangulation (=> ischaemia and necrosis).
  4. Eventually the bowel will perforate (=> peritonitis).
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114
Q

Strangulation of bowel - presentation

A

Most common with volvulus or hernia, however can occur in any obstruction.

Increasing pain/tenderness, with leucocytosis and systemic upset.

May progress to perforation and peritonism, with absent bowel sounds.

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115
Q

Volvulus

A

= a twisting of a loop of bowel around its mesenteric axis, resulting in obstruction together with venous occlusion at the base of the mesentery.

The bowel stretches, becomes ischaemic and is more likely to perforate.

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116
Q

Sigmoid volvulus - cause, appearance, Tx

A

Most common in elderly, constipated patients.

Classic “coffee bean” appearance on X-ray.

Tx = insertion of a long flatus tube advanced into the sigmoid, which often untwists the volvulus (releases large amounts of faeces/gas).

If this is unsuccessful, there will be an emergency laparotomy.

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117
Q

Caecal volvulus - cause, appearance, Tx

A

Due to congenital malrotation

Gives the classic “embryo” appearance of an ectopically placed caecum on AXR.

Treatment is untwisting during laparotomy.

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118
Q

Paralytic ileus

A

= temporary disruption of normal peristaltic activity, without mechanical blockage.

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119
Q

Functional Bowel obstruction

A

There will be NO BOWEL SOUNDS, and an identifiable cause:

  1. Post-surgery (normally up to 4 days)
  2. Due to anastomotic leak / intra-abdominal sepsis
  3. Electrolyte disturbances
  4. Critically unwell patients on ITU with multiple injuries
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120
Q

Pseudo-obstruction of bowel

A

LBO when no identifiable cause can be found (a form of paralytic ileus).

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121
Q

SBO vs Paralytic Ileus

A

Air in the colon in paralytic ileus, none in SBO

Bowel sounds present in SBO, absent in ileus.

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122
Q

Bowel Obstruction - Ix

A

BEDSIDE
Basic observations
Abdominal Exam, PR, hernial orifices

BLOODS
FBC, U&E, LFT, Amylase
CRP, ABG/VBG

IMAGING
Supine AXR
Erect CXR (if perforation suspected)
CT CAP
Contrast enema (differentiates obstruction and pseudo-obstruction)

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123
Q

Gastrograffin

A

Used for contrast in a contrast enema, but may also have a therapeutic effect in bowel obstruction!

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124
Q

SBO features on AXR

A

Dilated loops of bowel are >3cm in diameter.

Dilated loops of bowel are more central in the abdomen.

Valvulae conniventes/plicae circulares present (full crossings).

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125
Q

LBO features on AXR

A

Dilated loops of bowel are >6cm in diameter (>9cm at caecum).

Dilated loops are more peripheral.

Haustra present (incomplete crossings).

May be small bowel dilatation, depending on
duration of obstruction and incompetence of the ileocaecal valve

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126
Q

Management of SBO

A

ABCDE resuscitation (IV fluids to replace losses, catheter for fluid balance, bloods)

NBM + NG decompression of the stomach (Ryle’s tube)

If no signs of strangulation, delay operative Mx by 48 hours

If signs of strangulation or severe obstruction, then surgical management of the cause of obstruction.
=> ABX therapy will be commenced if there are signs of strangulation.

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127
Q

Management of LBO

A

Generally requires operative management (Hartmann’s)

If due to faecal impaction, enemas or manual evacuation will be tried.

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128
Q

Causes of Intestinal Obstruction in children

A

Intussusception
Incarcerated hernia
Malrotation of the bowel
Hirschsprung’s disease
Meconium ileus

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129
Q

Faecal impactation - causes

A

General Factors:
Poor diet, dehydration, lack of exercise, IBS, old age, pain

Anorectal Disease:
Fissure, stricture, rectal prolapse

Metabolic/endocrine:
Hypercalcaemia, hypothyroidism, hypokalaemia

Drugs:
Opiates, anticholinergics, iron, aluminium-based antacids, diuretics

Neuromuscular:
Spinal/pelvic nerve injury, diabetic neuropathy, Hirschsprung’s disease

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130
Q

Faecal impactation - Ix

A

Bloods (FBC, ESR, U&Es, Calcium, TFTs).

Not required in mildly affected individuals.

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131
Q

Role of Anal Sphincters in Faecal Continence

A

The internal anal sphincter is an involuntary sphincter, surrounding the upper 2/3rds of the anal canal

Tonic contraction is stimulated by sympathetic fibres from the superior rectal/hypogastric plexus.

Parasympathetic fibres inhibit this tonic contraction, thus requiring contraction of the puborectalis/the external anal sphincter to maintain continence.

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132
Q

Physiological nipple discharge

A

Tends to be clear/yellow/milky and bilateral.

Milky - due to pregnancy/hyperprolactinaemia

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133
Q

Green nipple discharge

A

Can be physiological around the menopause, due to duct ectasia.

Can be due to fibrocystic disease

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134
Q

What nipple discharge warrants urgent referral to breast unit?

A

Blood-stained discharge

Unilateral discharge

ANY colour discharge with symptom suspicion of underlying disease

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135
Q

Management of nipple discharge

A

Treatment will be based on the cause of discharge.

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136
Q

Periductal mastitis

A

An infection of the ducts beneath the nipple

More common in smokers and those with nipple piercings.

Symptoms:
- Tender, hot/red breast
- Nipple discharge – can be bloody/non-bloody

Tx = analgesia +/- ABX

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137
Q

Tail of Spence

A

The extension of the breast towards the axilla

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138
Q

What do the breasts consist of?

A

Mammary glands = modified sweat glands; ~15-20 secretory lobules

Connective tissue – condenses to form suspensory ligaments (of Cooper).

Fatty tissue

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139
Q

Arterial supply to the breast

A

Internal thoracic artery (a branch of the subclavian artery) => medial part of breast

Lateral thoracic and lateral mammary arteries => lateral part of breast

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140
Q

Venous drainage of breast

A

via the corresponding veins to the arteries, into the axillary and internal thoracic veins.

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141
Q

Lymphatic drainage of breast

A

75% of the lymph drains into the ipsilateral axilla

25% goes via the internal mammary lymph nodes, draining to the contralateral axilla.

Some drainage to inferior deep cervical and infraclavicular nodes

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142
Q

Benign breast lumps

A

Fibroadenoma
Fibrocystic disease
Breast cysts
Breast abscess
Fat necrosis
Phylloides Tumour

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143
Q

Typical characteristics of a benign breast change

A

Tend to be smooth and mobile structures

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144
Q

Typical characteristics of a malignant breast change

A

Tend to be irregular, craggy and fixed.

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145
Q

Who normally gets fibroadenomas?

A

Mostly seen in young females of reproductive age.

Tend to shrink after menopause

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146
Q

Fibroadenoma - presentation

A

Painless (or very localised pain)

Rubbery, well-demarcated lump.

Highly mobile (sometimes called a “breast mouse”) and not tethered to the skin.

Can be multiple and bilateral.

Not associated with any lymphadenopathy

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147
Q

Outcome of fibroadenoma

A

1/3 regress, 1/3 remain the same, 1/3 get bigger

Tx:
- Mostly need no treatment, as they have very low malignant potential.
- Can be excised if large (>4cm)

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148
Q

What is fibrocystic disease?

A

Due to a combination of localised fibrosis, inflammation, cyst formation and hormone-driven (cyclical) breast pain.

Presents exclusively between menarche and the menopause.

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149
Q

Fibrocystic disease - presentation

A

Lumpy, rope-like texture in the breast.

Cyclical swelling and tenderness

Pain in the armpit

Greenish/dark brown nipple discharge, that’s free of blood.

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150
Q

Fibrocystic disease - management

A

Supportive bra
Combined OCP
Evening primrose oil

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151
Q

What is a breast cyst?

A

A benign, fluid-filled cyst of the breast.

Typically seen in perimenopausal women.

Can be associated with fibrocystic change, or occur alone.

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152
Q

Breast cyst - presentation

A

Sudden onset swelling.

Symmetrical smooth round lump

Usually painless and solitary

Not associated with lymphadenopathy

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153
Q

Breast cyst - Ix

A

Drainage under USS guidance – usually straw-coloured liquid (if suspicious – e.g. blood-stained – then should be sent for cytology)

Then the breast is re-examined, as it can co-exist with cancer.

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154
Q

Who is normally affected by fat necrosis of the breast?

A

Usually seen in females of BMI >30

Generally occurs following a history of trauma to the breast.

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155
Q

Fat necrosis of breast - presentation

A

Presents as a firm, painless lump
Can be tender around it
Irregular outline
May be associated with skin thickening/retraction
Can be red or bruised

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156
Q

Fat necrosis of breast - Investigation

A

Must undergo triple assessment

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157
Q

Fat necrosis of breast - Mx

A

Will resorb naturally, give simple analgesia.

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158
Q

Types of breast abscess

A
  1. Lactational – caused by staph. aureus in breast feeding women.
  2. Non-lactational – caused by gram-negative bacteria in diabetics and smokers.
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159
Q

Breast abscess - presentation

A

Hot, red, swollen lump.

Can lead to systemic upset – pyrexia, sepsis.

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160
Q

Breast abscess - Mx

A

USS-guided aspiration

Antibiotics

Rest the breast from breastfeeding – use breast pump and dump contents.

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161
Q

Phylloides Tumour

A

= a rapidly growing tumour of the stroma
=> 75% benign, 25% malignant

Presentation:
- Smooth, firm lump
- Usually painless

Investigations:
- Triple assessment with core needle biopsy
- Sometimes excisional biopsy needed to fully rule out malignancy

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162
Q

What does triple assessment of a breast lump involve?

A
  1. Clinical assessment – Hx and Examination
  2. Radiological imaging
  3. Tissue biopsy
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163
Q

Triple Assessment - Imaging

A

Mammogram – not typically used for younger patients due to dense breast tissue.

USS Breast
(all women will also have an ultrasound of the axilla)

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164
Q

Triple Assessment - biopsy options

A
  1. Fine needle aspiration – collects a sample of cells
  2. Core needle biopsy – collects a core of tissue, USS or MRI guides process
  3. Open (surgical) biopsy – removes all/part of an abnormality.
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165
Q

Breast carcinoma - epidemiology

A

Carries a lifetime risk of 1 in 8 for a woman in the UK.

Incidence increases with age

1% of cases are in males
5-10% are associated with gene errors.

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166
Q

Types of breast carcinoma

A

Most tumours are invasive adenocarcinomas,

of which:
- Invasive Ductal Carcinoma (90%)
- Invasive Lobular Carcinoma (5%)
- Other (5%)

Can be either oestrogen-receptor/progesterone-receptor/HER-2 positive or negative

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167
Q

prognosis of oestrogen-receptor positive breast cancer

A

better prognosis

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168
Q

prognosis of HER-2 positive breast cancer

A

worse prognosis

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169
Q

Risk factors for breast cancer

A

25% genetic factors (PMHx, FHx, BRCA positive)

75% environmental factors
(mostly to do with increased oestrogen exposure)
• Early menarche/late menopause
• Nulliparity
• Not breastfeeding
• HRT / COCP
• Obesity
• Smoking

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170
Q

BRCA1

A

Autosomal dominantly inherited gene, chromosome 17

Lifetime risk of breast cancer – 60-90%
Lifetime risk of ovarian cancer – 40-60%
Also associated with prostate and colon cancer

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171
Q

BRCA2

A

Autosomal dominantly inherited gene, chromosome 13

Lifetime risk of breast cancer – 45-85%
Lifetime risk of ovarian cancer – 10-30%
Lifetime risk of MALE breast cancer – 5-10%

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172
Q

Breast cancer - presentation

A

Feeling a thick area/bump/hard lump

Skin changes – sores, dimple, peau d’orange, Paget’s disease of the nipple, Engorged veins

Nipple changes – crust, sunken, discharge.

New shape/size/asymmetry between breast.

Palpable lump in axilla

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173
Q

Paget’s disease of the nipple

A

= Rare but highly associated with underlying neoplasm.

Often mistaken for eczema of the nipple

Clinical features are reddening, rough/flaking skin, itching and ulceration of the nipple.

MUST do skin biopsy to confirm diagnosis

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174
Q

Spread of breast cancer

A

LOCAL
= into overlying skin (causes tethering/nipple retraction), into pectoral muscles (causes deep fixation of tumour).

LYMPHATICS
= nodal involvement common in axilla as well as clavicular nodes; can block lymphatics and prevent lymphatic drainage (causing Peau d’orange)

DISTAL DISSEMINATION
= commonly to the bone, lung, liver and brain.

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175
Q

Breast carcinoma in situ

A

= a pre-cancerous lesion:

Normally ductal (DCIS) but can be lobular (LCIS)

Abnormal cells that haven’t yet developed the ability to breach the basement membrane.

If left, it will become cancerous, therefore offered similar treatments as breast cancer

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176
Q

TNM staging of breast cancer

A

T1 <2cm
T3 >5cm
T4 = fixed to chest or peau d’orange

N0 = no nodes
N1 = mobile ipsilateral nodes
N2 = fixed nodes

M0 = no distant metastases
M1 = distant metastases

If metastases are suspected, the patient will have a liver USS, CXR & bone scan

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177
Q

Breast Cancer - Mx

A

All patients are treated surgically, if they are fit for surgery.
=> Wide local excision or Mastectomy

Regional lymph nodes must also be managed – sentinel node biopsy is performed

Most breast surgery is combined with adjuvant RADIOTHERAPY for invasive disease

If there is nodal disease, or high-grade tumours, CHEMOTHERAPY is considered

If the tumour is ER/HER2 positive, adjuvant hormonal/biologic treatment is given for 5 years.

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178
Q

Wide local Excision vs Simple Mastectomy for breast cancer

A

Wide Local Excision = Breast-conserving surgery
=> can be used providing the breast if of adequate size and the tumour location is not central/retro-areolar.
=> Margins are checked to ensure they are clear of disease

Simple Mastectomy
=> Preferred for large tumours (or small breasts), central location of the tumour or late presentation with complications.

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179
Q

How is a Sentinel node biopsy performed?

A
  1. Inject dye into/around the tumour bulk to identify the first 1-2 nodes that drain the tumour, which are removed and analysed histologically.
  2. If negative, it can be assumed that there is no nodal involvement.
  3. If positive, full axillary clearance is required (20% risk of lymphoedema)
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180
Q

Hormonal/biologic Tx for breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen if pre-/perimenopausal (breast-selective ER-antagonist

Aromatase inhibitors (e.g. letrazole, aromisin, exemestone) if post-menopausal, to stop peripheral oestrogen production.

Herceptin (traztuzumab) if HER2 positive (this is always combined with chemotherapy).

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181
Q

Nottingham Prognostic Index (NPI) for breast cancer

A

NPI = (tumour size x 0.2) + histological grade + nodal status

If treated with surgery alone, 10-year survival rates are:
- NPI <2.4 = 95%
- NPI 2-4 – 3.4 = 85%
- NPI 3.4 – 4.4 = 70%
- NPI 4.4 – 5.4 = 50%
- NPI >5.4 = 20%

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182
Q

What are the anal vascular cushions?

A

Formed of smooth muscle with subepithelial anastomoses of the rectal arteries/veins (i.e. highly vascular areas)

They act to assist the anal sphincter in maintaining continence.

There are three, positioned at the 3-, 7- and 11 o’clock positions when viewed from the lithotomy position.

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183
Q

What are haemorrhoids?

A

= disrupted/dilated anal vascular cushions

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184
Q

How are haemorrhoids classified?

A

According to their size:

1st Degree - Remain in the rectum

2nd Degree - Prolapse through the anus on defecation but spontaneously reduce

3rd Degree - Prolapse through the anus on defecation but require digital reduction

4th Degree - Remain persistently prolapsed

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185
Q

Causes/RFs for developing haemorrhoids

A

Idiopathic

Excessive straining/increased anal tone – chronic constipation, low-fibre diet.

Increasing age

Factors that cause congestion of superior rectal veins – cardiac failure, rectal carcinoma, portal hypertension, any raised IAP

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186
Q

Drainage of superior and inferior rectal veins

A

superior rectal veins = into the inferior mesenteric vein (portal drainage),

middle/inferior rectal veins = into the IVC.

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187
Q

Haemorrhoids - Presentation

A

Often asymptomatic

Painless rectal bleeding
- Usually bright red blood on the paper
- Only seen on the surface of the stool (not mixed in).

Prolapse
Mucous discharge
Pruritis ani
Impaired continence
Rectal fullness/anal lump

Pain if the haemorrhoids are thrombosed.

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188
Q

Haemorrhoids - Complications

A

Anaemia – if severe/continuous bleed.

Thrombosis

Ulceration/gangrene (secondary to thrombosis).

Perianal sepsis.

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189
Q

Thrombosis of haemorrhoid

A

Occurs when prolapsing haemorrhoids are gripped by the anal sphincter (“strangulated”).

Venous return is occluded, leading to thrombosis.

Haemorrhoids swell, become purple/blue and tense, cause significant pain/distress.

Often fibrose within 2-3 weeks, giving spontaneous cure.

Management is conservative – cold compresses, opioids and rest.

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190
Q

Haemorrhoids - Investigations

A

It is important to exclude other causes of rectal bleeding – malignancy, IBD, diverticular disease.

Investigations:
- PR exam – prolapsing haemorrhoids are obvious.
- Proctoscopy – can visualise the haemorrhoids and assess for any lesion higher in the rectum.
- Abdominal exam – palpable mass, enlarged liver.
- Colonoscopy/flexi-sigmoidoscopy – if symptoms suggest a different pathology (e.g. malignancy).

If significant/prolonged bleeding – FBC and coagulation screen.

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191
Q

Haemorrhoids - Management

A

Conservative/medical management

Sclerotherapy (1st and 2nd degree)

Banding (1st to 3rd degree)

Surgical (reserved for 3rd and 4th degree)

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192
Q

Conservative management of haemorrhoids

A

Advice to patient – plenty of fluids, lots of fibre, try not to strain.

Ice packs

Topical analgesia (e.g. instillagel)

Bulk forming laxative

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193
Q

Sclerotherapy for haemorrhoids

A
  • 5% phenol in almond oil is injected above each haemorrhoid as a sclerosing injection.
  • Suitable for 1st and 2nd degree haemorrhoids
  • Painless, as placed high in anal canal above the dentate line.
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194
Q

Banding for hameorrhoids

A

= applicaton of small rubber band to the protruding mucosa to cause strangulation.

Can be done to 1st to 3rd degree haemorrhoids

Band must be above dentate line

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195
Q

Surgical Mx of haemorrhoids

A

Reserved for 3rd and 4th degree haemorrhoids

Stapled haemorrhoidopexy
Haemorrhoid artery ligation operation (HALO)
Surgical haemorrhoidectomy (now less commonly used)

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196
Q

Which muscles maintain anal continence?

A

Levator Ani

Internal anal sphincter = Thickening of the involuntary smooth muscle of bowel

External anal sphincter = voluntary muscle

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197
Q

Anatomical changes to the mucosa around the dentate line

A

the mucosa gathers into longitudinal folds containing the anal glands.

Anal glands secrete mucous to help with propulsion of faeces.

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198
Q

ABOVE dentate line

A

from embryological hindgut.

Columnar epithelium.

Blood supply from superior rectal artery (from inferior mesenteric artery).

Venous drainage by superior rectal vein (branch of inferior mesenteric vein).

Internal iliac lymph nodes

Innervated by inferior hypogastric plexus – sensitive to stretch only.

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199
Q

Rectum - BELOW dentate line

  • epithelial type
  • vasculature
  • innervation
A

from ectoderm.

Non-keratinising stratified squamous epithelium.

Blood supply from the inferior rectal artery (from pudendal a., a branch of internal iliac a.)

Venous drainage by inferior rectal vein (branch of internal pudendal vein).

Superficial inguinal lymph nodes.

Innervated by pudendal nerve – sensitive to pain, temperature, touch and pressure.

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200
Q

What should be done for anyone with palpable inguinal lymph nodes?

A

anyone with palpable inguinal lymph nodes should also have a PR exam (?anal cancer)

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201
Q

What happens at the anal verge?

A

the epithelial cells become keratinised squamous (“true skin”)

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202
Q

Perianal haematoma

A

= “thrombosed external haemorrhoid”

however, unlike internal haemorrhoids it is covered by squamous epithelium supplied by somatic nerves, and thus is painful

Onset is acute, with sudden pain and a lump at the anal verge.

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203
Q

Perianal haematoma - Mx

A

Left untreated, they will either subside over a few days to leave a fibrous tag, or rupture to discharge clotted blood.

