Medicine 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is DM?

A

= a multisystem disease resulting from inadequate secretion/action of insulin, resulting in disturbances of carbohydrate, fat and protein metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T1DM - pathophysiology

A

An autoimmune disease
=> Antibodies targeted against the insulin-secreting beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.
=> Leads to cell death and inadequate insulin secretion.

Can be idiopathic, or sometimes viral infections can trigger the autoimmune process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T1DM - presentation

A

Typically presents in childhood/adolescence, with a 2-6 week history of:
- Polyuria – high sugar content in urine leading to osmotic diuresis
- Polydipsia – due to resulting fluid loss.
- Weight loss – fluid depletion and fat/muscle breakdown.

DKA is also a common first presentation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T2DM - pathophysiology

A

“Insulin resistance” – associated with aging, genetic factors, obesity, high fat diets and sedentary lifestyle.

Peripheral resistance – tissues become insensitive to insulin.

Blood insulin levels are initially normal, or even increased to compensate for insensitivity to insulin.

Eventually pancreatic beta cells decompensate and can no longer produce excess insulin, leading to hyperglycaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T2DM - presentation

A

Onset may be over many months/years.

Classic triad of symptoms (polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss) may be present, but less noticeable than T1DM.

More common presenting features:
- Lack of energy
- Visual blurring – glucose-induced refractive changes.
- Pruritis vulvae/balantis – due to candida infection.

In older patients, it may be the COMPLICATIONS of diabetes that are the presenting feature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Metabolic syndrome

A

T2DM,
Central obesity,
HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is MODY?

A

= maturity-onset diabetes of the young

Genetic defect – autosomal dominant inheritance

Defects in beta-cell function.

Usually affects those <25 years of age.

Mimics T1DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is secondary diabetes?

A

Diabetes due to other conditions/causes precipitating the diabetes (~1% of cases)

Pancreatic disease:
=> CF, chronic pancreatitis, pancreatic carcinoma, pancreatic trauma/surgery.

Endocrine disease:
=> Cushing’s disease, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, phaeochromocytoma.

Drug-induced:
=> thiazide diuretics, corticosteroids, antipsychotics, antiretrovirals.

Congenital:
=> insulin-receptor abnormalities, myotonic dystrophy, Friedrich’s ataxia.

Gestational diabetes

Infections – congenital rubella, cytomegalovirus, mumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Insulin release post-meal

A

Insulin is released by beta cells when glucose levels rise after a meal.

Insulin acts upon glucose transporters (GLUTs).
=> GLUT2 – senses glucose in beta cells.
=> GLUT4 – insulin-mediated glucose uptake in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue.

Insulin’s anabolic effects result in glucose being converted to:
- glycogen in muscle,
- glycogen and triglycerides in the liver
- triglycerides in adipose tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Glucagon in starved state

A

insulin production is down-regulated;

alpha-cells of the pancreas will release glucagon, which works to:
- Increase glycogenolysis
- Increase gluconeogenesis
- Inhibit glycogen synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

DM - diagnosis

A

BEDSIDE TESTS
- Urine dipstick – can identify glycosuria and ketonuria (maybe proteinuria if nephropathy)

  • Random glucose test

BIOCHEMICAL TESTING:
- Fasting blood glucose (minimum fast of 8 hours).

  • Oral glucose Tolerance Test (OGGT) – 75mg glucose bolus, test 2 hours later.
  • HbA1c – used for monitoring and screening; does not require the patient to be fasted.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In what populations is HbA1c testing innapropriate?

A
  • Those <18 years old.
  • Those acutely unwell (glucose temporarily raised in infection/steroid use)
  • Pregnancy
  • Haemoglobinopathies
  • Increased RBD breakdown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In the presence of signs and symptoms, what blood test results are needed for a diagnosis of DM?