In the acute phase they can be incised and drained under LA.

If they are already discharging/being resorbed, hot baths and reassurance is all that is necessary.

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204
Q

Where is the most common site of perianal infection?

A

Anal sinuses/crypts are most common site of infection

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205
Q

Anorectal abscess

A

Usually caused by gut organisms

Associated with Crohn’s, DM and malignancy

Tx = incision and drainage under GA, to prevent rupture/formation of a fistula.

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206
Q

What is a pilonidal Sinus?

A

Obstruction of natal cleft hair follicles around 6cm above the anus, with ingrowing of hair leading to a foreign body reaction.

This can lead to abscess formation or tracks to the skin as a pilonidal sinus with foul discharge.

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207
Q

Pilonidal sinus - Tx

A

= excision of the sinus tract and primary closure, with pre-op ABX.

=> Hygiene and hair removal advise should be given.

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208
Q

What is a fistula-in-ano?

A

= an abnormal connection between the anal canal and the skin.

Presents as intermittent or continuous discharge of pus/blood/mucous from the perineum.

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209
Q

Causes of fistula-in-ano

A

Usually the result of an abscess (1 in 3 abscess patients have a fistula).

  • IBD
  • Diverticular disease
  • Rectal Carcinoma
  • TB
  • Immunocompromised individuals
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210
Q

Fistula-in-ano - Investigations

A

Examination of the tract (VERY painful, only done under anaesthetic)

MRI

Endoanal USS

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211
Q

Goodsall’s Rule for anal fistulae

A

the position of the external opening can give you clues as to the tract of the fistula.

Anterior to transverse line – short, direct radicular tract to the interior opening.

Posterior to transverse line – curved/horseshoe tract to the interior opening.

The exception to this rule is anterior fistulas that lie >3cm from the anus, which may drain like posterior fistulas with a curved track to the posterior midline

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212
Q

Fistula-in-ano - Management

A

Superficial and low-level fistulae => laid open to heal by secondary intention (fistulotomy).

High fistulae (involving the continence muscles of the anus) may be injected with fibrin glue or a “fistula plug”.

If these methods fail, a “seton suture” gradually tightened over time can be used to maintain continence (ensures the sphincter is fixed by scar tissue before the tract is divided by tightening the suture).

Recurrent fistulae associated with Crohn’s may respond to metronidazole.

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213
Q

Anal fissure

A

An anal fissure is a longitudinal tear in the sensitive anal canal mucosa, distal to the dentate line.

Usually at 6 o’clock (90%) or 12 o’clock (10%, due to parturition).

Can be acute (present <6 weeks) or chronic (present >6 weeks).

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214
Q

Anal fissure - Causes

A

Mainly constipation.
Parturition – causing anterior/12 o’clock tears.

Rarer causes:
- Infections (syphilis/herpes)
- Trauma
- Crohn’s
- Anal cancer
- Psoriasis

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215
Q

Anal fissure - Presentation

A

SYMPTOMS
Pain, worse on defecation, lasting for hours afterwards
Associated constipation
Pruritis Ani
PR bleeding on defecation (fresh red)

O/E:
Midline longitudinal tear in the rectal mucosa
PR may not be possible due to pain/sphincter spasm

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216
Q

Anal fissure - Investigations

A

Proctoscopy and sigmoidoscopy should be performed under anaesthesia to exclude other anorectal diseases.

Enlarged nodes in the groin suggest a complicating factor.

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217
Q

Anal fissure - Management

A

Early small fissures may heal spontaneously, with symptomatic relief and a high fibre diet.
=> Local anaesthetic ointments and a lubricant laxative

If chronic, 0.4% GTN cream is used to relax the anal sphincter and allow the torn epithelium to heal.
=> SEs of GTN = headaches
Botox injection has the same effect and can last up to 8 weeks (but small risk of incontinence afterwards).

Intractable fissures/recurrent cases may require a sphincterotomy (submucosal division of the external sphincter under GA).

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218
Q

What are diverticula?

Where can they occur?

A

= outpouchings of bowel wall

can occur anywhere in the GI tract but are more common in the sigmoid (95% of cases) and descending colon.

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219
Q

Why are diverticula more common in the sigmoid colon?

A

Sigmoid has smallest lumen and highest pressures, therefore more prone to diverticulum formation

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220
Q

Pathophysiology of diverticula

A

Weakened bowel => stool movement increases intraluminal pressure => outpouching of the bowel wall.

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221
Q

True vs. False diverticula

A

True (involving all layers of the intestine – serosa, muscle, submucosa, mucosa).

False (does not contain all layers – often mucosa pushed through muscle defect).

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222
Q

RFs for diverticulosis

A

• Western/low fibre diet
• Age >50 years
• Male
• Obesity
• Connective tissue disorders – e.g Marfans, Ehler-danlos; predisposition to weakened GI wall.
• Smoking
• Family history
• NSAID use

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223
Q

What is diverticulosis?

A

= the presence of diverticula

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224
Q

What is diverticular disease?

A

= the presence of diverticula + symptomatic

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225
Q

What is diverticulitis?

A

= bacterial overgrowth within the gut causes inflammation of the diverticula.

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226
Q

Prevalence of diverticulosis

A

Highest prevalence = Europe and the USA (rare in Africa and Asia).

Age:
=> 50% of over 50s
=> 80% of over 80s in the UK.

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227
Q

Diverticulosis - Presentation

A

most commonly (95% of cases) asymptomatic and discovered incidentally

If symptomatic, they exactly mimic Sx of carcinoma of the colon:
- Left-sided colic, relieved by defecation
- Altered bowel habit (including PR blood/mucous)
- Nausea
- Flatulence
- Severe pain and constipation if severe (causing luminal narrowing)

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228
Q

Diverticular Disease - Investigations

A

PR (to r/o DDx of abscess/cancer)

Sigmoidoscopy/colonoscopy

Barium enema

CT

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229
Q

Diverticular Disease - Mx

A

Mebeverine is 1st line

Surgery may be considered if recurrent/very severe (rarely resorted to due to compications)

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230
Q

Asymptomatic Diverticula - Mx

A

Dietary Advice only for asymptomatic diverticulae (increase dietary fibre and balanced diet).

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231
Q

Diverticulitis - Presentation

A

SYMPTOMS
Severe left-sided colic
Constipation (or overflow diarrhoea)
Symptoms mimicking appendicitis, but on the left.
Systemically unwell

If there is extensive inflammation, the diverticula can perforate, and the patient can present with localised/generalised peritonitis.

SIGNS
Fever & tachycardia
Tenderness, guarding & rigidity on LHS
Can be a palpable mass in LIF
Raised WCC & inflammatory markers

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232
Q

What can sometimes mask the symptoms of diverticulitis?

A

If a patient is taking corticosteroids or immunosuppressants, this can mask symptoms of diverticulitis.

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233
Q

Simple vs. Complicated diverticulitis

A

Complicated – presence of abscess, formation of fistula, stricture, free perforation.

Simple – inflammation without any of these features.

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234
Q

Diverticular bleed

A

Diverticulitis is NOT typically associated with bleeding, as blood vessels become scarred from the inflammation.

However, diverticular bleeds occur when the diverticulum erodes into a submucosal blood vessel.

This causes haematochezia (the passage of bright red blood in the stool). This is generally large-scale and painless.

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235
Q

Diverticulitis - Mx in mild or severe attacks

A

Mild Attacks (uncomplicated, low-grade fever):
- Bowel rest (fluids only) at home
- Oral co-amoxiclav +/- metronidazole

Severe Attacks (complicated, high-grade fever):
- Admit if pain cannot be controlled, or oral fluids cannot be tolerated

  • Give analgesia, IV fluids, IV cefuroxime & metronidazole & keep NBM
  • Order erect CXR, AXR and contrast CT to assess for complications
  • DO NOT SCOPE in acute attack
  • Further management depends on degree of complications.
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236
Q

Complications of diverticulitis

A

Perforation
Abscess Formation
Bleeding
Fistula Formation
Intestinal Obstruction

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237
Q

Perforation in diverticulitis

A

Usually acute diverticulitis
Can lead to formation of a paracolic/pelvic abscess, fistulae or generalised peritonitis

Presents with ileus & peritonitis +/- shock
Mortality is up to 40%

Mx = Laparotomy +/- Hartmann’s procedure

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238
Q

Abscess formation in diverticulitis

A

Presents with swinging fever, leucocytosis and localising signs (e.g. boggy rectal mass)

Mx = drainage under CT guidance

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239
Q

Fistula formation in diverticulitis

A

Colovesical (=> UTI and pneumaturia)
Colovaginal (=> foul discharge)

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240
Q

Intestinal obstruction in diverticulitis

A

Most commonly sigmoid after repeated episodes of diverticulitis.

Chronic inflammation leads to scarring and the formation of a diverticular mass, which causes obstruction and may mimic colonic carcinoma.

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241
Q

Meckel’s Diverticulum

A

= An outpouching in the lower part of the small intestine.

A congenital abnormality - a remnant of the vitello-intestinal duct.

Approx. 2% of population have them, most are asymptomatic.

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242
Q

What is the most common GI congenital abnormality?

A

= Meckel’s Diverticulum

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243
Q

Meckel’s Rule of 2s

A

Affects 2% of population
2 years old
2:1 M:F ratio
2 inches long
2 feet proximal to ileocaecal valve
2 types of ectopic tissue (gastric/pancreatic)

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244
Q

Meckel’s Diverticulum - Presentation

A

Most commonly presents in young (<2 years old) children with painless melaena, then followed by obstruction / intussusception.

HOWEVER: can mimic appendicitis and present very similarly.

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245
Q

What is “Acute Abdomen”?

A

= sudden onset, severe abdominal pain which may indicate potentially life-threatening intra-abdominal pathology that requires urgent surgical intervention.

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246
Q

Painless acute abdomen

A

occurs particularly in older people, in children, in the immunocompromised, and in the last trimester of pregnancy.

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247
Q

Causes of abdo pain - right hypochondriac region

A

Gallstones
Cholangitis
Hepatitis
Liver abscess
Cardiac causes
Lower lobe pneumonia

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248
Q

Causes of abdo pain - left hypochondriac region

A

Spleen Abscess
Acute splenomegaly
Spleen rupture
Lower lobe pneumonia
Cardiac causes

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249
Q

Causes of abdo pain - epigastric region

A

Oesophagitis
Peptic Ulcer
Perforated Ulcer
Pancreatitis
MI

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250
Q

Causes of abdo pain - right lumbar region

A

Renal stones
Pyelonephritis

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251
Q

Causes of abdo pain - left lumbar region

A

Renal stones
Pyelonephritis

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252
Q

Causes of abdo pain - umbilical region

A

AAA rupture
Appendicitis (early)
Meckel’s diverticulitis
Small bowel obstruction
Ischaemic bowel
Peritonitis
DKA

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253
Q

Causes of abdo pain - left Iliac region

A

Diverticulitis
IBD
Constipation
Ovarian Cyst
Ectopic pregnancy
Hernias

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254
Q

Causes of abdo pain - right Iliac region

A

Appendicitis
IBD
Caecum obstruction
Ovarian cyst/torsion
Ectopic pregnancy
Hernias

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255
Q

Causes of abdo pain - hypogastric/suprapubic region

A

Testicular Torsion
Urinary retention
Cystitis
Placental Abruption
Large bowel obstruction
PID
Endometriosis

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256
Q

Acute abdomen - bleeding

A

AAA rupture – most serious cause, requires immediate surgical intervention.

Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
Bleeding from organ
Gastric ulcer
Trauma

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257
Q

What is peritonitis?

A

= Inflammation of the peritoneum.

Localised – when the inflammation is in a limited area (e.g. adjacent to inflamed appendix/diverticulum prior to rupture).

Generalised – when the inflammation is widespread (e.g. after the rupture of an abdominal organ).

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258
Q

Peritonitis - presentation

A

Patients lay completely still, with shallow breathing.
=> Pain is made worse by movement/ coughing/ inspiration

Tachycardia and potentially hypotension/pyrexia.

Percussion/rebound tenderness

Involuntary guarding (reflex contraction of abdominal muscles on examination of the inflamed area) and rigidty (increased tone at rest).

Reduced or absent bowel sounds.

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259
Q

Ischaemic bowel - Presentation

A

Any patient who has severe pain out of proportion to the clinical signs has ischaemic bowel until proven otherwise.

  • Diffuse and constant abdominal pain reported.
  • Examination may be unremarkable.
  • Acidaemia with raised lactate on blood gases (due to impaired blood supply resulting in anaerobic respiration of the tissues)
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260
Q

Ischaemic bowel - Dx and Mx

A

Definitive diagnosis of ischaemic bowel is via a CT scan with IV contrast.

These patients require early surgical involvement to prevent perforation of the bowel and subsequent peritonitis and potential sepsis.

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261
Q

Abdo pain - inflammatory

A

Constant pain, supported by a raised temperature, pulse and leucocytosis.

Includes peritonitis

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262
Q

Abdo pain - Obstructive

A

Colicky pain
=> Crescendos to become very severe and then completely goes away (except biliary colic)

Patients often agitated.

Pain may become constant with superimposed inflammation.

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263
Q

Abdo pain - Referred Visceral Pain

A

Foregut (oesophagus to D2) pain is referred to the upper abdomen.

Midgut (D2 to transverse colon) pain is referred to the middle abdomen

Hindgut pain is referred to the lower abdomen.

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264
Q

Initial Management of acute abdomen

A

A to E assessment

(Pregnancy test if female)

Certain presentations require an urgent laparotomy:
1. Rupture of an organ (spleen, aorta, ectopic)
2. Peritonitis

Keep NBM if for theatre

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265
Q

Acute Abdo - Investigations

A

Basic observations
ECG (exclude MI)
Urine dip
Pregnancy test
BM (?DKA)

Bloods - FBC, U&E, LFTs, Amylase/lipase, ABG/VBG, CRP, Coagulation, Group and save/ XM, ?Blood cultures

Imaging - depending on DDx

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266
Q

What amylase result is likely to indicate pancreatitis?

What else can cause raised amylase?

A

Amylase 3x higher than upper limit to be diagnostic of pancreatitis

Values lower than this suggests other pathology – e.g. perforated bowel, ectopic pregnancy, DKA.

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267
Q

Acute Abdo - imaging choice

A

Erect CXR – evidence of bowel perforation

Abdominal X-Ray
=> Bowel obstruction, Toxic megacolon, Foreign body ingestion (if radio-opaque)

Abdominal Ultrasound
=> Biliary pathologies, KUB, Gynae pathologies, Appendix

In a patient who is very unwell, a CT is a good option

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268
Q

What is the most common cause of acute abdomen?

A

Appendicitis

(occurs in ~6-10% of population)

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269
Q

Causes of appendicitis

A

= inflammation of the appendix, usually caused by blockage within the lumen.

This can be due to:
- Faecolith (a stone made of faeces) – most common.
- Swollen lymphoid tissue in the wall – common in adolescence
- Parasites
- Tumours

Bacteria can proliferate in the closed loop of bowel, eventually leading to ischaemia & necrosis. The appendix can eventually perforate due to the raised intraluminal pressure, releasing bacteria into the abdominal cavity.

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270
Q

Appendicitis - Presentation

A

Abdominal pain
- Starts dull and central
- Then becomes localised and sharp in the RIF at McBurney’s point
- Pain may not be severe until the appendix has ruptured!

Constipation (or sometimes diarrhoea).
Anorexia
Nausea and vomiting (after the pain starts).

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271
Q

Where is McBurney’s Point?

A

1/3 of the way between the ASIS and the umbilicus

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272
Q

Appendicitis - signs

A

Rebound and percussion tenderness in RIF (maximum at McBurney’s point)

Guarding (especially if perforated)

Rovsing’s Sign

Tachycardia, tachypnoea
Mild pyrexia

Psoas sign – pain on R hip extension: retroperitoneal retrocaecal appendix.

Obturator sign – pain on internal rotation of R hip: pelvic appendix.

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273
Q

Rovsing’s Sign

A

more painful in RIF than LIF when LIF pressed

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274
Q

Appendicitis - Investigations

A

Abdominal exam and PR
Pelvic examination in females

Pregnancy test
Bloods – FBC, U&E, CRP/ESR
Urinalysis

USS/CT – if diagnostic uncertainty

AXR/erect CXR – if questioning perforation.

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275
Q

Appendicitis - Mx

A

If confirmed

  • NBM ready for appendectomy.
  • Resuscitation – IV fluids and IV metronidazole/cephalosporin pre-op
  • Appendectomy (laparoscopic is gold standard)
  • If ruptured appendix – remove the appendix and do a wash out (using large volumes of sterile fluid).
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276
Q

Appendectomy - early complications

A

Haematoma; surgical site infections

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277
Q

Appendectomy - late complications

A

SBO (adhesions); incisional hernia.

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278
Q

Appendicitis - Complications

A

Perforation

Surgical site infection

Appendix mass

Pelvic abscess

Surgical damage to other organs

Universal post-op complications – DVT/PE, bleeding, ileus, etc.

Adhesions – small bowel obstruction due to scarring.

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279
Q

What is an appendix mass?

A

when an inflamed appendix becomes covered with omentum and forms a mass

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280
Q

Who is more likely to get IBD?

A

More common in Caucasians, and Ashkenazi Jews.

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281
Q

Types of IBD

A
  1. Ulcerative colitis
  2. Crohn’s disease
  3. Indeterminate colitis – when it is not possible to distinguish between UC and Crohn’s.
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282
Q

RFs for Crohn’s Disease

A

poor diet,
FHx,
smoking,
altered immune states

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283
Q

Rose-thorn ulcers

A

deep penetrating linear ulcers or fissuring typically seen within stenosed terminal ileum with a thickened wall.

They appear as thorn-like extraluminal projections on barium studies

One of the typical signs of Crohn’s disease

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284
Q

Cobblestone appearance on CT

A

due to a combination of extensive, broad, linear transverse and longitudinal ulcerations/fissures within an inflamed mucosal surface

=> gives an appearance reminiscent of cobblestones.

Often seen in Crohn’s disease

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285
Q

Crohn’s disease - Pathophysiology

A

Inflammation affects any part of the GI tract (mouth to anus).
=> Most commonly terminal ileum and proximal ascending colon

Can affect just one area, or multiple areas leaving normal bowel in between (“skip lesions”).

Involved bowel is narrowed due to thickened wall, with deep ulcers

Due to inflammation, a lot of fat wrapping/stranding is seen around the intestine.

Inflammation extends through ALL layers of the bowel, so fistulas and strictures are common.

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286
Q

Crohn’s disease - Presentation

A

Abdominal pain (varying in character)

Diarrhoea
- Steatorrhoea in ileal disease
- Bloody in colonic disease

Weight loss (or FTT) – due to malnutrition

Severe aphthous ulceration of the mouth (early sign)

Anal complications – fissure, fistula, haemorrhoids, skin tags, abscesses

Extra-GI manifestations of IBD

Can present with RIF pain/mass

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287
Q

Ulcerative Colitis - Pathophysiology

A

thought to be autoimmune in nature.

The inflammation only affects the mucosa (i.e. superficial ulceration).

Ulceration is extensive and continuous.

Mucosa is reddened, inflamed and bleeds easily.

Only very small portions of normal mucosa.

Inflammation leads to loss of the colonic haustra.

Gives the adjacent mucosa the appearance of inflammatory polyps.

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288
Q

Extent of ulcerative colitis

A

Inflammation that starts at the rectum, extending proximally along the colon

Proctitis – affects the rectum alone
Proctosigmoiditis
Distal colitis
Extensive colitis
Pancolitis – whole colon is affected

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289
Q

How common are obstructions/fistulae/strictures in IBD?

A

Common in Crohn’s as all layers of the bowel are affected

Uncommon in UC, as inflammation is mostly superficial

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290
Q

What is backwash ileitis?

A

inflammation of the distal terminal ileum in ulcerative colitis patients

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291
Q

What is a protective factor in UC?

A

Smoking!

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292
Q

Ulcerative Colitis - Presentation

A

Crampy lower abdominal discomfort
Gradual onset diarrhoea (often bloody)
Urgency and tenesmus if disease confined to rectum
Extra-GI manifestations.

AXR – may show dilated colon, with thumb-printing of the bowel wall.

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293
Q

What does “thumb-printing” of the bowel wall on an AXR suggest?

A

Indicates inflammation and thickening.

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294
Q

Extra-colonic manifestations of IBD

A

During Active phase of IBD:
• Skin disorders – erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum
• Joints – arthralgia of large joints
• Eye manifestations – conjunctivitis/episcleritis/iritis
• Venous thrombosis
• Fatty liver

Unrelated to disease activity:
• Autoimmune hepatitis
• Gallstones
• Renal calculi
• Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• Cholangiocarcinoma
• Ankylosing spondylitis

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295
Q

Histological differences between Crohn’s and UC

A

Crohn’s – transmural inflammation, lymphoid hyperplasia, granulomas.

UC – mucosal inflammation, crypt abscesses, goblet cell depletion.

HOWEVER it may not be possible to distinguish between IBDs if the biopsy is taken in the acute phase – “indeterminate inflammatory colitis”.

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296
Q

IBD - Investigations

A

Bloods
=> FBC, U&E, LFT, CRP/ESR, Serum iron, B12, folate

Stool Studies
=> Stool chart; MCS x3 to exclude infective causes; Calprotectin

Radiology
=> AXR/CXR in acute disease
=> CT in Crohn’s

Endoscopy
=> Rigid/flexi-sigmoidoscopy
=> Colonoscopy
=> Endoscopic rectal biopsy
=> Biopsies

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297
Q

What is the aim of treatment of IBD?

A

to prolong the remission phase and prevent relapses with maintenance therapy

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298
Q

Acute Crohn’s Flare - Mx of Mild attack

A

Mild attack (= symptomatic but systemically well):
- Oral prednisolone
- Tapered steroids and review in clinic

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299
Q

Acute Crohn’s Flare - Mx of severe attack

A

Severe attack (= symptomatic + systemic upset)

  • Raised temp, HR, CRP/ESR and low albumin warrant admission
  • Start IV steroids (hydrocortisone 100mg/6h)
  • NBM, parenteral nutrition
  • High level monitoring
  • Thiopurines (e.g. Azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine) are 2nd line
  • Biological agents (infliximab) used in refractory disease not responding to medical treatment
  • Once improving, transfer to oral prednisolone as per mild attack

If unable to control, surgical advice should be sought.

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300
Q

Acute UC flare - Mx of mild/moderate attack

A

Proctitis/proctosigmoiditis – topical aminosalicylate (e.g. mesalazine suppository/enema) +/- oral mesalazine

More extensive disease – loading dose oral mesalazine +/- oral beclomethasone and topical mesalazine

2nd line (after 4 weeks of unsuccessful 1st line Tx) – add oral prednisolone

3rd line – tacrolimus after a further 2-4 weeks

4th line – biological agents, considered by a specialist

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301
Q

Acute UC flare - Mx of severe/fulminating UC

A

MDT management

1st line =
Start IV corticosteroids
Assess the patient with regard to surgical intervention
SC LMWH
Avoid any anti-motility drugs

2nd line – IV ciclosporin if symptoms worsen or no improvement within 72h of steroids

3rd line – biological agents, considered by a specialist

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302
Q

What factors increase the likelihood of surgical intervention in UC?

A

Likelihood of surgery is suggested by:

> 8 motions/day,
pyrexia, tachycardia,
colonic dilatation,
low albumin, low Hb,
CRP <45

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303
Q

UC Maintenance Tx

A

5-ASA derivatives are 1st line (topical if proctosigmoiditis, oral if left-sided)
=> Sulfasalazine, mesalazine

Oral thiopurines are 2nd line
=> Azathioprine, mercaptopurine

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304
Q

Surgical Mx of IBD

A

UC – colectomy provides cure.

Crohn’s - surgery is never curative and patients still tend to develop recurrent disease.

=> Temporary ileostomies can be used to rest the distal diseased bowel
=> Can perform limited resection of the small bowel (but must keep it above 1m long to prevent malabsorption)

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305
Q

Surgical options for UC

A

EMERGENCY PROCEDURES:
• Subtotal colectomy & end ileostomy (leaves rectal stump, so still a proctitis/cancer risk)
• Proctocolectomy & end ileostomy (rectal stump also removed)

ELECTIVE PROCEDURES:
• Completion proctocolectomy & ileoanal pouch reconstruction (faecal continence maintained)
• Colectomy and ileorectal anastomosis

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306
Q

General complications of IBD

A

Bowel perforation

Lower GI haemorrhage

Toxic dilatation (more common in UC)

Colonic carcinoma
=> Higher risk in Crohn’s than UC

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307
Q

What is the colorectal cancer risk in UC?

A

UC patients with pancolitis for 20 years have 15% risk (surveillance required)

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308
Q

Toxic Dilatation of the colon

A

Features – persistent fever, tachycardia, loose blood-stained stools.

Investigations:
Falling albumin/potassium.
AXR – dilated (>6cm) colon with mucosal islands.

Perforation is imminent – surgery often required

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309
Q

Complications specific to Crohn’s Disease

A

SBO

Fistulae

Abscess formation

B12/folate/iron deficiencies

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310
Q

What is the definition of a hernia?

A

= the protrusion of viscus through a defect in the walls of its containing cavity into an abnormal position.

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311
Q

Reducible vs irreducible hernias

A
  1. Reducible – contents can be manipulated back to its original position through the defect.
  2. Irreducible – cannot be reduced without surgery.
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312
Q

What is an incarcerated hernia?

A

= an irreducible hernia, with the contents trapped due to adhesions.

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313
Q

What is a strangulated hernia?

A

= Compression of bowel => obstructed venous return => ischaemia

Can lead to necrosis, gangrene and perforation if left untreated

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314
Q

What is an obstructed hernia?

A

= Bowel contents cannot pass through the herniated bowel

Presents as abdominal pain and distension; absolute constipation; N&V.

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315
Q

RFs for developing a hernia

A

Male (increased risk of central obesity)

Increasing age, protein deficiencies (less collagen for tensile strength)

Heavy lifting, chronic cough, chronic constipation, obesity (Increased intra-abdominal pressure)

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316
Q

Spigelian Hernia

A

Due to natural weakness in semilunar space between two muscle groups.

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317
Q

Inguinal Hernia

A

= most common type of hernia

Occurs through the inguinal canal

=> Can be direct/indirect

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318
Q

Femoral hernia

A

when abdominal viscera or omentum pass through the femoral ring into the potential space of the femoral canal.

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319
Q

Hernia - principles of Mx

A

Try to reduce the hernia to prevent obstruction/strangulation

If the hernia is irreducible, elective surgery is considered.
=> Open or laparoscopic
=> Generally done as a day case

If obstructed/strangulated, an emergency Hartmann’s procedure is performed.

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320
Q

How are congenital inguinal hernias managed?

A

Treated with herniotomy and ligation of the processus vaginalis at about the age of one year.

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321
Q

Inguinal canal anatomy

A

Extends inferiorly and medially through the inferior part of the abdominal wall.

Is about 4cm long

Embryologically, was used to allow the descent of the testes into the scrotum

Contains:
- Spermatic cord (if male) / round ligament (if female)
- Nerves
- Arteries

Has a deep and superficial inguinal ring

322
Q

Deep inguinal ring - location

A

found ~1cm above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament (lateral to the epigastric vessels).

323
Q

How can you located the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

A

= halfway from ASIS to pubic tubercle

324
Q

Superficial inguinal ring - location

A

found just superior to the pubic tubercle.

325
Q

What are the borders of the inguinal canal?

A

ROOF = transversalis fascia; internal oblique; transversus abdominis

ANTERIOR = aponeurosis of external oblique; internal oblique

POSTERIOR = Transversalis fascia

FLOOR = Inguinal ligament

326
Q

Which type of inguinal hernia is more common?

A

Indirect Inguinal Hernia (~80%)

327
Q

Indirect inguinal hernia

A

The hernia goes through in the deep ring, through the inguinal canal and out through the superficial ring.

Accounts for ~80% of inguinal hernias

More likely to strangulate

328
Q

Direct inguinal hernia

A

Hernia goes through a defect in the posterior wall. It exits through the superficial ring.

Accounts for ~20% of inguinal hernias

Reduce easily, rarely strangulate.

329
Q

What is Hesselbach’s Triangle?

A

= a triangular region in the anterior abdominal wall, which is a particular area of potential weakness.

Inferior border = the inguinal ligament
Lateral border = inferior epigastric vessels
Medial border = rectus abdominis muscle.

330
Q

Inguinal hernia - clinical features

A

Painless swelling in the groin
Often asymptomatic
May come and go, or emerge suddenly – e.g. after heavy lifting

They can become symptomatic and the common features of this are:
- Pain – particularly when coughing or stooping
- Change in bowel habit
- Burning sensation in the groin
- Scrotal swelling (in males)

331
Q

Inguinal hernia - differentiation between direct/indirect on examination

A

To differentiate between indirect/direct on examination:
- Reduce the hernia
- Press over the deep ring (just above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament.
- Ask the patient to cough.
- If the hernia reappears – it is a DIRECT hernia.

Absolute differentiation can ONLY be achieved via surgical exploration – the inferior epigastric vessels are used as the landmark.
=> Indirect inguinal hernias are lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.
=> Direct inguinal hernias are medial to the inferior epigastric vessels.

332
Q

Femoral canal anatomy and purpose

A

= an anatomical compartment, in the anterior thigh.

Normally lies medial to the femoral vein ( N A V [Y] )

Its purpose is allow space for the vein to expand.

Normally contains a small amount of fatty tissue and lymph nodes.

333
Q

RFs for femoral hernias

A

• Female (due to wider anatomy of pelvis)
• Pregnancy
• Raised intra-abdominal pressure
• Increasing age

334
Q

What is there a risk of with femoral hernias?

A

There is a HIGH risk of strangulation due to the narrow neck of the femoral canal and strong borders.

=> 50% present as a surgical emergency with an obstructed or strangulated hernia

335
Q

Femoral Hernia - Presentation

A

50% present as a surgical emergency with an obstructed or strangulated hernia

Otherwise present as painless groin lump

336
Q

Inguinal vs femoral hernia

A

Inguinal hernias are SUPERIOMEDIAL to the pubic tubercle

Femoral hernias are INFEROLATERAL to the pubic tubercle

337
Q

Richter’s Hernia

A

= a hernia involving only one side wall of the bowel, and not the bowel lumen, which can result in bowel strangulation and perforation without causing obstruction or any of its warning signs.

They are particularly likely in the femoral sac.

338
Q

Cause of umbilical Hernia and RFs

A

Due to a defect in transversalis fascia = umbilical ring, where the umbilical vessels passed in-utero

Occur in babies

More common in black, male, premature babies

339
Q

Cause of Paraumbilical Hernia and RFs

A

Occur adjacent to the umbilicus due to a weakness in the linea alba

More common in 35-50 year old women
Usually caused by raised IAP.

340
Q

Umbilical hernia - presentation

A

Generally asymptomatic, more prominent on coughing/laughing.

Low strangulation risk, very rarely become obstructed.

341
Q

Paraumbilical hernia - presentation

A

Localised dragging pain and enlarging hernia over time.

High risk of strangulation as the weakness is not a natural occurrence.

342
Q

Umbilical hernia - Mx

A

90% retract by the age of 2 (consider surgical repair in a child >2)

343
Q

Paraumbilical hernia - Mx

A

Early operative management advised

=> excision of the sac and stitching of the rectus sheath; with mesh repairs for larger defects

344
Q

What is an incisional hernia ?

A

= a hernia that occurs through a previously made incision in the abdominal wall, i.e. the scar left from a previous surgical operation.

An incisional hernia should form part of the consent process along with a scar in abdominal surgery.

345
Q

RFs for incisional hernia

A

• Emergency surgery – 2x risk of hernia
• Type of incision used – e.g. midline.
• Poor surgical technique
• Absorbable stitches

• Anything that may affect the ability of the wound to heal:
- Immunosuppression
- Wound infection
- Smoking
- Diabetes
- Vascular disease
- Pre-op chemo

346
Q

Incisional hernia - presentation

A

Bulge in the scar and local discomfort

Subacute bowel obstruction is common as the hernia enlarges

Usually a wide neck, so strangulation uncommon (but becomes more likely the longer it’s there, as adhesions begins to make it irreducible)

347
Q

Incisional hernia - Mx

A

Usually repaired with mesh, but often reoccur after repair as the risk factors are still there.

=> Weight loss and smoking cessation will increase likelihood of successful repair.

=> Recurrence risk of 2-5% for small incisions, and 10-20% for large ones.

348
Q

Epigastric hernia

A

= Herniation of FAT which overlies the bowel through the linea alba, above the umbilicus.

Usually small – 1cm diameter

349
Q

Epigastric hernia - presentation

A

Over 75% asymptomatic, but can cause pain/discomfort

Varies from mild epigastric pain to a deep burning pain, radiating to the back or lower abdomen.
=> Aggravated be exercise/eating
=> Relieved by reclining

Can also have symptoms of abdominal bloating, N&V.

350
Q

Epigastric hernia - Mx

A

If there are symptoms of pain, then the defect is often surgically repaired

351
Q

Divarification of recti / Diastasis recti

A

= separation of rectus abdominus due to linea alba laxity

Appears as a bulge in the upper abdomen, worse when sitting up and retracts when lying down.

352
Q

RFs for divarification of recti

A
  • Men – weight gain (truncal obesity)
  • Women – pregnancy
  • Repeated midline operations
  • Chronically raised intra-abdominal pressure
353
Q

Divarification of recti - Ix

A

Diagnosis through USS.

354
Q

Divarification of recti - Mx

A

Physiotherapy to strengthen the rectus abdominus (no indication for surgical management)

355
Q

What can cause upper GI haemorrhage?

A

Peptic ulceration ~40%

Gastroduodenal erosions ~15%
Oesophagitis ~15%
Mallory-Weiss syndrome ~15%
Varices ~10%

Upper GI malignancy ~1%

356
Q

What is Mallory-Weiss Syndrome?

A

partial-thickness tear of the oesophagus after repeated vomiting, causing haemorrhage

357
Q

Upper GI haemorrhage - presentation

A

Symptoms:
- Haematemesis
- Melaena (blood altered by bacteria)
- Haematochezia (unaltered PR blood, can occur in massive upper GI bleeds)
- Abdo pain

Signs will be of any underlying cause, and of shock.

Iron-deficiency anaemia (if chronic blood loss)

358
Q

Management of upper GI haemorrhage

A

Managed as per haemorrhagic shock

  1. Assess using Glasgow-Blatchford score
  2. Endoscopy should occur within 4 hours if indicated, generally as soon as stabilised
    => Can identify the site of bleeding and administer treatment (adrenaline injection/ diathermy/ banding of varices)
  3. IV Omeprazole to reduce the risk of rebleed (high mortality)
  4. High level monitoring to assess for signs of a rebleed
  5. Definitive surgery (laparotomy) or angiographic embolisation may be needed
359
Q

Indications for surgery in upper GI bleed

A

If bleeding recurs after endoscopy

If it is persistent despite endoscopic treatment

If bleeding is torrential and obscuring adequate visualisation

360
Q

Glasgow-Blatchford score

A

= a scoring system for UGIB

Includes:
- SBP,
- pulse,
- Hb,
- blood urea level,
- evidence of melaena
- recent syncope
- hepatic disease
- cardiac failure

Scores >6 indicate mortality >50%, thus urgent intervention is required

361
Q

Rockall Score

A

= a score for prediction of mortality in UGIB

includes age, shock, co-morbidity AND endoscopy findings

362
Q

What are oesophageal varices?

A

= extremely dilated sub-mucosal veins in the lower third of the oesophagus.

most often a consequence of portal hypertension, following cirrhosis of the liver.

363
Q

Management of acute variceal bleeding

A

ABCDE Resuscitation

Vitamin K & FFP (if needed) to correct clotting

IV Terlipressin (or somatostatin analogues)

IV antibiotic prophylaxis
=> Significantly reduces mortality

If still bleeding, attempt endoscopic banding and adrenaline injection under GA
=> As a last line, balloon tamponade devices can be used to temporarily compress varices.

Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunting (TIPSS) = the definitive procedure for varices resistant to banding, carried out by interventional radiology.

364
Q

Use of IV Terlipressin in Acute Variceal Bleed

A

Treatment should be stopped after definitive haemostasis has been achieved, or after five days, unless there is another indication for its use.

365
Q

Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunting (TIPSS)

A

= a shunt between portal and hepatic veins

the definitive procedure for varices resistant to banding, carried out by interventional radiology.

366
Q

Variceal Bleed - secondary prophylaxis

A

Following an initial bleed, endoscopy is indicated as soon as haemodynamically stable

=> to identify the site of bleeding, estimate the risk of rebleeding and administer ADRENALINE AND BAND THERAPY. (Sclerotherapy is 2nd line)

Following endoscopy, non-selective beta-blockers (e.g. propranolol) are used.

367
Q

What percentage of varices rebleed within 2 years?

A

80% of varices rebleed within 2 years.

368
Q

Primary prophylaxis for varices

A

Primary prophylaxis should be implemented (beta-blockers and endoscopic banding) if asymptomatic varices are found.

369
Q

Causes of dysphagia

A

Diseases of the mouth/tongue – e.g. tonsilitis

Neuromuscular disorders – MG, MND, bulbar palsy

Oesophageal motility disorders – achalasia, scleroderma, diabetes

Extrinsic pressure – goitre, lymph nodes, enlarged left atrium

Intrinsic lesion – foreign body, benign/malignant stricture, pharyngeal pouch, oesophageal web (Plummer-Vinson Syndrome)

370
Q

What are the two “types” of dysphagia?

A

Oropharyngeal Dysphagia
=> Difficulty initiating swallow +/- choking/aspiration

Oesophageal Dysphagia
=> Food “sticks” after swallowing +/- regurgitation

371
Q

Oropharyngeal Dysphagia - cause and Ix

A

Caused by neurological disease

Investigations:
• Neuro exam
• Videofluoroscopic swallowing assessment

372
Q

Oesophageal Dysphagia - cause and Ix

A

Caused by:
• Dysmotility,
• Stricture (e.g. intrinsic oesophageal malignancy or extrinsic bronchial ca.)
• Oesophagitis (reflux, candidiasis)
• Pharyngeal pouch

Investigations:
• Barium swallow
• Endoscopy (OGD)
• Biopsy

373
Q

Typical presentation of dysphagia caused by malignancy

A

Malignant strictures have a SHORT history of progressive dysphagia, associated with severe weight loss in elderly patients.

If the history strongly suggests malignancy, endoscopy & biopsy is 1st line.

374
Q

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

A

A triad of dysphagia, as well as koilonychia and glossitis (both signs of IDA)

It is a pre-malignant condition due to hyperkeratinisation of the oesophagus causing an oesophageal web.

Tx = iron supplementation and dilation of the web via OGD

375
Q

What is achalasia?

A

Due to a lack of coordinated muscle contraction and relaxation at the lower end of the oesophagus, leading to retention of the food bolus.

Over time, the oesophagus becomes markedly dilated (megaoesophagus), with a classic “rat tail” appearance below the megaoesophagus seen on barium studies.

376
Q

Achalasia - presentation

A

typically in younger/middle-aged patients (30s)

  • Dysphagia
  • Regurgitation
  • Substernal cramps
  • Nocturnal cough
377
Q

Achalasia - diagnosis

A

Barium swallows

OGD – dilated oesophagus with a pond of stagnant food/fluid

Oesophageal manometry – increased lower oesophageal sphincter pressure

378
Q

Achalasia - management

A

Conservative/lifestyle measures – chew food well, always eat upright, drink lots with meals, etc.

Botulinum toxin injection (provides temporary relief; done if unsuitable for invasive procedures)

Endoscopic balloon dilation (risk of oesophageal rupture)

Heller’s cardiomyotomy

379
Q

What happens during a Heller’s cardiomyopathy ?

A

the muscles of the cardia are divided, and the upper wall of the stomach is sutured onto the lower oesophagus

380
Q

What is there a risk of with endoscopic balloon dilation for achalasia?

A

Risk of oesophageal rupture

381
Q

What is a pharyngeal pouch?

A

= an outpouching of posterior pharyngeal wall

Typically seen around C5-6 level.

Seen mostly in 60-80 year olds, and more common in males (5:1)

382
Q

Clinical features of pharyngeal pouch?

A

• Dysphagia => Solids AND liquids
• Regurgitation
• Chronic cough
• Gurgling on drinking
• Halitosis
• Globus

383
Q

Pharyngeal pouch - Ix

A

Initial investigation is with barium swallow.

384
Q

Pharyngeal pouch - Mx

A

It may not require treatment, but if symptomatic then consider endoscopic repair/open surgery.

385
Q

Oesophageal Malignancy - who normally gets it?

A

Generally occurs in those aged >60

Although becoming more common in younger age groups!!!