A

Fasting plasma glucose values of ≥ 7.0 mmol/L (normal <6.0 mmol/L)

or

Oral Glucose tolerance test (OGTT) – 2-hour plasma glucose ≥ 11.1 mmol/L (normal <7.8mmol/L).

or

HbA1c ≥ 48 mmol/mol (normal <42 mmol/mol)

or

Random blood glucose ≥ 11.1 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In the absence of signs and symptoms, what blood test results are needed for a diagnosis of DM?

A

Any of the blood glucose tests with a value above the cut-off, but a repeat test (ideally same one) as soon as possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Impaired Fasting Glucose (IFG)

A

Fasting plasma glucose = 6.1 mmol/L to 6.9 mmol/L.

Normal 2-hour plasma glucose (<7.8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Impaired Glucose Tolerance (IGT)

A

2-hour plasma glucose = 7.8 mmol/L to 11.0 mmol/L.

Normal fasting plasma glucose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Pre-diabetes?

A

HbA1c is not at the diabetic level, but not normal either (i.e. 42-47 mmol/mol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T2DM – overview of Mx

A

Typically conservative/lifestyle measures for 3 MONTHS

then re-check HbA1c

Start anti-diabetic drugs if HbA1c still high (58 mmol/L (7.5%) or higher)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T2DM – Conservative Mx

A

Structured group education programme.

Screen for complications at diagnosis, (then repeat annually):
- Fundoscopy
- Nephropathy screen – urine dip for protein (or microalbuminuria = more sensitive).
- Foot Check – for neuropathy, ABPI, ulcers, deformity.

Monitor CV Risk

Lifestyle advice:
- Maintain a healthy diet (can see a nutritionist to help with meal plans).
- Weight loss if overweight
- Increase physical activity – 20-30 mins brisk walking per day.
- Stop smoking (to reduce CV risk).
- Reduce Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is CV risk monitored in DM?

A

Control BP to <140/80 (<130/80 if kidney, eye or cerebrovascular damage).

Assess QRISK2 score – offer atorvastatin 20mg for those with 10-year risk >10%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why is it important to counsel diabetics on alcohol use?

A

Alcohol may prolong the effect of hypoglycaemic drugs

May make the signs of hypoglycaemia less clear.

Always have a carbohydrate snack before and after consuming alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T2DM – Medical Mx

A

1st LINE = metformin
=> if metformin contra-indicated, one of the other antidiabetic drugs

2nd LINE
- Metformin + 2nd drug
- If metformin is contraindicated, any 2 of the other anti-diabetic drugs.

3rd LINE
triple therapy

4th LINE
- If metformin contraindicated/triple therapy not effective, consider insulin regimens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the starting dose of metformin for a patient?

A

500mg with breakfast for one week

500mg with breakfast and dinner for one week

500mg with breakfast, lunch and dinner thereafter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Do T2DM patients need to self-monitor blood glucose?

A

Self-monitoring blood glucose kits are not routinely required in adults with T2DM, but may be advised if the patient is at risk of hypoglycaemic events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T2DM - insulin therapy

A

Continue metformin Tx to prevent excess weight gain.

Immediate acting insulin injected once/twice daily according to need.

Biphasic preparations can be used if the Pt’s HbA1c is particularly high.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T1DM Mx

A

Structured education programme
=> DAFNE – dose-adjustment for normal eating.

Screen for complications (less common in early-onset disease)

Monitor CV risk

Lifestyle advice:
- Diet – carbohydrate counting is the most important advice, as per DAFNE education.
- Advice for how to adjust diet/insulin for exercise and consuming alcohol.

Insulin regimen

Annual review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When is insulin therapy indicated?

A
  1. all patients with T1DM that present below the age of 40
  2. all patients with T2DM that fail to respond to full medical Tx / are unsuitable for medical Tx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the typical insulin regimen for a T1DM patient?

A

basal bolus regimens are recommended:

  • Twice daily long-acting insulin – e.g. Detemir
  • Rapid acting insulin with each meal – e.g. Novorapid.

If this is not possible, twice-daily mixed insulin regimens can be tried.

If the patient cannot achieve HbA1c <8.5%, insulin pumps can be considered by a specialist team.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Sick Day Rules for insulin

A

The body’s natural response to illness results in higher blood glucose levels due to the release of stress hormones and release of glucose from your body’s stores.