386
Q

Oesophageal Malignancy - clinical features

A

!!!! Initially asymptomatic

Progressive dysphagia – starting with solids, progressing to liquids and eventually difficulty swallowing saliva

Weight loss and anorexia
Retrosternal chest pain
Coughing/aspiration
Occasional lymphadenopathy

387
Q

Oesophageal cancer - pathology

A

Most are now in the lower 1/3rd of oesophagus, mainly adenocarcinomas

The remainder are mainly SCCs

388
Q

Oesophageal cancer - adenocarcinoma

  • where does it occur?
  • what are the risk factors?
  • how does it spread?
A

More common in UK and western Europe

Typically lower 1/3 of oesophagus

Risk factors:
• GORD – obesity/alcohol/medications
• Barrett’s Oesophagus
• Smoking

Metastasise earlier via lymphatics

389
Q

Oesophageal cancer - SCC

A

More common worldwide

Typically middle and upper 1/3 oesophagus

Risk factors:
• Alcohol and Smoking
• Diet – high nitrates/nitrosamines
• Chronic inflammation (e.g. Achalasia)

Regional lymph node spread.

390
Q

Oesophageal malignancy - prognosis

A

Prognosis is poor – <10% 5-year survival

(SCC has a slightly better prognosis as it is more responsive to radiotherapy)

391
Q

Oesophageal malignancy - spread

A

Metastases (to liver/lungs/bone) are common at diagnosis (25%) as presents late

392
Q

Oesophageal malignancy - diagnosis

A

If suspected oesophageal malignancy – urgent OGD and biopsy.

Staging:
- CT CAP
- PET-CT scan
- Laparoscopy to exclude peritoneal mets

393
Q

Oesophageal malignancy - Management

A

Radical curative oesophagectomy for T1/T2 localised disease
=> Pre-op chemotherapy improves survival, but causes morbidity

Chemoradiotherapy combinations can be used if surgery is not indicated

Palliation can involve oesophageal stenting to restore swallowing
(many cases treated as palliative as advanced disease at presentation)

394
Q

Gastric cancer - who does it affect?

A

Most commonly affects people age 50-70
Especially in Japanese populations.

395
Q

Gastric cancer - pathology

A

Most are adenocarcinomas and most occur in the antrum.

More rarely stromal tumours (more slow growing/benign)

396
Q

Gastric cancer - potential findings on endoscopy

A

Tend to appear as polypoids or ulcerating lesions with rolled edges

“Leather bottle stomach” occurs when there is submucosal infiltration of tumour with marked fibrous reaction, producing a small but thickened & contracted stomach

397
Q

Gastric Cancer - RFs

A
  • H. pylori infection leading to metaplasia
  • High salt/nitrate diet
  • Smoking
  • Genetic factors – blood group A / HNPCC, Japanese
  • Pernicious anaemia
  • Adenomatous polyps
  • Low socio-economic status
398
Q

Gastric Cancer - Spread

A

Direct invasion of abdominal viscera

Lymphatic spread (Virchow’s node)

Portal dissemination to the liver

Transcoelomic spread can cause peritoneal metastases (including bilateral ovarian tumours)

399
Q

Gastric Cancer - Symptoms

A

Often non-specific!

Epigastric pain, as with gastric ulcer

Nausea & vomiting (vomiting more frequent if tumour is near the fundus)

Dysphagia (if tumour is near the fundus)

Anorexia / weight loss

400
Q

Gastric Cancer - Signs

A

Usually completely absent until late disease

Palpable epigastric mass (50%)
Large left supraclavicular node (Virchow’s)
Hepatomegaly, jaundice & ascites
Acanthosis nigricans
Anaemia

401
Q

Gastric Cancer - Investigations

A

History & Examination
Bloods – FBC, U&E, LFT

OGD and multiple ulcer edge biopsy

STAGING:
- Endoscopic USS and CT
- Staging laparoscopy

402
Q

Gastric Cancer - Management

A

Gastrectomy:
=> Partial gastrectomy for tumours in the distal 2/3rds of the stomach, otherwise total gastrectomy.
=> Associated with many complications

Combination chemotherapy can increase survival in advanced disease

Endoscopic mucosal resection for tumours confined to the mucosa.

Wide local excision for stromal tumours

Stenting of the pylorus can be palliative to relieve gastric outlet obstruction in patients with pyloric tumours.

403
Q

Gastric Cancer - Prognosis

A

Only ~1/3 have curable disease at presentation, the remainder are treated palliatively.

<10% 5-year survival
<20% for those undergoing radical surgery

404
Q

Complications associated with gastrectomy

A

MANY COMPLICATIONS

Chronic diarrhoea/vomiting,
Dumping syndrome,
Bacterial overgrowth
Malabsorption,
Anaemia,
Osteomalacia

405
Q

Carcinoma of the gallbladder - who gets it?

A

= an uncommon adenocarcinoma

Occurs in the elderly, associated with long-standing gallstones

406
Q

Carcinoma of the gallbladder - spread

A

Direct invasion of the liver

Lymphatic spread

407
Q

Carcinoma of the gallbladder - symptoms

A

(resembles chronic cholecystitis)

  • RUQ pain
  • N&V
  • Weight loss
  • Obstructive jaundice
  • Palpable mass
408
Q

Carcinoma of the gallbladder - management

A

Staging CT CAP, staging laparoscopy for peritoneal mets

Treatment = surgical:
=> Radical cholecystectomy +/- liver resection if caught incidentally

Most tumours present too late for surgical therapy (survival is short)

409
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma - pathophysiology

A

Adenocarcinoma arising from the epithelium of the bile duct/ampulla

Common sites = at the confluence of the ducts in the biliary tree

Slow growing and metastasise late, but are often advanced at presentation with low long-term survival.

410
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma - who gets it?

A

More likely to occur in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis or IBD

411
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma - Presentation

A

Painless progressive jaundice (as with cancer of the head of the pancreas)

Can present like HCC (if arising from the cells of the intrahepatic ducts)

412
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma - Management

A

Extra-hepatic or periampullary tumours may be treated by curative resection (Whipple’s procedure)

Palliative stenting (ERCP) may be used in advanced disease

413
Q

hepatopancreatic Duct/Ampulla of Vater

A

= formed by the joining of the pancreatic duct and common bile duct.

414
Q

The Sphincter of Oddi

A

Prevents the reflux of duodenal contents into the biliary tree

Located between the ampulla of Vater and the wall of the 2nd part of the duodenum.

415
Q

What does bile contain?

A

water,
cholesterol,
bile salts,
conjugated bilirubin,
phospholipids.

416
Q

Physiology of bile production

A
  1. Produced by the liver
  2. Stored and concentrated in the gallbladder
  3. Lipid-rich food in the duodenum stimulates CCK release
  4. CCK causes the gallbladder to contract and the sphincter of Oddi to relax.
  5. Bile passes from the GB into the duodenum.
417
Q

What is cholelithiasis?

A

= formation of stones in the gallbladder

418
Q

What is choledocholithiasis?

A

= stone impaction in the common bile duct.

419
Q

What is Cholestasis?

A

= reduction/stoppage of bile flow.

420
Q

What factors predispose to gallstone formation?

A
  1. Cholesterol Supersaturation
  2. Stasis of Bile
  3. Increased Hb breakdown
421
Q

Gallstone formation - what can cause cholesterol supersaturation?

A

Caused by:

1) increased plasma oestrogen (obesity, pregnancy, OCP, female)

2) depletion of the bile acid pool (terminal ileal resection/disease)

Blood cholesterol levels have very little influence on bile cholesterol

422
Q

Gallstone formation - what can cause stasis of bile?

A

Lack of stimulus to GB emptying – fasting, TPN

423
Q

Gallstone formation - what can cause increased Hb breakdown?

A

Haemolytic disorders – e.g. spherocytosis, sickle cell disease, malaria

424
Q

Composition of gallstones

A

20% are cholesterol

75% are mixed (predominantly cholesterol)

5% are bile pigments

425
Q

Cholesterol gallstones - cause, appearance and RFs

A

Generally caused by cholesterol supersaturation and bile stasis.

Often solitary, Large (>2.5cm), Smooth

RFs:
• Increasing age
• Obesity, high fat diet, rapid weight loss
• Female sex, multiparity, pregnancy, OCP
• DM
• Ileal disease (e.g. Crohn’s) / resection
• Liver cirrhosis

426
Q

Mixed gallstones

A

Multiple stones

“Generations” – a range of colours and shapes

427
Q

Bile pigment gallstones

A

Multiple, Small

Black (associated with haemolytic conditions) or brown (due to bile stasis/infection)

428
Q

Gallstones - presentation

A

MAJORITY ARE ASYMPTOMATIC

If they are symptomatic, the symptoms depend on the location of the stone:
=> Biliary Colic/Acute cholecystitis
=> Choledocholithiasis
=> Mirizzi’s Syndrome
=> Gallstone Ileus

429
Q

How do gallstones cause choledocholithiasis ?

A

stone impaction in the common bile duct, which can cause biliary colic if temporary, or painful obstructive jaundice if more prolonged.

This can predispose to ascending cholangitis or acute pancreatitis

430
Q

How do gallstones cause Mirizzi’s Syndrome?

A

gallstone impacted in the cystic duct / Hartmann’s pouch (at the neck of the gallbladder); causes extrinsic compression of the common hepatic duct.

This leads to obstructive jaundice, without dilation of the cystic/common bile duct

431
Q

How do gallstones cause gallstone ileus?

A

(UNCOMMON)

a large gallstone erodes through to the gallbladder lumen to create a fistula into the adjacent duodenum.

This can then produce an obstruction if it impacts in a narrow segment of bowel.

432
Q

Biliary Colic - typical presentation

A

Severe, constant epigastric/RUQ pain

Crescendo characteristic (peaks around 2 hours after eating, due to CCK peak at this time).

May radiate to the back or right shoulder/subscapular region

Worse upon food consumption (especially fatty foods)

Worst mid-evening, lasting until the early hours (often wakes the patient)

Can be associated with N&V

Pain often resolves after analgesia, or spontaneously if the stone becomes unblocked and passes down the bile duct.

The patient will be systemically well

433
Q

Acute cholecystitis - pathophysiology

A

An obstruction of gallbladder emptying, leading to gallbladder distension.

There is ongoing water reabsorption from the retained bile, which becomes highly concentrated, leading to a secondary inflammatory response in the wall of the gallbladder.

434
Q

Acute cholecystitis - presentation

A

Initial features are similar to biliary colic, until the inflammatory component develops, leading to:

  • Severe localised RUQ pain (as inflamed GB touches the peritoneum), with guarding and rigidity
  • Vomiting & systemic upset (fever & leucocytosis)
  • Palpable gallbladder (Murphy’s sign positive)
  • Rarely the gallbladder can become gangrenous and perforate, leading to generalised peritonitis.
435
Q

Murphy’s Sign

A

Whilst applying pressure in the RUQ, ask the patient to inspire deeply.

Murphy’s sign is POSITIVE when there is a halt in inspiration due to pain.

A similar manoeuvre in the LUQ should not elicit discomfort

Murphy’s sign is specific (if found, it is likely that the diagnosis is cholecystitis), but it is not sensitive (not everyone with cholecystitis will have a positive Murphy’s sign).

436
Q

Chronic Cholecystitis

A

= Repeated episodes of inflammation due to gallstones lead to fibrosis and thickening of the gallbladder wall.

Features:
- Recurrent bouts of abdominal pain due to mild cholecystitis
- Discomfort and flatulence after fatty meals

437
Q

CBD obstruction - Presentation

A

Obstructive jaundice and biliary colic

Attacks last for hours to days, ceasing when the stone passes through the Sphincter of Oddi or disimpacts and falls back into the dilated common bile duct.

If the obstruction is not relieved, the chronic back pressure can lead to secondary biliary cirrhosis and liver failure.

438
Q

Courvoisier’s Sign/Law

A

In a patient with painless jaundice and an enlarged gallbladder the cause is unlikely to be gallstones and therefore presumes the cause to be an obstructing MALIGNANCY until proved otherwise.

439
Q

What is Ascending Cholangitis?

A

= an infection of the common bile duct, usually caused by bacteria ascending from the duodenum.

Usually occurs following obstruction due to choledocholithiasis

440
Q

Ascending Cholangitis - symptoms

A

Classic symptoms = Charcot’s Triad:
1. Fever (+/- rigors)
2. Jaundice
3. RUQ Pain

441
Q

What is Charcot’s Triad

A

Charcot’s Triad:
1. Fever (+/- rigors)
2. Jaundice
3. RUQ Pain

=> Suggestive of ascending cholangitis

442
Q

Gallstone/gallbladder disease - Investigations

A

Observations
Abdo exam

BLOODS - WBC, LFTs, Amylase/lipase, prothrombin time

Abdo USS
MRCP/ERCP

443
Q

What is the 1st line imaging in ?gallstone disease

A

Abdo USS

Can show sludge/stones
Shows thickened gallbladder wall in acute/chronic inflammation
Shows increased diameter of common bile duct in obstruction

444
Q

when is MRCP indicated in gallstone disease?

A

(Magnetic Resonance Cholangiopancreatography)

Any patients with an inconclusive USS/CT scan and symptoms of gallstones should undergo an MRCP

Gives detailed information about the biliary tract anatomy of the patient and can detect stones.

445
Q

What is ERCP ?

A

= endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

Gold standard for cholangitis – both diagnostic and therapeutic.

Endoscope is passed via oesophagus into duodenum, fine catheter is passed into the common bile duct.

446
Q

What is the gold-standard investigation for cholangitis?

A

ERCP - it is both diagnostic and therapeutic

447
Q

Asymptomatic Gallstones - Mx

A

Cholecystectomy only indicated if the patient is at significant risk of complications due to co-morbidities (e.g. diabetes or chronic renal failure)

448
Q

Gallstones with Biliary Colic - Mx

A

Admit for bed rest, with fluids and analgesia (keep NBM)

Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy
=> Preferably during the first 72 hours (“hot cholecystectomy”)
=> Otherwise scheduled for 6 weeks later (“cold cholecystectomy”)

Medical Tx involve oral bile salts (chenodeoxycholic acid) for small, non-calcified stones in a minority of patients unfit for surgery

449
Q

Cold vs Hot cholecystectomy

A

Hot = within 72 hours
Cold = 6 weeks later

450
Q

Cholecystectomy - Complications

A

Bile leakage;
Jaundice due to ductal injury
Missed stones in the CBD.

Patients may complain of intolerance to fatty meals post-surgery

451
Q

Management of acute cholecystitis

A

As per biliary colic, but also IV co-amoxiclav

452
Q

Management of chronic cholecystitis

A

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy, with cholangiogram to ensure no stones remain in the common bile duct (if so, removed at ERCP)

453
Q

Management of Obstructive Jaundice due to stones

A

ERCP for sphincterotomy and to remove the stones, as an emergency if there is a high fever

Any intervention is preceded with vitamin K, as a lack of bile salts mean this may not have been absorbed well

Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy

454
Q

What are jaundiced patients at higher risk of?

A

A jaundiced patient is at higher risk of infection, venous thrombosis, bleeding and hepatic/renal failure.

455
Q

Management of ascending cholangitis

A

Sepsis six bundle, with IV antibiotics

Emergency ERCP

456
Q

Malabsorption - Sx

A

Diarrhoea/ steatorrhoea
Weight loss / FTT
Lethargy

457
Q

Malabsorption - signs of specific deficiencies

A
  • Anaemia (Fe / B12 / Folate)
  • Bleeding disorders (vitamin K)
  • Oedema (protein)
  • Osteomalacia (vitamin D)
  • Neuropathy
458
Q

Malabsorption - Ix

A

Bloods:
=> FBC, iron studies, B12 & folate, calcium, magnesium, phosphate, lipid profile, LFTs, TFTs, inflammatory markers, clotting & coeliac serology

Stool studies
=> MCS (plus ova, cysts & parasites if recent travel and C. diff toxin if recent ABX)
=> Faecal elastase (if ?chronic pancreatitis)
=> Calprotectin (r/o IBD)

Further studies are guided by clinical suspicion:

Endoscopy:
- OGD + duodenal biopsy – coeliac disease
- Colonoscopy + biopsy – Crohn’s disease
- ERCP – biliary obstruction/chronic pancreatitis

Breath hydrogen analysis
=> ?bacterial overgrowth

459
Q

Coeliac disease - pathophysiology

A

= Inflammation of jejunal mucosa in response to gluten

Alpha-glandin is modified by tissue transglutaminase enzymes (TTG)

It then activates an autoimmune reaction against the mucosa

Biopsy of the duodenal mucosa will show flattened mucosa due to loss of villi
=> Hyperplasia of crypts to compensate
=> Also increased intraepithelial lymphocytes

460
Q

Coeliac disease - presentation

A

1/3rd are asymptomatic

Non-specific features = IDA, weight loss/ fatigue or apthous ulcers

Dermatitis herpetiformis is a recognised skin manifestation

461
Q

Coeliac disease - Investigations

A

FBC (anaemia), clotting (can be prolonged), bone profile (suggestive of osteomalacea)

Endomysial antibodies (EMA) and TTG antibodies present

Duodenal biopsy = gold-standard for diagnosis

Bone densitometry should be performed due to osteoporosis risk

462
Q

What is the gold-standard for diagnosis of coeliac disease?

A

Duodenal biopsy

463
Q

Coeliac disease - Management

A

Lifelong gluten free diet
=> Verify that gluten-free diet is working with EMA tests

Be aware there is a small increased risk of small bowel lymphoma/adenocarcinoma

464
Q

Chronic pancreatitis - pathophysiology

A

Most commonly due to high alcohol intake, leading to inappropriate enzyme activity within the pancreas.

Leads to precipitation of proteins that plug the pancreatic ducts, providing a nidus for infection/calcification, and cause of ductal hypertension

The end result of the process is fibrosis of the parenchyma, and disturbed exocrine function (trypsins, amylases, and lipases).

465
Q

Chronic pancreatitis - presentation

A

Epigastric pain, radiating to the back
=> Relieved by sitting forwards or hot water bottles on epigastrium/back

Weight loss, bloating & steatorrhoea

Brittle diabetes

Obstructive jaundice

Symptoms are relapsing, and progressively worsen

466
Q

What is brittle diabetes?

A

= insulin dependent DM, characterised by sudden swings in glucose level for no apparent reason

467
Q

Chronic pancreatitis - diagnosis

A

Serum amylase/lipase are rarely elevated, butFAECAL ELASTASE is elevated.

Trypsinogen levels >10 in steatorrhoea is diagnostic

There may be signs of alcohol abuse (macrocytic anaemia, GGT)

Transabdominal USS may show pseudocyst

Contrast CT/MRCP can confirm diagnosis with pancreatic calcifications

468
Q

Chronic pancreatitis - Mx

A

Analgesia (pain management is a vital part of Mx)

Creon (lipase) and Multivite (fat soluble vitamins)

Monitoring of blood sugars

Treatment of alcohol abuse (complete abstinence)

Low fat diet

Partial pancreatectomy/pancreatojejunostomy may be required if there is unremitting pain, narcotic abuse or weight loss

469
Q

Pancreatic cancer - aetiology

A

Typically presents in patients >60 years

Associated with smoking, alcohol, diabetes and chronic pancreatitis (also a genetic component)

  • 60% in the head of pancreas
  • 25% in the body
  • 15% in the tail
470
Q

Pancreatic cancer - Presentation

A

Presentation depends on the location of the tumour

HEAD
- Presents earlier
- Painless jaundice (obstructive); but pain may develop as disease progresses
- OE => signs related to obstructive jaundice, Courvoisier’s sign in some cases or palpable abdominal mass

BODY/TAIL
- More likely to present late
- Dull abdominal pain, radiating through to the back
Partially relieved on sitting forwards
- Non-specific B symptoms common
- Often no physical signs on examination

Either can also present as acute pancreatitis or diabetes

471
Q

What cells form the majority of pancreatic cancers?

A

The majority of pancreatic malignancies are ductal adenocarcinomas.

Islet cell tumours make up <2% of pancreatic neoplasms

472
Q

Trousseau’s Syndrome

A

= thrombosis of the superficial/deep leg veins (thrombophlebitis migrans) related to pancreatic carcinoma

473
Q

Islet cell tumour - insulinoma

A

Symptomatic hypoglycaemia events (often in mornings/on exertion) as well as gross weight gain

90% are benign

474
Q

Islet cell tumour - glucagonoma

A

Often asymptomatic;
Secondary diabetes may develop

475
Q

Islet cell tumour - Gastrinoma

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, with oesophagitis, GI ulcers and diarrhoea

476
Q

Islet cell tumour - Somatostatinoma

A

Presents with:

diabetes (insulin release inhibited),
achlorrhydia (gastrin release inhibited)
gallstones (CCK release inhibited)

477
Q

Pancreatic cancer - investigations

A

Bloods:
- FBC, U&Es, LFTs (obstructive jaundice)
- CA 19.9 or CEA (non-specific) are useful as a baseline
- Amylase is rarely elevated

USS:
=> Confirms obstruction & duct dilation

CT:
=> Pancreatic mass +/- dilated biliary tree +/- hepatic metastases

Endoscopic USS +/- biopsy
=> Detailed information about the location of the tumour, its local spread and involvement of local lymph nodes & allows biopsy

Staging laparoscopy may be required

478
Q

Pancreatic cancer - Mx

A

Patients will be discussed at MDT

Only 10-15% of tumours are suitable for radical surgery (= Whipple’s procedure)
=> Tumour must be <3cm with no metastases in a fit patient

Non-curative surgery provides no survival benefit, if the tumour is non-operable, ERCP/PTC stent insertion may help jaundice/anorexia.

479
Q

Whipple’s procedure

A

A portion of the pancreas is removed, along with a portion of the duodenum, the ball bladder and part of the bile duct

The remaining organs are reattached to restore digestive function

  • Post-op mortality = ~5%; morbidity is high
  • Post-op chemotherapy has been shown to improve survival
480
Q

Pancreatic cancer - prognosis

A

Mean survival <6 months

5-year survival <2%; rising to 5-15% following Whipple’s procedure

Ampullary and islet cell tumours carry a better prognosis, as they often present relatively early.

481
Q

At what level does the oesophageal hiatus lie?

What passes through it?

A

T10

Oesophagus, vagal nerve trunks, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels and lymphatics pass through the diaphragm here

482
Q

What is a hiatus hernia?

A

= the protrusion of an organ (typically the stomach) through the oesophageal opening in the diaphragm, into the thoracic cavity.

483
Q

Sliding Hiatus Hernia

A

80% of cases

G-O junction slides upwards through the hiatus to lie above the diaphragm.

Usually of no significance, but symptoms may occur due to associated reflux.

484
Q

Rolling Hiatus Hernia

A

20% of cases

A small part of the fundus rolls up through the hernia alongside the oesophagus, but the sphincter remains competent below the diaphragm.

The proportion of the stomach that herniates is variable and may increase with time, eventually may evolve to have almost the entire stomach sitting in the thorax.

Very occasionally can present with severe pain, requiring surgical intervention for gastric volvulus/ strangulation.

485
Q

What are the types of hiatus hernia?

A

Sliding
Rolling
Mixed

486
Q

Hiatus Hernia - RFs

A

Age = biggest risk factor

Increased intra-abdominal pressure:
- Pregnancy
- Obesity
- Ascites

487
Q

Hiatus hernia - symptoms

A

vast majority = completely asymptomatic

GORD Symptoms
Vomiting
Weight loss (a rare, but serious presentation)
Bleeding and / or anaemia (secondary to oesophageal ulceration),
Hiccups
Palpitations
Swallowing difficulties (either oesophageal stricture formation or rarely incarceration of the hernia).

488
Q

Hiatus hernia - Ix

A

OGD = gold-standard

They can also be diagnosed incidentally, either on a CT or MRI scan.

If there are symptoms of gastric outflow obstruction or weight loss, whereby an upper GI malignancy may be suspected, an urgent CT thorax and abdomen is mandatory.

489
Q

Hiatus hernia - Initial Mx

A

INITIAL Mx = CONSERVATIVE

1st line = PPI
=> Acting to reduce gastric acid secretion and aiding in symptom control.

Lifestyle modification:
=> Including weight loss, alteration of diet (earlier meals, smaller portions), and sleeping with the head of the bed raised.
=> Smoking cessation and reduction in alcohol intake should be advised

490
Q

What is 1st line treatment for a symptomatic hiatus hernia?

A

PPI

491
Q

Hiatus hernia - when is surgical Mx indicated?

A
  1. Remaining symptomatic, despite maximal medical therapy
  2. Increased risk of strangulation/volvulus*
    => rolling type or mixed type hernia, or containing other abdominal viscera)
  3. Nutritional failure (due to gastric outlet obstruction)
492
Q

Mx of suspected strangulated/obstructed/volvulus hiatus hernia

A

immediate stomach decompression via a NG tube prior to surgical intervention.

493
Q

Gastric volvulus

A

the stomach twists on itself by 180 degrees, leading to obstruction of the gastric passage and tissue necrosis

Requires prompt surgical intervention.

Typically presents with Borchardt’s triad:
1. Severe epigastric pain
2. Retching without vomiting
3. Inability to pass an NG tube

494
Q

What is Borchardt’s triad?

A
  1. Severe epigastric pain
  2. Retching without vomiting
  3. Inability to pass an NG tube

Indicates likely stomach volvulus

495
Q

How is hiatus hernia repaired surgically?

A

The hernia is reduced from the thorax into the abdomen and the hiatus reapproximated to the appropriate size. Any large defects usually require mesh to strengthen the repair.

The gastric fundus is wrapped around the lower oesophagus and stitched in place (to strengthen LOS and keep GOJ in place)

496
Q

Complications of hiatus hernia surgery

A

Recurrence
Inability to belch (due to reinforcement of LOS) => bloating
Dysphagia (if fundoplication is too tight)
Fundal necrosis (if blood supply disrupted)

497
Q

What are the two functions of the pancreas?

A
  1. ENDOCRINE
    - Alpha and beta cells
    - Secretes hormones like insulin and glucagon into the bloodstream for glucose homeostasis.
  2. EXOCRINE
    - Acinar cells
    - Secrete amylases, lipases and proteases into the duodenum to aid digestion.
498
Q

How does the pancreas protect itself from its digestive enzymes?

A

Keeping the enzymes away from sensitive tissues in vesicles (zymogen granules).

Storing the enzymes as proenzymes (Zymogens) which first need to be activated by the protease trypsin.

499
Q

Causes of acute pancreatitis

A

I GET SMASHED:

Idiopathic (20%)
Gallstones (40%)
Ethanol (35%)
Trauma (15%)
Steroids
Mumps (+ CMV, EBV)
Autoimmune
Scorpion venom
Hyper/hypo (hyperlipidaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia)
ERCP
Drugs (thiazides, sulphonamides, ACEIs, NSAIDs)

500
Q

What are the most common causes of acute pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones
Ethanol

501
Q

Acute Pancreatitis - Pathophysiology

A

An initial insult to the pancreas leads to leakage of activated pancreatic enzymes into the pancreatic and peripancreatic tissue, causing an acute inflammatory reaction.

The liberation of digestive enzymes results in extensive local tissue necrosis, particular fat necrosis.

Litres of extracellular fluid collect in the gut, peritoneum and retroperitoneum.

502
Q

How does alcohol abuse cause acute pancreatitis?

A

Causes increased zymogen release from acinar cells; and also causes a decrease in fluids and bicarbonates in ducts.

This means pancreatic juices are thick and sludge-like (with many enzymes, but not much fluid) which can form a plug and block ducts.

Increase in pressure can cause distension of the ducts.

Distension can bring zymogen granules in contact with lysosomes which may contain digestive enzymes – can cause a cascade of pancreatic autodigestion.

In response to this, there is a release of cytokines, leading to an immune response.

503
Q

How do gallstones cause acute pancreatitis?

A

gallstones => block Sphincter of Oddi

This then becomes a similar situation to alcohol-induced acute pancreatitis where there is backing up to pancreatic juices.

504
Q

Acute Pancreatitis - Symptoms

A

Gradual/sudden onset severe epigastric pain
Classically radiates to the back
May be relieved by sitting forward
N&V is prominent

505
Q

Acute Pancreatitis - Signs

A

Tachycardia (shock in severe disease)
Fever
Ileus
Jaundice
Rigid abdomen

Cullen’s sign
Grey-Turner’s sign
(In general, bruising signs occur after 48 hours and are an indicator of grave prognosis)

506
Q

Cullen’s sign

A

= peri-umbilical bruising, due to peritoneal haemorrhage

507
Q

Grey-Turner’s sign

A

= bruising of the flanks

508
Q

Acute Pancreatitis - Glasgow Scoring System

A

Used to assess severity and prognosis

	P – PaO2 <8 kPa
	A – Age >55
	N – Neutrophils, WCC > 15x109/L
	C – Calcium <2mmol/L
	R – Renal, urea >16 mmol/L
	E – Enzymes, LDH >600 IU/L or AST >200 IU/L
	A – Albumin <32 g/L
	S – Sugar, glucose >10 mmol/L

A score of 3 or more is severe disease.

509
Q

Acute Pancreatitis - APACHE II Scoring System

A

allocates points for assessment of clinical parameters (A), age (B) and co-morbid disease (C).

Scores >9 indicate severe pancreatitis

Mortality is high if this score increases after admission

510
Q

Acute Pancreatitis - Ranson Criteria

A

includes age and lab scores on admission, then clinical findings at 48 hours to give a mortality risk figure.

511
Q

Acute Pancreatitis - Bloods

A

Baseline FBC, CRP, U&E, LFT, glucose and calcium to assess progression

Raised serum amylase (>1000 U/mL)
=> Very sensitive if measured within 24h of onset and >3x normal

Raised serum lipase = more sensitive and specific

ABG to monitor oxidation and acid-base status

512
Q

What can cause raised serum amylase?

A

Acute pancreatitis
Cholecystitis,
GI perforations
Mesenteric infarctions

513
Q

Acute Pancreatitis - Imaging

A

AXR
Erect CXR - to assess for perforations

CT:
=> Can show enlarged pancreas with stranding, abscess, collections, necrosis, or pseudocyst

MRCP:
=> Better visualisation of collections and also the ductal system

Endoscopic USS:
=> Newest method of visualising the pancreas, but more rarely used.

514
Q

Acute Pancreatitis - Initial Mx

A

ACBDE approach, then supportive treatment

Aggressive IV fluid resuscitation, catheterise and consider CVP monitoring

Regular Obs

Daily bloods (FBC, U&E, Calcium, glucose, ABG)

Analgesia

NBM until pain free – “rests” the pancreas

NG tube suction if ileus/emesis

PPI to prevent stress ulcer

Anticoagulation

Consider HDU/ITU

515
Q

Acute Pancreatitis - Further Mx to consider

A

ABX in severe cases /infection/necrosis

Laparotomy and debridement if abscess/pancreatic necrosis on CT

Urgent ERCP (if due to gallstones)

Find & treat the causative agent

516
Q

Acute Pancreatitis - early complications

A

Hypovolaemic Shock
ARDS
Renal failure
DIC
Hypocalcaemia
Hyperglycaemia

517
Q

Acute Pancreatitis - late complications

A

Pancreatic pseudocyst
Abscesses
Bleeding from elastase eroding a minor vessel
Thrombosis of splenic/gastroduodenal aa. (causing bowel necrosis)
Fistulae

518
Q

Necrosis of pancreas following pancreatitis

A

• The inflammatory process causes blood vessels to become leaky and then rupture, leading to pancreatic tissue swelling.

• This causes premature activation of lipases which then starts to destroy peripancreatic fat.

• The fat and tissues liquefy and can start necrosing (process called Liquefactive Haemorrhagic Necrosis)

519
Q

What is a pancreatic pseudocyst?

A

= a localised fluid collection, rich in pancreatic enzymes, with a non-epithelialised wall containing fibrous/granulation tissue.

Commonly occur in pancreatitis, from day 10 onwards

Form due to disruptions of the pancreatic duct, leading to extravasation of enzymes.

520
Q

How is a pancreatic pseudocyst managed?

A

Most resolve without intervention - only require supportive care and regular monitoring.

Indications for drainage include:
- Complications (bleeding / infection)
- Relief of symptoms
- Concern about malignancy (cytology and cystic fluid analysis)

521
Q

Pancreatic psuedocyst - presentation

A

Deep, persistent abdominal pain
Abdominal mass
Anorexia (due to pressure on adjacent bowel)
Jaundice
Sepsis (if infected)
Pleural effusion

522
Q

Pancreatic pseudocyst - Ix

A

Abdominal CT = gold-standard if pseudocyst is suspected

MRI may be better to differentiate pseudocyst from necrosis

ERCP/endoscopic USS can be useful to plan therapy if endoscopic drainage is being considered.

523
Q

What is BPH?

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

Benign nodular/ diffuse proliferation of glandular layers of the prostate, leading to enlargement of the inner transitional zone.

Affects 70% of those >70.

524
Q

Presentation of BPH

A

FILLING Sx - Due to bladder overactivity
=> Frequency, nocturia, Urgency

VOIDING Sx - Due to bladder outlet obstruction
=> Hesitancy/ dribbling, Poor/ intermittent stream, Strangury, Retention with overflow incontinence/ acute retention

Sx DUE TO COMPLICATIONS
=> Occasionally haematuria (due to rupture of veins into the cyst but this is a red flag), Symptoms of associated UTI, Bladder stones, Chronic renal failure

525
Q

Complications of BPH

A

UTI,
overflow incontinence,
bladder calculi,
bladder diverticulae,
bilateral hydronephrosis and renal failure.

526
Q

BPH - Initial Investigations

A

Hx:
- Clarify symptoms and concerns
- QoL, international prostate symptom score (IPSS)

Abdo exam and DRE:
- ?signs of a distended bladder
- DRE - typically sulcus is still palpable, smooth & round (not craggy)

Urine dipstick, urinalysis and MCS

Bloods – FBC, U&Es, PSA* (<4ng/ml normal, can be adjusted for age and prostatic size)

Frequency/volume chart.

527
Q

Uroflowmetry

A

15ml/sec usually normal.

<12ml/sec usually indicates obstruction or weak bladder contractility

Need to remember that it requires >150mL to be voided (not possible for some patients)!!!

528
Q

Prostate-Specific Antigen

A

= a glycoprotein produced by normal and cancerous prostate cells.

Secreted by prostate epithelial cells into prostatic fluid, where its function is to liquefy semen and thus allow spermatozoa to move more freely.

Although PSA is secreted into prostatic fluid and semen, small amounts of PSA are present in blood.

Interpreting PSA results can be difficult because various things can increase/decrease serum PSA levels.

529
Q

What can increase serum PSA levels?

A

Prostate enlargement.

Older age

Infection (e.g. prostatitis and urinary tract infection).

Physical causes, (including following vigorous exercise, digital rectal examination, catheterization, and prostate biopsy)

Prostate cancer

A normal prostate

530
Q

What can decrease serum PSA levels?

A

Certain drugs (including 5-alpha reductase inhibitors, aspirin, statins, and thiazide diuretics)

Obesity.

531
Q

What can cause normal PSA levels?

A

Prostate enlargement.

Prostate cancer.

Infection.

A normal prostate

532
Q

BPH - Mx

A

Mild:
- Reassure not cancer, watchful waiting and follow-up.
- Lifestyle modification – avoid alcohol/caffeine, relax when voiding, void twice in a row to help emptying, bladder retraining therapy.

Moderate - Severe:
- Alpha blockers (e.g. doxazosin, tamsulosin)
- 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (e.g. finasteride, dutasteride)

Severe = Surgery
- Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) or open prostatectomy
- Laser, prostatic urethral lift, steam treatment
- Vascular: prostatic artery embolization

533
Q

How should acute urinary retention in BPH be managed?

A

If acute retention – attempt urethral catheter drainage (suprapubic if urethral not possible).

534
Q

Alpha blockers in BPH

A

Adrenoceptor antagonists, blocks receptors on prostatic SmM (stromal)

SEs: postural hypotension, drowsiness.

535
Q

5-alpha reductase inhibitors in BPH

A

5-AR enzyme converts testosterone into dihydrotestosterone, reduces prostate volume

SEs – impotence, reduced libido, excreted in semen (condom use needed)

536
Q

Transurethral resection of prostate - complications

A

Complications:
- TURP syndrome (dilutional hyponatraemia),
- UTI/Urethral stricture,
- Retrograde ejaculation,
- Prostate can regrow/perforate bleeding,
- incontinence,
- impotence,
- bladder neck stenosis.

Tend to require catheter for few days post-op.

537
Q

What is the most common histopathology of prostate cancer?

A

Most are adenocarcinomas:

generally, occurs in the posterior, outer, glandular portion of tissue (so biopsy must be transrectal).

538
Q

Prostate cancer - RFs

A

Age
FHx
Raised testosterone levels.

539
Q

Prostate cancer - spread

A

Can spread:
- locally (seminal vesicles, bladder, rectum);
- by lymphatics (iliac/ para-aortic nodes);
- by haematogenous spread (classically to the bone).

540
Q

Prostate cancer - symptoms

A

Often asymptomatic (found on PR/ histology of BPH or suspected by raised PSA)

Symptoms can depend on extent of spread:

=> LOCAL disease = Weak stream, hesitancy, sensation of incomplete emptying, urinary frequency, urgency, urge incontinence.

=> LOCALLY INVASIVE Disease = Haematuria, dysuria, incontinence, haematospermia, Perineal and suprapubic pain, Obstruction of ureters, Impotence, Rectal symptoms (tenesmus)

=> METASTATIC DISEASE

541
Q

Prostate cancer - O/E

A

PR Exam => hard, craggy, irregular prostate, possible nodule, immobile and palpable seminal vesicles

542
Q

What is special about the metastasis of prostate cancer to the bone?

A

Most cancers cause lytic lesions, but prostate cancer causes sclerotic bony mets

543
Q

Prostate cancer - Ix

A

DRE

PSA – >10ng/ml suggestive of tumour (better for monitoring than for diagnosis)

Multiparametric MRI
=> Vital for Gleason score which helps to decide management

Biopsy:
=> most common approach is transrectal ultrasound-guided (TRUS) biopsy

Bone XR/scan and CT for staging

544
Q

Gleason score

A

two areas of prostate tissue are graded out of 5 and added together to give a combined score out of 10.

6 or less, considered low risk
8 or more, considered high risk

545
Q

Prostate Cancer - Mx

A

Localised Prostate Cancer (T1/2):
- Active surveillance (regular PSA, DRE, re-biopsy monitoring)
- Radiotherapy or brachytherapy: lower risks of impotence and incontinence
- Radical prostatectomy (higher risk)

Advanced Prostate Cancer (T3/4):
- Active surveillance not recommended => choice of radiotherapy or surgery offered

Metastatic Disease:
- Hormonal therapy, GnRH agonists, e.g. Goserelin/ buserelin (reduce testosterone production)
- Used palliatively or as an adjunct to a curative therapy in high-risk disease
- An anti-androgen (e.g. cyproterone acetate) is co-prescribed initially to prevent the early rise in testosterone.

546
Q

Causes of bladder outlet obstruction

A

LUMINAL
Bladder Tumour

MURAL
Urethral stricture
Congenital abnormalities
Neuropathic bladder

EXTRAMURAL
BPH / prostate cancer
Phimosis / paraphimosis

547
Q

Bladder Outlet Obstruction - clinical presentation

A

SYMPTOMS
- Suprapubic pain
- Hesitancy and diminished force of the stream
- Terminal dribbling
- Overflow incontinence
- Signs of infection (due to stasis of urine)

SIGNS
- Palpable, full bladder
- Loin tenderness / palpable hypernephrotic kidney
- Enlarged prostate on PR (poor sensitivity for prostatic obstruction)

548
Q

Bladder Outlet Obstruction - Ix

A
  • Bloods – FBC, U&Es
  • Urine – dip, MC&S
  • USS – hydronephrosis
  • CT/MRI
549
Q

Bladder Outlet Obstruction - Mx

A

Catheterisation (suprapubic/urethral) – beware of large diuresis following relief of obstruction

Find and treat underlying cause

550
Q

What is phimosis?

A

= narrowing of the preputial orifice, resulting in the inability to retract the foreskin.

551
Q

Causes of phimosis?
When is phimosis normal?

A

Causes:
- Most often idiopathic
- Congenital
- Chronic balanitis
- Traumatic forcible retraction of the foreskin

Normal in children <2 years old.

552
Q

Phimosis - presentation

A

In children, it may present as ballooning of the foreskin and poor stream during urination.

In adults, it presents as pain during intercourse and inability to retract the foreskin.

553
Q

Phimosis - Mx

A

Good hygiene

Steroid cream (to help soften the foreskin)

Circumcision if troublesome symptoms.

554
Q

Paraphimosis

A

Results from pulling a tight foreskin over the glans, obstructing venous return and leading to a swollen, painful glans.

As the gland swells, it becomes increasingly difficult to replace the foreskin.

555
Q

Paraphimosis - causes

A
  • After an erection/ vigorous sex,
  • Chronic balanitis
  • Following urethral catheterisation (remember to replace the foreskin).
556
Q

Paraphimosis - Tx

A

Emergency Tx involves local anaesthesia and then applying pressure to the glans, or slitting the foreskin dorsally.

Circumcision is offered after paraphimosis to prevent recurrence.

557
Q

Carcinoma of the penis - RFs

A

50% of cases associated with HPV 16/18

More common in smokers, and immunosuppression

558
Q

Carcinoma of the penis - presentation

A

Presents as persistent itchy red patch on the penis, progressing to an infiltrating ulcer.

There is never any urethral involvement/symptoms

559
Q

Carcinoma of the penis - Ix

A

Diagnosis is with punch biopsy => squamous cell carcinoma

560
Q

Carcinoma of the penis - Mx

A

Early cancers – cured with radiotherapy or penis-preserving excision

Inguinal LN involvement – more radical Tx required (success rates lower)

561
Q

What is priapism?

A

Persistent (hours to days) erection of the corpora cavernosa of the penis

Reduction in blood flow can lead to ischaemia.

562
Q

Priapism - causes

A

Usually idiopathic
Trauma
Sickle-cell disease
Intra-cavernosal injections for impotence

563
Q

Priapism - Mx

A
  • Ice packs
  • Alpha-agonists
  • Selective embolisation
  • Aspiration of corpus cavernosum
  • Surgical intervention
564
Q

Peyronie’s Disease

A

Upwards curvature of the penis when erect

Cause = unknown
=> Fibrous scarring following trauma is a possibility.

565
Q

Peyronie’s Disease - Mx

A

Managing psychological effects
Surgical intervention may help penetration.

566
Q

What causes penile erection?

A

Erection requires increased arterial inflow, and occlusion of venous outflow.

This is mediated by parasympathetic fibres from S2-4.

567
Q

Causes of erectile dysfunction

A

Ageing (70% of 70 year olds have difficulty obtaining an erection)

Neurogenic – e.g. spinal cord lesion/stroke/nerve-damage

Vascular – HTN/arterial disease

Hormonal – DM/pituitary failure

Pharmacological – alcohol, anti-hypertensives, oestrogens, tranquilisers

Psychogenic

568
Q

Erectile Dysfunction - Ix

A

Cause is usually determined using history and examination

+ Urine dipstick
+ Hormone screen

569
Q

Erectile Dysfunction - Mx

A

Treat reversible medical cause / correcting hormonal disturbances

Smoking cessation, reduce alcohol

Sildenafil (Viagra) – causes vasodilation of corpus cavernosum
=> (CI in patients with hypotension)

Intracavernosal alprostadil (PGE-1) injection

Vacuum condoms or inflatable intrapenile prostheses if these treatments fail

570
Q

Ectopic Testes

A

An uncommon form of undescended testes

The testicle has strayed from the normal line of descent

Most common site is superior inguinal pouch

571
Q

Undescended testes

A

Common

The testis has followed the normal route of descent but stopped short of the scrotum

Most commonly due to a local defect in development, and the affected testis is small and accompanied by a persistent processus vaginalis.

572
Q

Retractile testes

A

Normal testes, with an excessive cremasteric reflex.

They are often confused with maldescended testes, but on examination they can be found at the external inguinal ring, and can be coaxed down.

573
Q

Maldescended testes - Mx

A

Retractile testes are normal and require no treatment

Ectopic/undescended testes must be surgically placed into the scrotum (orchidopexy) if they are to function as a reproductive organ (recommended age = 6 months).

574
Q

Complications of maldescended tests

A

Defective spermatogenesis

Increased risk of torsion, malignancy and indirect inguinal hernia.

575
Q

Approach to a scrotal lump/swelling

A
  1. Can I get above it?
    Yes => primary scrotal swelling
    No => ?inguinal hernia

If primary:
2. is it cystic or solid?

  1. Is it separate to the testes?

ALWAYS suspect torsion and order doppler USS to exclude if any suspicion.
=> Cremasteric reflex – absent ipsilaterally in torsion

576
Q

What is an Epididymal Cyst ?

A

A common cause of scrotal lump

Occurs due to cystic degeneration of epididymal structures.

Previously known as spermatocoele

577
Q

Epididymal Cyst - Presentation

A
  • Lump should be cystic (transilluminates) and separate from the testes (almost always at the upper pole)
  • Contained fluid can be clear/contain sperm/be milky (previously termed spermatocoele)
  • Can sometimes be painful or the bulkiness can be troublesome
578
Q

Epididymal Cyst - recurrence

A

If they cause significant symptoms they may be excised (rather than just aspirated, as this can lead to recurrence).

579
Q

What is a hydrocoele?

A

Most common cause of scrotal enlargement

Due to an excessive collection of serous fluid in the processus vaginalis

580
Q

Hydrocoele - presentation and causes

A

A fluctuant swelling that transilluminates

PRIMARY (idiopathic): also “vaginal hydrocoele”, separate from the peritoneal cavity

SECONDARY: fluid collects due to underlying inflammation in the epididymis/testes or an underlying cancer.

581
Q

Hydrocoele - Ix

A

O/E - soft, fluctuant lump; will transilluminate

May need USS to r/o more severe underlying pathology

582
Q

Hydrocoele - Mx

A

Most often, reassurance of benign nature is suitable treatment

If swelling is causing problems, then excision of sac is possible (aspiration can lead to recurrence).

583
Q

What is Varicocoele?

A

= varicosities of the pampiniform plexus

584
Q

Varicocoele - features

A

Most commonly on the left (90%)

Patients complain of a dragging sensation and ache

Feels like a “bag of worms” on palpation, and may only be palpable in a standing position

Associated with reduced spermatogenesis and subfertility

585
Q

Why is varcocoele more common on the left?

A

The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein at a right angle, rather than the right testicular vein that drains into the IVC obliquely.

Valvular incompetence at the junction of the left renal vein is the pathological process that leads to varicocoele.

Rarely, it can be caused by a left renal tumour or other pathology compressing the left renal vein.

586
Q

Varicocoele - Mx

A

Usually, reassurance of benign nature is enough.

Treatment options are radical embolisation of the left renal vein, or surgical ligation and division of the testicular veins.

587
Q

Testicular Torsion

A

= a urological/ surgical emergency.

The testicle twists on itself, obstructing venous return => ischaemia

588
Q

Testicular torsion - causes

A

Usually due to a congenital abnormality – e.g. maldescent/ bell-clapper testes.

589
Q

Testicular Torsion - Presentation

A

In adolescents, often with a history of mild trauma or previous attacks of pain due to partial torsion and spontaneous resolution.

Sudden onset severe pain in the groin/ lower abdomen (T10)

Often accompanied by N&V.

Can be intermittent and brought on by physical activity.

590
Q

Testicular Torsion - O/E

A

Unilateral hot, swollen, tender testis, sometimes lying high and transverse within the scrotum

Absent cremasteric reflex.

Raising testis worsens pain.

591
Q

Testicular Torsion - Ix

A

Torsion is a CLINICAL DIAGNOSIS so this wouldn’t be done, but: doppler USS shows a lack of blood supply to the testes.

Urine dip to exclude infective cause.

If in doubt, surgical exploration

592
Q

Testicular Torsion - Mx

A

URGENT SURGERY – manual distortion can be attempted under analgesia for temporary relief of pain

=> Viable testis = surgically untwisted and sutured to the tunica vaginalis with fixation of the contralateral testicle also.

=> Non-viable testis = orchidectomy an fixation of the contralateral testicle also.

593
Q

How successful is testicular torsion surgery?

A

Salvage rate of 80% for patients operated on within 6 hours of initial torsion.

594
Q

Torsion of testicular Appendage

A

Similar to testicular torsion, but it is an embryological remnant that twists

Less painful, causes a small blue nodule to be visible under the scrotum.

Classically occurs at the start of puberty

595
Q

Testicular Tumour - RFs

A

Undescended/ectopic testes (greater risk if not in the anatomical position by 13 years)

Infertility

Hypospadia

FHx / PMHx

596
Q

What are the two main forms of testicular tumours ?

A

Seminomas

Non-seminomatous germ cell tumours (NSGCTs) – include teratomas, yolk sac tumours and choriocarcinomas

597
Q

Testicular Tumour - Seminoma

A

Arises from the cells of the seminiferous tubules, in 30-40 year olds

It has a solid appearance macroscopically

Microscopically, can range from well-differentiated spermatocyte cells to undifferentiated round cells.

598
Q

Testicular Tumour - teratoma

A

Arises from totipotent germ cells, in 20-30 year olds

Cystic appearance macroscopically, and variable cell types microscopically

599
Q

Testicular Tumour - Spread

A

Local spread of testicular tumours through the capsule is rare

Lymph node spread is to the para-aortic nodes

Bloodborne spread is early to the lungs and liver

600
Q

Testicular Tumour - Presentation

A

PAINLESS LUMP in the testes

Hydrocoele

Haematospermia

Symptoms of metastases (e.g. abdominal swelling, breathing difficulties)

Drain to para-aortic nodes, so first palpable node is likely to be supraclavicular

Rarely – as a painful, rapidly enlarging swelling; or gynaecomastia due to paraneoplastic syndrome

601
Q

Testicular Tumour - Ix

A

Scrotal USS

Tumour markers
=> NSGCTs – usually produce AFP, some produce bHCG
=> Seminomas – never produce AFP, 10% produce bHCG

(^^Useful for diagnosis and also follow-up)

CT CAP – for staging

602
Q

Testicular Tumour - Mx

A

If suspected, early surgical exploration through an inguinal incision is indicated.

Orchidectomy for obvious/previously diagnosed tumours

Biopsy and frozen section if diagnosis unclear (then orchidectomy if confirmed)

Retroperitoneal LN dissection may also be undertaken

Post-surgical radiotherapy (for seminomas) or combination chemotherapy (NSCGTs)

Sperm banking is used due to the risk of infertility.

603
Q

Epididymo-Orchitis - causes

A

Acute infections usually arise due to an ascending infection via the vas deferens.
=> After gonococcal/non-gonoccocal urethritis
=> After UTI due to E. coli

Can spread haematogenously – e.g. TB, mumps

604
Q

Epididymo-Orchitis - Presentation

A

Painful swelling of the epididymis

Often with secondary hydrocoele

History of discharge (STI) /dysuria (UTI)

Examination of the prostate may reveal co-existent prostatitis

Positive Phren’s test

605
Q

Epididymo-Orchitis - Investigation

A

First catch urine MCS + STI screen

USS

606
Q

Epididymo-Orchitis - Mx

A

6 weeks ciprofloxacin (add doxycycline if suspecting chlamydia)

Analgesia and scrotal support may provide pain relief

607
Q

Acute Bacterial Prostatitis - Presentation

A

Fever/rigors,
Perineal pain,
Difficulty voiding,
UTI symptoms
Pain on ejaculation / haematospermia

PR – prostate exquisitely tender and enlarged

Often presents alongside epididymo-orchitis

608
Q

Acute Bacterial Prostatitis - Mx

A

Mx = 6 weeks ciprofloxacin

609
Q

What is urethritis?

A

= discharge and discomfort within the penis in men.

Generally split into gonococcal urethritis and non-gonococcal urethritis (of which the most common cause is chlamydia).

610
Q

Gonococcal urethritis - symptoms

A

Gonorrhoea = gram -ve intracellular diplococcus spread by sexual contact.

SYMPTOMS:
• 50% of women and 10% of men are asymptomatic

• Men present with dysuria and urethral discharge, and can ascend to cause epididymitis or prostatitis

• Women present with vaginal discharge, pelvic pain, dysuria, and IMB

611
Q

Gonococcal urethritis - Ix

A

• Gram stain (for gram negative diplococci) and culture of the discharge
• NAAT from urine as an alternative
• Blood culture if suspecting disseminated gonococcus
• Test for co-existing pathogens (chlamydia/syphilis)

612
Q

Gonococcal Urethritis - Mx

A

Stat IM ceftriaxone

Follow-up and repeat cultures 72 hours after treatment.

Trace and treat all sexual contacts

613
Q

Non-gonococcal urethritis (chlamydia) - Sx

A

Asymptomatic in 50% of men, and 80% of women

Men – dysuria, discharge, can ascend (epididymitis)

Women – discharge, bleeding, and lower abdo pain

614
Q

Non-gonococcal urethritis (chlamydia) - Ix

A

First void urine in men, endocervical swab in women

Cell culture is gold standard but takes time, so immunofluorescence/PCR are used.

Assess for co-existing gonnorhoea.

615
Q

Non-gonococcal urethritis (chlamydia) - Mx

A

1g azithromycin as a single dose,

OR 7 day course of doxycycline/ erythromycin

616
Q

What is urethral syndrome?

A

= frequency/dysuria without infection (abacteriuric)

Can be caused by post-coital bladder trauma, atrophic vaginitis, interstitial nephritis.

617
Q

Urethral Trauma

A

Urethral tears require special urological action.

=> Need contrast urethrography to determine if partially or fully torn

If partially intact, it can be treated conservatively by prolonged catheterisation.

Complete tears require suprapubic catheterisation and then formal repair.

618
Q

What is a urethral stricture?

A

= a scar of the urethral epithelium, which commonly extends into the underlying corpus spongiosum.

The fibroblastic activity leads to a shortening of urethral length, and narrowing of luminal size.

619
Q

Causes of urethral strictures

A
  • Blunt perineal trauma (straddle injury, pelvic fracture)
  • Iatrogenic – catheter insertion/long-term catheterisation
  • Gonoccocal/non-gonococcal urethritis
  • Balanitis xerotica obliterans (white atrophic plaques leading to phimosis)
620
Q

Urethral stricture - presentation

A

Obstructive voiding symptoms that worsen gradually

Initial frequency/dysuria

Hesitancy/straining

Urinary retention

Splayed stream (if meatal stricture present)

O/E:
- firm areas consistent with periurethral scarring
- The patient is often <50, and there will be no prostate abnormalities

621
Q

Urethral Stricture - Ix

A

Uroflowmetry

Urethrogram – determine stricture length, location, calibre, significance.

Urethroscopy may also be of use

622
Q

Urethral Stricture - Mx

A

1st line – optical urethrotomy

Urethroplasty for those that recur (50%)

623
Q

Transitional Cell Carcinoma

A

= a tumour of the transitional cell epithelium (lines the calyces, renal pelvis, ureter, bladder and urethra)

=> Bladder tumours are 50x more common than tumours of the ureter/renal pelvis.

624
Q

Transitional Cell Carcinoma - RFs

A

Smoking

Aromatic amines – rubber/plastic/dye industry workers

Chronic cystitis

Pelvic irradiation

625
Q

Transitional Cell Carcinoma - Presentation

A

Painless haematuria +/- clots (= most common presentation)

Recurrent UTI
Voiding symptoms
Pain from invasion of local structures

626
Q

Bladder Transitional Cell Carcinoma - Investigations

A

Urine MCS / cytology (cancers can cause sterile pyuria)

Cystoscopy and biopsy (gold standard)

CT/MRI or lymphangiography to assess spread

627
Q

Transitional Cell Carcinoma - Mx

A

Carcinoma in situ / T1 bladder carcinomas
=> Transurethral resection on bladder tumour (TURBT) at cystoscopy with intravesical chemotherapy

T2-T3 tumours, or high grade tumours:
=> Radical cystectomy is gold-standard, with pre-operative chemo
=> An ileal conduit is used to leave a urostomy

T4 (invasion beyond the bladder)
=> Treated palliatively

Long-term follow-up with cystoscopy is required

628
Q

Squamous Cell Carcinoma of Bladder

A

Rarer than TCC

Presents similarly to TCC

RFs = anything that irritates the lining of the bladder, leading to squamous metaplasia
=> E.g. schistosomiasis or bladder calculi

629
Q

Bladder trauma

A

Intraperitoneal bladder rupture
=> Treated with laparotomy and suturing of the bladder

Extraperitoneal bladder rupture
=> Treated conservatively with prolonged urethral/suprapubic catheterisation.

630
Q

Renal Cell Carcinoma

A

vascular tumours, arising from the proximal tubular epithelium

Account for 90% of renal tumours

Main risk factor is prolonged haemodialysis (15% develop this)

631
Q

Renal Cell Carcinoma - presentation

A

50% are incidental findings

10% present as classic triad – haematuria, loin pain & abdominal mass – plus vague B symptoms

Rarely, invasion of left renal vein leads to varicocoele

There may be signs of polycythaemia / HTN (if renin/EPO secretion)

632
Q

Renal Cell Carcinoma - Ix

A

Urine cytology

USS to differentiate solid from cystic mass

CT/MRI to assess tumour

CXR (“cannonball” mets)

Renal angiography (if considering partial nephrectomy)

633
Q

Renal Cell Carcinoma - Mx

A

Radical nephrectomy

Partial nephrectomy
• If peripheral tumour smaller than 5cm
• If bilateral tumours or poor kidney function

Post-op chemotherapy

634
Q

Wilm’s Tumour

A

An undifferentiated mesodermal tumour (nephroblastoma)

Generally presents at 3.5 years with:
- Flank pain
- Abdominal mass

Should NOT be biopsied (risk of spread due to tumour fragility!)

Treatment:
- Pre-operative chemotherapy
- Nephrectomy

635
Q

Renal Cysts - causes and presentation

A

Solitary/multiple cysts

Commonly occur in the elderly (50% will have a renal cyst by age 50%)

Presentation:
- Often asymptomatic
- Can cause haematuria/pain

Polycystic kidney disease is a common cause, with other causes being medullary cystic disease, or medullary sponge kidney

636
Q

Acute ureteric obstruction

A

= blockage of ureter, leads to enlargement of the urinary tract superior to the obstruction

Causes can be luminal, mural, or extra-mural

636
Q

What is hydronephrosis?

A

Dilation of the renal pelvis

637
Q

Luminal causes of ureteric obstruction

A

Calculus
Sloughed renal papilla
Blood clot
TCC of renal pelvis/ureter
Bladder tumour

638
Q

Mural causes of ureteric obstruction

A

Ureteric stricture (TB, post-calculus, post-surgery)

Congenital pelviureteric neuromuscular dysfunction

Congenital megaureter

639
Q

Extra-luminal causes of ureteric obstruction

A

Pelviureteric compression (due to external tumours, diverticulitis, AAA, retroperitoneal fibrosis)

640
Q

Acute ureteric obstruction - presentation

A

Varying loin pain, greater when urine volume increases

Anuria (if complete bilateral obstruction) or polyuria (if partial blockage causes renal impairment)

Loin tenderness

Palpable hydronephrotic kidney

641
Q

Acute ureteric obstruction - Ix

A

ALWAYS exclude acute scrotum and AAA in men and pregnancy in women.

  • Urine dip (positive blood) + MCS
  • USS to confirm upper tract dilation
  • Abdominal plain film
  • CT to outline detailed cause of obstruction
  • Retrograde pyelogram may be used at cystoscopy to further outline ureteric abnormalities (e.g. TCC)
642
Q

Acute ureteric obstruction - Mx

A

Nephrostomy may be required to decompress the pelvicalyceal system,
=> preserving kidney function
=> preventing infection from developing

Surgical management (e.g. stenting) may be required depending on the cause

643
Q

Location of renal calculi

A

Calculi can form in the collecting ducts and may be deposited anywhere from the renal pelvis to the urethra.

Classic sites are the:
1. Pelviureteric junction,
2. Pelvic brim
3. Vesicoureteric junction

644
Q

Composition of renal calculi

A

Calcium oxalate (75%)
Magnesium ammonium phosphate
Urate-based

645
Q

RFs for renal calculi

A
  • Obesity
  • Dehydration
  • FHx/PMHx of stone disease
  • Anatomical abnormalities
646
Q

Renal/ureteric Calculi - Presentation

A

can present in many ways:

  • Renal colic – excruciating “loin to groin” spasms, with N&V ; occurs if stone is impacted in the ureter.
  • Dull loin pain – if the stone is in the major/minor calyx
  • UTI – secondary to partial/complete obstruction

O/E => There are few clinical signs on examination

647
Q

Renal/ureteric Calculi - Ix

A

Bloods – include calcium, phosphate, glucose, bicarbonate, and urate levels

Urine dip – 95% positive for blood; r/o infection; beta-HCG is vital

Urine MCS

Imaging:
• AXR (80% visible)
• Non-contrast CT KUB (99% visible, can also also exclude abdominal DDx)

648
Q

Renal/ureteric Calculi - Mx

A

A-E Assessment (IV fluids if no oral intake)

75mg diclofenac IM unless contraindicated
=> Beware of post-renal AKI

IM metoclopramide if severe nausea/vomiting

IV ABX according to guidelines if signs of infection

Assess whether admission is required, if there is…
- Still severe pain at 1 hour
- A risk of AKI
- Signs of shock/infection
- Uncertainty over diagnosis

Consider Active (surgical) Treatment

Conservative (medical) Treatment

649
Q

Indications for active (surgical) Tx of ureteric calculus

A
  • Low chance of spontaneous passage (>10mm)
  • Persistent pain
  • Ongoing obstruction
  • Signs of infection
  • Renal insufficiency
650
Q

Active (surgical) Treatment of obstructing ureteric/renal calculus

A

Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL)

If hydronephrosis present, may need a percutaneous nephrostomy to decompress the pelvicalyceal system prior to outpatient ESWL

Uretoscopy
=> Various energy sources (e.g. laser) can be used to break up the stone

Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
=> Used for renal (not ureteric) calculi that do not respond to ESWL

651
Q

Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL) Procedure

A

Outpatient procedure for ureteric calculus

Shockwave is focused on the stone to break it up, so it can be passed spontaneously

If hydronephrosis present, may need a percutaneous nephrostomy to decompress the pelvicalyceal system prior to outpatient ESWL

652
Q

Conservative (medical) Treatment for renal/ureteric calculi

A

Tamsulosin (1st line; alpha-blocker) or nifedipine – increase the rate of spontaneous expulsion

Patient Education, if sending them home

Refer the patient to urology within one week for r/v

653
Q

If conservatively managing a ureteric calculi, what advice should be given to the patient?

A

Many stones (80%) will pass naturally

Advise to maintain a high fluid intake

Advise to return if there is any increase in pain or signs of infection

First-time stone formers should also be advised to pass urine through a sieve to collect the stone for analysis

654
Q

Bladder Calculi - causes

A

Bladder outflow obstruction

Presence of a foreign body (prolonged catheterisation)

Upper urinary tract stone passing down

655
Q

Bladder calculi - presentation

A

Symptoms of UTI (there is often significant bacteriuria)

Can be distinguished from UTI as haematuria and pain generally occur at the end of micturition as the bladder contracts

In males, the pain can be felt at the tip of the penis rather than a general burning

May be perineal pain if there is trigonitis

Anuria/bladder distension if the stone is obstructing

656
Q

Bladder calculi - Ix

A

Same as for upper tract stone

657
Q

Bladder calculi - Mx

A

Medical expulsive therapy
ESWL if the stone is large

658
Q

What are the complications of bladder calculi

A

Can predispose to SCC

659
Q

What is the definition of an aneurysm?

A

= a focal dilation of an artery >150% of its normal diameter

660
Q

How can an aneurysm present?

A

Asymptomatic (found incidentally)

Mass effects – pressure on adjacent structures

Embolic events – due to development of mural thrombi

Haemorrhage – due to rupture

661
Q

What is an AAA?

A

= dilations of the abdominal aorta to >3cm

662
Q

RFs for AAA

A

Male gender (5x more common in males)
Increasing age
Smoking
HTN
FHx
Hyperlipidaemia

663
Q

AAA - complications

A

Main complication = AAA rupture

Retroperitoneal leak
Embolisation
Aortoduodenal fistula

664
Q

AAA - Presentation

A

NORMALLY ASYMPTOMATIC => mostly detected as an incidental finding or during screening.

PRESENTATION OF AAA RUPTURE:
- Severe continuous/intermittent epigastric pain, radiating to the back/groin
- Pulsatile, expansile abdominal mass
- Signs of shock / haemodynamic compromise

“Classic” Triad = flank or back pain, hypotension, and a pulsatile abdominal mass

665
Q

What should be considered in any male <50 presenting with renal colic?

A

consider and r/o AAA

666
Q

What is the classic triad of symptoms for ruptured AAA?

A
  1. flank or back pain,
  2. hypotension
  3. pulsatile abdominal mass
667
Q

Where do AAAs rupture into?

A

~20% of AAA ruptures will rupture anteriorly into the peritoneal cavity (which are associated with a very poor prognosis)

~80% rupture posteriorly into the retroperitoneal space

668
Q

suspected non-ruptured AAA - Ix

A

In the routine outpatient setting, any suspected AAA should be initially investigated by USS.

(AXR is not indicated!!)

a follow-up CT scan with contrast is warranted when at threshold diameter of 5.5cm.
=> This provides more anatomical details in order to determine suitability for endovascular procedures.

669
Q

Ruptured AAA - Mx

A

Emergency A-E resuscitation
=> Including 2 large bore cannulae, urgeny bloods (incl. XM)
=> Any shock should be treated very carefully – “permissive hypotension”

Transfer to local vascular unit

Patient taken to theatre
=> Open repair if unstable
=> If stable, CT angiogram to consider EVAR

670
Q

Prognosis of a ruptured AAA

A

Only 50% of ruptured AAAs make it to hospital, and of these patients only 50% will survive the operation.

671
Q

permissive hypotension in AAA

A

Raising the BP will dislodge any clot and may precipitate further bleeding, therefore aim to keep the BP ≤100mmHg

672
Q

Mx of small, unruptured AAA

A

AAAs that measure <5.5cm:
- Monitored by regular USS/CT
- Modification of risk factors – e.g. control of HTN
- 75% will eventually require surgery

673
Q

Indications for surgery in unruptured AAA

A

In a patient who is otherwise fit:
- AAAs >5.5 cm
- AAAs expanding >1cm/year
- Symptomatic

In a patient who is unfit:
- AAA may be left until 6cm or more prior to repair, due to the significant risk of mortality from an elective repair compared to the risk of mortality if not repaired.

674
Q

What RFs increase the risk of AAA rupture?

A

HTN,
FHx of rupture,
Smokers
Females

=> these patients may have surgery performed at an earlier stage.

675
Q

Options for surgical repair of AAA

A

Endovascular Aneurysm Repair (EVAR):
= Most common surgery, uses femoral arteries to access and stent the aorta under fluoroscopic guidance
=> Lower mortality rate, Lower post-op morbidity and shorter hospital stay, ITU not required.
=> Lifelong monitoring is required and re-intervention is not uncommon

Open Surgery:
- Involves a midline laparotomy or long transverse incision, exposing the aorta, and clamping the aorta proximally and the iliac arteries distally
- The aneurysm segment is then removed and replaced with a prosthetic graft

These have similar long-term outcomes, but EVAR has better short-term outcomes

676
Q

Complications of EVAR

A

ENDOVASCULAR LEAK
=> an incomplete seal forms around the aneurysm resulting in blood leaking around the graft.

often asymptomatic hence regular surveillance (usually USS) is needed.

If left untreated, the aneurysm can expand and subsequently rupture. As such, any aneurysm expansion following EVAR warrants investigation for endoleak.

677
Q

What can popliteal aneurysms be associated with?

A

Frequently associated with other aneurysms elsewhere in the body

678
Q

Popliteal aneurysm - Presentation

A

Usually asymptomatic

may present with complications:
- Acute limb ischaemia – due to rupture/thrombosis of the aneurysm or due to distal emboli
- Chronic limb ischaemia – gradual occlusion of the aneurysm
- DVT – if occluding popliteal veins

679
Q

Popliteal aneurysm - Ix

A
  • USS – to determine the size of the aneurysm
  • Angiography – prior to surgery to assess distal arterial tree
680
Q

Popliteal Aneurysm - Mx

A
  • Femoral to distal popliteal bypass grafts
  • Intra-vascular thrombolysis or embolectomy may occur at time of surgery for distal emboli.
681
Q

What is a TRUE aneurysm?

A

= all layers of the arterial wall are involved.

Can be Symmetrical/fusiform vs. asymmetrical/saccular

682
Q

What is a TRUE aneurysm?

A

= all layers of the arterial wall are involved.

Can be Symmetrical/fusiform vs. asymmetrical/saccular

683
Q

What is a FALSE or PSEUDO aneurysm?

A

= the surrounding soft tissues lined by thrombus form the wall of the aneurysm, mainly following trauma.

=> E.g. femoral artery puncture with inadequate compression.

684
Q

Layers of an artery

A

tunica intima (innermost layer),
tunica media (middle layer)
tunica adventitia (outermost layer).

685
Q

What is an arterial dissection?

A

= A tear in the intima leads to blood tracking into the arterial media.

The arterial media splits, forming a false channel.

Most commonly occurs in the aorta

686
Q

Anterograde aortic dissection

A

propagates towards the iliac arteries

687
Q

Retrograde aortic dissection

A

propagate towards the aortic valve (at the root of the aorta)

=> Can result in prolapse of the aortic valve, bleeding into the pericardium, and cardiac tamponade

688
Q

Causes of aortic dissection

A

HTN
Atherosclerotic disease
Connective tissue disorders (Marfan’s / Ehler’s-Danlos)
Male gender

689
Q

Aortic dissection - possible outcomes

A

External rupture – massive fatal haemorrhage

Internal rupture – (rare) blood tracks back into the lumen to produce a double channelled aorta.

Blockage of distal main artery branches:
- Coronary arteries => MI
- Brachiocephalic trunk => unequal arm pulses + central neurological Sx
- Renal arteries => anuria/AKI
- SMA/IMA => acute mesenteric ischaemia
- Iliac arteries => acute lower limb ischaemia

Cardiac tamponade

690
Q

Aortic Dissection - STANFORD CLASSIFICATION

A

A. TYPE A – involves the ascending aorta and can propagate to the aortic arch and descending aorta; the tear can originate anywhere along this path

  • i.e. DeBakey Types I and II
  • ~70% of cases

B. TYPE B - does not involve the ascending aorta, occurring in any other part of the aortic arch and descending aorta

  • i.e. DeBakey Type III
  • ~30% of cases
691
Q

Aortic Dissection - DEBAKEY CLASSIFICATION

A

I. Type I – originates in the ascending aorta and propagates at least to the aortic arch
=> Carry the highest mortality

II. Type II – confined to the ascending aorta

III. Type III – originates distal to the subclavian artery in the descending aorta
- IIIa = extends distally to the diaphragm
- IIIb = extends beyond the diaphragm into the abdominal aorta

692
Q

Aortic Dissection - Presentation

A

Severe, very sudden onset central chest pain, described as “tearing”
=> It may radiate down the arm/to the back (mimicking MI)

Shock (hypovolaemic / cardiogenic)
=> Tachycardia, Hypotension

Signs of end-organ hypoperfusion
=> such as reduced urine output, paraplegia, lower limb ischaemia, abdominal pain secondary to ischaemia, or deteriorating conscious level

693
Q

Aortic Dissection - Ix

A

Bloods:
- FBC, U&Es, LFTs, troponin, coagulation;
- XM of at least 4 units,
- ABG to aid initial assessment.

ECG – to exclude any cardiac pathology.

CT angiogram confirms diagnosis

(Transoesophageal ECHO)

694
Q

Aortic Dissection - Ix

A

Bloods:
- FBC, U&Es, LFTs, troponin, coagulation;
- XM of at least 4 units,
- ABG to aid initial assessment.

ECG – to exclude any cardiac pathology.

CT angiogram confirms diagnosis (double lumen seen)

(Transoesophageal ECHO)

695
Q

Type A Aortic Dissection - Initial Mx

A

A-E resuscitation with urgent cardiothoracic advice
=> Cautious fluid resuscitation – target pressure should be sufficient for cerebral perfusion only

Patients managed on ITU

Type A:
- Patients are considered for surgery if fit enough, due to the risk of tamponade
- Surgery is removal of ascending aorta (with or without the arch) and replacement with synthetic graft.
- Carries high operative mortality.

696
Q

Type B Aortic Dissection - Initial Mx

A

A-E resuscitation with urgent cardiothoracic advice

=> Cautious fluid resuscitation – target pressure should be sufficient for cerebral perfusion only

Patients managed on ITU

Patients are managed medically unless there are certain complications (rupture, renal, visceral or limb ischaemia, refectory pain, or uncontrollable hypertension)

First line Tx = management of HTN with intravenous beta blockers (labetalol) (or calcium channel blockers as second line therapy).

697
Q

Long-term management of aortic dissection

A

Following initial management, all patients need:

  • lifelong antihypertensive therapy
  • surveillance imaging
698
Q

What is the thoracic outlet?

A

= the space between the first rib and clavicle, through which the subclavian artery, subclavian vein and brachial plexus pass.

699
Q

What is thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

= narrowing of the thoracic outlet causing compression of the neurovascular bundle.

Symptoms can be neurological (most common), venous, or arterial.

700
Q

Causes of thoracic outlet syndrome

A
  • Cervical rib
  • Healed clavicular fracture
  • Excess scalene muscle development
  • Hyperextension/repetitive stress injuries
701
Q

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome - Presentation

A

The specific clinical features present will be dependent on neurological, arterial, or venous involvement.

Symptoms may also worsen with certain movements – e.g. shoulder abduction or extension.

BRACHIAL PLEXUS Sx:
- Paraesthesia and/or motor weakness (most often in the C8-T1 distribution)
- Wasting of the small muscles of the hand

ARTERIAL Sx:
- Upper limb claudication if working their hands above their head
- Acute limb ischaemia – due to occlusion, distal embolisation or aneurysm.

VENOUS Sx:
- Swelling of extremities
- Can lead to DVT
- Can be prominent veins over the shoulder due to collateralisation

702
Q

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome - Ix

A

Blood Pressure:
- Arm BP will be lower in the affected arm, and will vary with posture.

Bloods
- including FBC and clotting screen

Plain CXR for potential bony abnormalities
- can show cervical rib or healed clavicular fracture

For suspected venous/arterial TOS
- Venous/arterial duplex USS
- Arteriography can confirm obstruction
- Any patient presenting with acute limb ischaemia needs CT angiogram

For suspected neurogenic TOS:
- Nerve conduction studies

703
Q

Thoracic Outlet Obstruction - Mx

A

The treatment approach depends upon the cause of TOS and what is being compressed.

For nTOS:
- Physiotherapy for 6 months
=> Aiming to improve mobility in the neck and shoulder, strengthen the surrounding muscles, and relax the scalene muscles.
- Botox injections can be used to relax the scalene muscles

For vTOS:
- May need thrombolysis and anti-coagulation, under guidance form the haematology teams
- Most cases will need surgical management

For aTOS:
- Acute limb ischaemia – urgent vascular input
- Otherwise, most cases are caused by anatomical abnormalities that can be managed in the elective surgical setting.

704
Q

What is mesenteric ischaemia?

A

= vascular compromise of the bowel.

most commonly occurs due to arterial occlusion of the SMA, supplying the small bowel and some of the colon.

705
Q

Common causes of Acute vs Chronic mesenteric ischaemia

A

Acute = most commonly caused by a blood clot in the main mesenteric artery.

Chronic = most commonly caused by thrombosis superimposed on atherosclerosis.

706
Q

Common causes of Acute vs Chronic mesenteric ischaemia

A

Acute = most commonly caused by a blood clot in the main mesenteric artery.

Chronic = most commonly caused by thrombosis superimposed on atherosclerosis.

707
Q

Mesenteric Ischaemia - Sx

A
  • Severe post-prandial colic (“gut claudication”) – about 30 min after eating
  • PR bleeding
  • Weight loss (eating is painful)
  • Malabsorption
708
Q

Mesenteric Ischaemia - Ix and Mx

A

It is difficult to diagnose, but can be visualised on angiography and treated with angioplasty.

709
Q

What is Large Bowel Ischaemia ?

A

Typically a disease of the elderly (age >60 years).

Diminished / absent blood flow leads to bowel wall ischaemia and secondary inflammation.

Bacterial contamination may produce superimposed pseudomembranous inflammation.

If necrosis develops then ulcerations or perforation can occur

710
Q

Large Bowel Ischaemia - Presentation

A

“Ischaemic colitis”
- Left sided abdominal pain
- Bloody diarrhoea

Pyrexia, tachycardia, leucocytosis

Can progress to gangrenous colitis, with peritonitis and shock.

711
Q

Large Bowel Ischaemia - Ix

A

Barium enema / AXR => “thumb printing” due to mucosal oedema/haemorrhage

Contrast enhanced CT

MR angiography = diagnostic

712
Q

Large Bowel Ischaemia - Mx

A

Conservative – most recover with fluids and ABX

Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty and stenting for severe cases.

713
Q

What is renal artery stenosis?

What causes it?

A

= the narrowing of one or more renal arteries.

Causes:
- ~90% due to atherosclerosis
- 10% due to fibromuscular dysplasia

714
Q

Renal Artery Stenosis - Presentation

A

Resistant HTN

Worsening renal function after ACEIs (if bilateral)

Oedema (usually legs/feet/ankles; sometimes hands/face)

Other signs of reduced renal function

Renal bruits on examination

715
Q

Renal Artery Stenosis - Ix

A
  • Renal USS – small affected kidney, doppler showing disturbance in renal flow.
  • CT/MR angiography can then confirm diagnosis
  • Renal angiography = gold-standard
716
Q

Renal Artery Stenosis - Mx

A

Lifestyle changes if due to atherosclerosis:
- Exercise, weight loss if necessary, healthy diet.
- Smoking cessation

Medical regimens:
- ACEis with statins & antiplatelets (contraindicated in bilateral disease)

Surgical management:
- Angioplasty and stenting (thought to be equally as effective as medical Mx)
- Endarterectomy – cleaning out plaque from the vessel
- Bypass surgery – vein or plastic tube used to connect the kidney to the aorta

717
Q

Vascular trauma

A

A blunt injury = when a blood vessel is crushed or stretched.  

A penetrating injury = when a blood vessel is punctured, torn or severed.  

Either type of vascular trauma can cause the blood vessel to clot (=> ischaemia), or cause bleeding which can lead to life-threatening haemorrhage

718
Q

Vascular Trauma - presentation of haemorrhage

A

If there is pulsatile external haemorrhage => diagnosis of arterial injury is obvious

When blood accumulates in deep tissues the only manifestation may be shock

Presence of pulses distal to injury DOES NOT EXCLUDE ARTERIAL INJURY

719
Q

Vascular Trauma - presentation of ischaemia

A

Must be suspected when patient has 1 or more of the “6 Ps”:
=> Pain, pallor, paralysis, perishingly cold, paraesthesia, pulselessness

720
Q

Transected Artery - presentation and Mx

A

A cleanly transected artery will often constrict and retract, limiting blood loss.

A longitudinal / badly lacerated vessel cannot limit blood loss and may produce greater blood loss.

Mx:
- Haemorrhage can normally be arrested by applying pressure to gauze swabs.

  • If there is significant ischaemia, vascular grafting/repair may be needed.
  • If the main artery and vein have been severed, the vein will always be repaired first to allow venous drainage before repairing the artery.
721
Q

Causes of arterio-venous fistula

A
  • Penetrating trauma = most common
  • Erosion of aneurysm into a neighbouring vein
  • Iatrogenic – patients on haemodialysis
722
Q

What is an arterio-venous fistula?

A

= an acquired communication between an artery and vein.

There is shunting from the high-pressure arterial side to the low-pressure venous side.

=> Peripheral venous pressures are increased
=> Peripheral arterial resistance decreases

723
Q

AVF - Symptoms/signs

A

Patient’s with non-iatrogenic AVFs may complain of limb heaviness, aggravated with dependency and relieved by elevation.

Pain

OE – oedema, prominent veins, audible murmur/palpable thrill (can be pulsatile)
=> Rarely, can be signs of CCF if the communication is very large.

724
Q

AVF - Ix

A

VBG will show higher O2 sats distal to the AVF.

Can be consumptive coagulopathies due to changes in blood flow activating the clotting cascade

Duplex USS or contrast CT can confirm diagnosis

725
Q

AVF - Mx

A

Most symptomatic AVFs are amenable to surgical or interventional treatment.

  • Surgical Repair (often surgical bypass)
  • Endovascular Treatment (balloon +/- stenting)
726
Q

Superficial venous system of LL

A

Medial long (great) saphenous vein – drains to the saphenofemoral junction

Lateral short saphenous vein – drains into the popliteal vein

=> Drains the skin and superficial tissues

727
Q

Deep venous system of LL

A
  • Veins accompanying the major arteries of the lower limb
  • Drain the muscular compartment
728
Q

What are varicose veins?

A

= abnormally dilated and lengthened superficial veins.

They can be primary (most common) or secondary.

  1. Primary:
    - Likely to be due to a primary superficial valve defect, with familial elements
    - There is NO deep venous incompetence.
  2. Secondary:
    - Occur secondary to deep venous incompetence
    => Previous DVT (although veins recanalize, their valves remain incompetent)
    => Raised systemic venous pressure (due to compression, A-V fistula, or severe tricuspid valve incompetence
729
Q

RFs for varicose veins

A

prolonged standing,
obesity,
pregnancy,
FHx

730
Q

Varicose Veins - symptoms

A
  • Most patients are most affected by the unsightly appearance
  • Can cause tiredness, aching or throbbing of the legs.
  • Oedema of the ankles (particularly on standing for long periods)
  • Itching and nocturnal cramps
  • Signs of deep venous insufficiency (haemosiderosis, venous eczema, lipodermatosclerosis)
731
Q

What is Saphena varix?

What are the investigations and management?

A

= a dilatation of the saphenous vein at the saphenofemoral junction in the groin.

As it displays a cough impulse, it is commonly mistaken for a femoral hernia;
=> Suspicion should be raised in any suspected femoral hernia if the patient has concurrent varicosities present in the rest of the limb.

[Ix] These can be best identified via duplex ultrasound

[Mx] is via high saphenous ligation.

732
Q

Deep Venous Insufficiency

A

Occurs when the valves of the deep venous system are incompetent.

=>The calf pump can no longer efficiently return blood to the thoracic cavity.

Primary cause = congenital absence of valves

Secondary cause = DVT causing vascular damage or AVF raising venous pressure

733
Q

Deep Venous Insufficiency - Sx

A

Lower limb aching pain / discomfort

Oedema of lower leg

Superficial varicose veins (raised central pressure causes perforator vein incompetence)

Haemosiderin deposition in gaiter area

Venous eczema (particularly over pigmented area), causing pruritis

Atrophie blanche

Lipodermatosclerosis (s.c. tissue replaced by thick fibrous tissue, giving an inverted champagne bottle appearance)

Ulceration

734
Q

Deep Venous Insufficiency - Ix

A

Hand-held Doppler:
- Can identify reflux at saphenofemoral/ saphenopopliteal junctions.

Duplex USS = gold-standard
- Can diagnose valve at the great/short saphenous veins and any perforators, as well as large vein occlusion.

Venography:
- Can detect deep vein occlusion and perforating vein reflux

735
Q

How is a venography done?

A
  • Tourniquet placed around the ankle to occlude superficial veins, and contrast is injected into the foot.
  • Fluoroscopy then used to see the progress through the deep system
736
Q

Indications for referral to vascular service for Surgical Tx of varicose veins

A
  1. Symptomatic primary or recurrent varicose veins
  2. Lower‑limb skin changes, such as pigmentation or eczema, thought to be caused by chronic venous insufficiency
  3. Superficial vein thrombosis (characterised by the appearance of hard, painful veins) with suspected venous incompetence
  4. A venous leg ulcer (a break in the skin below the knee that has not healed within 2 weeks)
737
Q

Varicose Veins - Conservative Tx

A

Lifestyle advice:
- Avoid prolonged standing
- Exercise regularly (promotes calf muscle function)
- Weight loss

Graded compression stockings:
- For minor varicosities, the elderly/unfit and for pregnancy
- Check ABPI before use
- Any venous ulceration from deep venous incompetence generally requires four-layer bandaging

738
Q

Options for Surgical Tx of varicose veins

A

Endothermal Ablation:
- Involves heating the vein from inside (via radiofrequency or laser catheters), causing irreversible damage to the vein which closes it off.

Sclerotherapy:
- For cosmetically undesirable superficial varicosities
- Chemical sclerosing agent (foam) is injected into the varicose vein, causing an inflammatory response that closes off the vein. and the vein is kept compressed with bandaging for two weeks to allow fibrosis to take place.

Surgical Ligation
- Remains the gold-standard treatment
- Making an incision in the groin (or popliteal fossa) and identifying the responsible, refluxing vein, before tying it off and stripping it away.

739
Q

Complications of untreated varicose veins

A

Worsen over time:
- Even many patients who have treated varicose veins often require re-intervention surgery.

Haemorrhage – caused by minor trauma to a dilated vein

Phlebitis – can occur spontaneously, or following foam sclerotherapy
=> Veins become hard (thrombosis) and tender, with overlying erythema

740
Q

What is chronic peripheral arterial disease?

What are the causes?

A

Progressive occlusion of the arteries

Causes:
1. Atherosclerosis (= most common)
2. Fibromuscular dysplasia (non-inflammatory artery wall thickening)
3. Vasculitis (inflammation)
4. Buerger’s Disease (acute inflammation and thrombosis of lower limb veins, common in young heavy smoker)

741
Q

ABPI - Normal

A

0.9 – 1.0

742
Q

ABPI - Intermittent Claudication

A

0.6 – 0.9

743
Q

ABPI - Ischaemic Rest Pain

A

0.3 – 0.6

744
Q

ABPI - ulceration / gangrene

A

< 0.3

745
Q

ABPI >1.2

A

indicates calcified blood vessels or an incorrect calculation

746
Q

Intermittent Claudication

A

= leg pain (aching/ cramping/ tired feeling) upon exertion due to narrowing of the arteries not allowing enough blood flow to support the oxygen demand of the tissues (“angina of the legs”).

At rest, the collateral system is able to meet the oxygen requirement of the muscles.

747
Q

DDx of intermittent claudication

A

Spinal stenosis – symptoms are similar, but pain is relieved by sitting down or flexing spine rather than standing still.

Venous claudication – pain comes on gradually from the moment walking starts, relieved by leg elevation.

Arthritis

Peripheral neuropathy

Popliteal artery entrapment

748
Q

Intermittent Claudication - signs

A

Absent pulses
Cold, pale legs
Atrophic, hairless & shiny skin
Buerger’s angle <20 degrees
Arterial ulcers

749
Q

Intermittent claudication - symptoms

A

Ischaemic “cramping” pain on walking, relieved by rest

Pain reproducible at a similar level – claudication distance

Most commonly in the calf (femoral disease)
Pain in thigh/buttock suggests ileal disease, which is often bilateral.
=> Ask about penile function (Leriche Syndrome)

750
Q

Chronic Ischaemic Rest Pain

A

Indicative of critical lower limb ischaemia.

Classically occurs at night, in the forefoot
=> Due to decreased effects of gravity and decreased BP

Pain wakes patient from sleep

Often gain relief by swinging leg over the side of the bed, or walking on a cold floor.

There will be a history of intermittent claudication and signs of arterial insufficiency in the leg.

At this stage, ulcers are likely to form from minor injuries (as healing is impaired).

751
Q

Chronic Limb Ischaemia - Ix

A

Bloods – FBC (r/o anaemia), HbA1c, lipids

Vascular examination

BP

ABPI = most important initial investigation

CT/MR angiography

752
Q

What does the Mx of chronic limb ischaemia depend on?

A

depends on ABPI results and level of symptoms

753
Q

Mx - chronic limb ischaemia ABPI >0.6

A

Progression from intermittent claudication to critical ischaemia is unlikely

=> conservative measures are used (progression more likely in diabetics and those with claudication distance <50m, so more aggressive treatment may be considered in these patients).

Conservative measures:
1. Lifestyle measures – stop smoking, exercise to the point of claudication to improve collaterals, weight loss
2. Raising the heel of shoes (decrease calf work)
3. Foot care to prevent minor trauma and ulceration
4. Optimisation of BP (but avoid beta-blockers) and diabetes
5. Start on antiplatelet and statin

754
Q

Mx - chronic limb ischaemia ABPI <0.6 / Highly symptomatic / Conservative measures ineffective

A

Referral to vascular surgery

Revascularisation:
1. Percutaneous Transluminal Angioplasty +/- stenting
2. Surgical reconstruction

Amputation
- Relieve pain and prevent death from sepsis
- Level of amputation must be high enough to ensure healing (but above knee amputation has worse outcome than below knee)

755
Q

How might peripheral neuropathy pain differ to arterial disease pain?

A

Unlike arterial disease, the pain is unlikely to be relieved by swinging the foot over the bed

the foot will be red and warm, with strong pulses.

756
Q

What an Peripheral neuropathy combined with arterial disease

A

can lead to the foot being severely ischaemic but PAINLESS.

Diabetics more likely to present with ulceration of critically ischaemic limb, which can rapidly progress to gangrene.

757
Q

Dry vs Wet gangrene

A

DRY – just dead tissue, no infection (no ABX required), can self-amputate

WET – dead tissue infected with bacteria (ABX required), gangrenous part needs to be removed.

It presents in the toes first, progressing proximally to line where there is adequate oxygenation.

Characteristically, it is initially blue-purple in colour, with progressive blacking of tissues and numbness.

758
Q

Acute/critical limb ischaemia - causes

A

Embolus

Thrombus

Trauma (including during angioplasty)

759
Q

Virchow’s Triad for predisposition to thrombosis

A
  1. Endothelial Dysfunction – trauma, inflammation, atheroma
  2. Changes in blood flow – stasis or slow flow
  3. Changes in blood coagulability
760
Q

Acute/Critical Limb Ischaemia - embolus vs thrombus

A

EMBOLUS
Sudden onset
Very severe Sx due to lack of collaterals
Normally identifiable cause (e.g. AF, AAA)
Previously normal pulses
No history of arterial disease

THROMBUS
Insidious onset
Less severe Sx as advanced collaterals
No obvious source
Long-standing decreased pulses bilaterally
Previous history of intermittent claudication, stroke, MI, etc.

761
Q

The 6 P’s of limb ischaemia

A
  1. Pain
  2. Pallor
  3. Pulselessness
  4. Perishingly cold
  5. Paraesthesia
  6. Paralysis

5&6 in late-stage disease only, indicate a threatened limb

762
Q

What are signs of a threatened limb in critical limb ischaemia?

A

6 Ps (particularly paraesthesia and paralysis)

Pain on passive movement or squeezing the calf are also signs of a threatened limb

763
Q

What are signs of a non-viable limb in critical limb ischaemia?

A

Fixed staining (colour changes that are non-blanching) of the leg

Rigid muscles

764
Q

How long is there to re-establish blood flow of a critically ischaemic limb?

A

maximum of 6 hours

765
Q

Critical Limb Ischaemia - Mx

A
  1. A-E Resuscitation
  2. IV heparin as soon as the diagnosis is made.
    - Prevent propagation of the clot
  3. Assessment of the limb
    - ?thrombolysis if blockage appears to be resolving
    - ?urgent surgery if no apparent blood supply
    - Amputation if leg not thought to be viable
  4. Urgent CT angiogram
    - Can help differentiate between thrombotic/embolic causes and direct management
  5. Mx of embolus:
    - Open embolectomy or intra-arterial thrombolysis; investigate underlying cause.
  6. Mx of thrombus:
    - thrombolysis and angioplasty or bypass surgery or intra-arterial thrombolysis to treat underlying cause
766
Q

What is a re-perfusion injury?

A

= inflammation and oxidative damage when blood flow is restored after long period of anoxia, can lead to oedema and compartment syndrome.

767
Q

Indications for amputation in limb ischaemia

A

To relieve ischaemic rest pain, consider for end of life care

Dangerous leg => e.g. full of pus, full of dead muscle

Oncological => e.g. sarcoma

Useless => e.g. severely mangled following trauma, congenital defects

768
Q

Common Intra-abdominal Abscess Locations

A

Alongside the organ of origin – e.g. paracolic, parapancreatic

Pelvic – e.g. post-pelvic sepsis (appendicitis)

Subphrenic – e.g. post-GI perforation

769
Q

Intra-abdominal Abscess - Clinical Features

A

malaise,
anorexia,
SWINGING PYREXIA,
tachycardia,
possibly a mass.

770
Q

Intra-abdominal Abscess - Ix

A

Diagnosis is generally with CT abdo/pelvis

771
Q

Intra-abdominal Abscess - Mx

A

IV empirical ABX

Radiologically-guided (CT/USS) drainage where possible.

Surgical drainage is a last-line measure.

772
Q

Mx of superficial subcutaneous abscess

A

Drainage:
- Often performed under GA, and strong analgesia is required.
- The point of maximum fluctuance is incised, and then blunt probing ensures that all loculi are drained.

Small abscesses need only a dry dressing.

Deeper abscesses required frequent packing with antiseptic gauze/use of a corrugated drain to keep them open until they have filled with granulation tissue.

773
Q

Factors contributing to Surgical Site Infection

A

GENERAL
Age, malnutrition, immunosuppression, malignancy, obesity, hypoxia, anaemia

LOCAL FACTORS
Type of surgery (clean vs. contaminated), length of procedure, residual local malignancy, foreign body insertion, ischaemia

MICROBIOLOGICAL FACTORS
Lack of ABX prophylaxis, virulence of organism

774
Q

Prophylactic ABX in surgery

A

Used for:
- Contaminated/dirty surgeries,
- Placement of foreign materials
- Immunosuppression,
- Previous foreign body implants,
- Heart valve disease,
- peripheral vascular disease

Dose and timing factors are important, with the highest tissue concentration required at the moment of tissue contamination.
=> This normally means IV administration at the moment of incision.

Often 2 further doses are given at appropriate times to complete a 24-hour course.

775
Q

Anaerobic Gangrene

A

Caused by clostridium perfringens found in soil/faeces

Can arise from trivial injury, often in immunosuppressed patients

There is initially gas in the tissues and skeletal muscles (crepitus), with oedema and spreading gangrene plus systemic upset.

Patients may need resuscitation

Tx = aggressive debridement and IV penicillin + metronidazole.

776
Q

Synergistic Gangrene

A

(necrotising fasciitis):

Aerobes and synergistic anaerobes infect an initial wound/surgical site.

Leads to severe wound pain and gas in the tissues.

There may be excessive subdermal gangrene

Tx = debridement, ABX and systemic support.

777
Q

Post-op Pyrexia

when and what should be reviewed?

A

MILD pyrexia is common post-operatively as a response to tissue injury and stress.

When called to review the patient for infection vs. post-op fever:
1. Cut – inspect wound for superficial infection/haematoma
2. Collection
3. Cannula – any thrombophlebitis/infection
4. Chest – exclude infection, infarction, acute heart failure.
5. Central line - ?infection
6. Catheter – urine output, ?infection
7. Calves - ?DVT

778
Q

Triad of signs of shock

A
  1. Signs of reduced perfusion
    • Prolonged capillary refill time
    • Reduced urine output
    • Altered mental state.
  2. Low BP
    • Usually by at least 40mmHg
  3. Raised lactate
    • Anaerobic respiration produces lactate, which accumulates in the blood, causing a hyperlactataemia.
779
Q

What are the types of thyroid malignancy?

A

Papillary Carcinoma
Follicular Carcinoma
Medullary Carcinoma
Anaplastic Carcinoma

780
Q

Thyroid - papillary carcinoma

A

~70% of malignant carcinomas

Presents most commonly age 40-50

RFs – previous neck radiation

Spreads locally and metastasises to local nodes
=> Can go to bone/lung, but this is rare

Tx:
- Cured by surgical resection, including metastases
- +/- Neck LN dissection if nodal involvement
- +/- Radio-iodine therapy as an adjunct

Prognosis is good

781
Q

Thyroid - Follicular Carcinoma

A

20% of cases of malignant carcinoma

Metastasises via the bloodstream, classically to the bone

Tx:
- As per papillary ca.

Prognosis is good

782
Q

Thyroid - Medullary Carcinoma

  • how common is it and who does it affect?
  • what cells does it arise from?
  • What is the treatment and prognosis?
A

5% of cases of malignant carcinoma

Generally affects older adults

Can affect children/young adults as part of MEN syndromes (MEN IIa/IIb)

Arise from parafollicular / “C” cells
=> Secrete calcitonin, so plasma calcitonin levels are raised.
=> Calcitonin levels can be measured following treatment for monitoring

Tx:
- Total thyroidectomy +/- lymph nodes if involved +/- radiotherapy if haven’t been able to get it out.

Prognosis is poor

783
Q

Thyroid - Anaplastic Carcinoma

A

<5% of cases of malignant carcinoma

Occurs in elderly populations

Extremely locally aggressive , with rapid and extensive local invasion

Complications of tracheal/ SVC obstruction

Total thyroidectomy often not possible

External radiotherapy may give palliation

Prognosis is poor

784
Q

Thyroid Malignancy - Presentation

A

Most present as asymptomatic thyroid nodules or lymph nodes

There may be hoarseness/ dysphagia / weight loss

Thyroid dysfunction is rare

785
Q

Thyroid Malignancy - Ix

A

History & examination

USS

Technetium scans:
- “Hot” suggests adenoma
- “Cold” may suggest malignancy

Fine needle aspiration and cytology

786
Q

What are typical cardiac surgery incisions and their uses?

A

Median Sternotomy – most common approach for heart / aortic arch operations

Anterolateral Thoracotomy – access to the right side of the heart.

Posterolateral Thoracotomy – access to distal aortic arch and descending thoracic aorta.

Bilateral transverse thoracotomy (clam shell) – popular for double lung transplants or heart-lung transplants

787
Q

What is the difference between open and closed heart surgery?

A

Open heart surgery – any surgery requiring cardio-pulmonary bypass

Closed heart surgery – does not require a bypass

788
Q

Cardiopulmonary Bypass

A

Takes over the function of the heart and lungs, allowing a motionless blood-free field for operation.

The ascending aorta is clamped and cannulated, and a venous line inserted into the right atrium to drain venous blood.

The system involves a heat exchanger to regulate temperature, an oxygenator, an arterial pump and a filter.

There is no coronary blood supply, so the potential for ischaemic damage is minimised by arresting the heart in a high potassium (cardioplegic) solution, and also cooling the myocardium to between 4 and 12 degrees.

789
Q

What are the main complications of cardiopulmonary bypass?

How is this prevented?

A

Main complications are due to activation of the clotting cascade within the bypass machine, which consumes clotting factors and platelets.

This is prevented with high-dose systemic heparin before cannulation,

This is reversed after the operation with protamine sulfate (blood products may also be needed to reverse this).

790
Q

Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG)

A

Performed through median sternotomy incision and cardio-pulmonary bypass.

The left internal mammary artery is most commonly used as a conduit, harvested from the chest wall.
=> Enlarges in response to demand, resistant to atheroma formation.

Saphenous vein harvest was previously used and continues to be used for secondary targets, however results are less good than IMA grafts.

791
Q

CABG vs PCI in coronary artery disease

A

CABG provides better symptomatic relief and requires fewer late re-interventions than PCI in managing coronary artery disease

792
Q

CABG - complications

A

• MI
• Bleeding
• Stroke
• Arrythmias
• Tamponade
• Aortic dissection
• Respiratory / systemic complications

793
Q

Man-made Heart Valves

A

e.g. ball-in-cage or bileaflet valves

Durable, but thrombogenic (this require anticoagulation with warfarin)

Will be able to hear the valve “click” from the end of the bed

794
Q

Tissue Prosthetic Heart Valves

A

Homographs (human) or Xenographs (generally from pigs

Anticoagulation is not required, but more prone to degenerative failure.

Homographs are more resistant to degeneration, so are preferred in younger patients to avoid long-term anticoagulation.

795
Q

Prosthetic Heart valves - infection risk

A

Infection of a prosthetic valve is rare but devastating

risk is lowest with homograft valves.

796
Q

Indications for splenectomy

A

Splenic trauma

Hypersplenism

Autoimmune haemolysis (ITP, congenital haemolytic anaemias).

797
Q

Splenectomy - complications

A

Main issue = increased risk of infection

mainly by encapsulated organisms (e.g. strep pneumoniae), as the spleen usually contains a large number of macrophages.

798
Q

Splenectomy - Mx

A

Mobilise soon after operation due to transient increase in platelets.
=> LMWH whilst in hospital
=> Aspirin advised in the short-term

Immunise according to local regimens
=> Pneumococcal 2 weeks prior to surgery, or ASAP following emergency surgery
=> Hib, Men C and annual flu vaccinations

Lifelong penicillin V (erythromycin if allergic)
=> Penicillin V does not protect against haemophilus infections, however.

Advice to carry alert card and seek immediate medical advice if signs of infection.

If travelling abroad, warn of severe malaria risks.

((This advice also applies to hyposplenic patients – e.g. sickle cell ))

799
Q

Boerhaave’s syndrome - presentation

A

= Spontaneous rupture of the oesophagus that occurs as a result of repeated episodes of vomiting.

PRESENTATION:
- sudden onset of severe chest pain that may complicate severe vomiting.
- Subcutaneous emphysema may be observed on the chest wall.

800
Q

Boerhaave’s syndrome - diagnosis and management

A

Diagnosis is CT contrast swallow.

Treatment is with thoracotomy and lavage

If less than 12 hours after onset then primary repair is usually feasible