  1. DO NOT STOP INSULIN – seek advice from diabetes team on how to adjust insulin dose.
  2. Monitor Blood glucose more frequently.
    => Every 3-4 hours, including overnight.
  3. Consider blood/urine ketone monitoring:
    => If raised, contact GP/diabetic service immediately.
  4. Maintain normal meal pattern where possible.
    => Replace meals with sugary drinks if appetite reduced.
  5. Drink at least 3L of fluid per day:
    => Seek advice if unable to do so
    => IV fluids may be needed
  6. Once better, continue to control blood glucose carefully until it returns to normal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When are diabetic patients required to inform the DVLA?

A

Patients are only required to inform the DVLA if:

  1. They have had 2 episodes of severe hypoglycaemia within the last 12 months.
  2. They have reduced awareness of hypoglycaemic episodes
  3. They are on insulin therapy:
    => If on insulin, they must test their blood glucose every 2 hours on long journeys and also carry appropriate glucose stores in case of hypoglycaemic events.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Components of an Annual Diabetes Review

A
  1. Assess Cardiovascular Risk
    => BMI, BP, Smoking Status, Blood lipid levels, Consider ECG
  2. Assess for microvascular complications:
    - Hx – erectile dysfunction, neuropathic pain
    - Foot examination (incl. neurovascular status)
    - Fundoscopy – retinal involvement
    - Urine dip, first pass urine and plasma creatinine – renal involvement
  3. Assess Diabetic Control:
    - Self-monitoring results?
    - HbA1c (should be checked 6-monthly)
  4. Assess for concordance to diet/lifestyle advice
  5. Assess for adverse events:
    - Hospitalisations
    - Sx of hypoglycaemic episodes
    - Medication side effects
    - Injection site reactions
  6. Is the patient driving?
    => If so, do they know the DVLA advice.
  7. Assess for depression and anxiety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Metformin - MOA

A
  1. Decrease hepatic glucose production
  2. Increase peripheral insulin sensitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Metformin - contraindications

A
  • eGFR <30 for standard release, <45 for modified release.
  • Alcohol addiction
  • People at risk of lactic acidosis (e.g. DKA)
  • People at risk of tissue hypoxia (e.g. cardiac/respiratory failure).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Metformin - SEs

A

GI effects – N&V, abdo pain, loss of appetite

Lactic acidosis – rare but serious; occurs due to drug accumulation; insidious onset with non-specific symptoms; more common when combined with alcohol.

Vitamin B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Sulphonyureas - MOA

A

Increase insulin secretion (thus only work if some residual function of pancreatic beta-cells).

Can get different lengths of drug action:
- SA – tolbutamide
- Medium acting – gliclazide
- LA – Glibenclamide (rarely used if there is a risk of hypoglycaemia).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When are sulphonyureas prescribed with caution?

A

The elderly – risk of hypoglycaemic events

The obese – will encourage weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitors - MOA

A

Inhibit sodium-glucose transport protein 2; thereby preventing renal glucose resorption.

NOT effective in kidney disease

Help weight loss & reduce risk of major adverse CV events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Thiazolidinediones - MOA

A

PPAR-gamma activators; increase peripheral insulin sensitivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Thiazolidinediones - SEs

A

Weight gain (redistribution of ectopically stored lipid)

Fluid retention – contraindicated in CCF

Liver dysfunction – monitor LFTs

Association with bladder cancers – assess risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

DPP-4 inhibitors - MOA

A

work by increasing post-prandial insulin release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When are GLP-1 Mimetics used?

A

E.g. enaxatide; liraglutide

Cause significant weight loss

NICE recommend that if triple therapy is ineffective, then the gliptin/pioglitazone can be replaced by GLP-1 mimetics if:
- The patient has BMI >35
- The patient has BMI <35 and weight loss would benefit other comorbidities/insulin therapy would have negative occupational impacts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Short-acting insulins

A

e.g. Humalog, Novarapid

Aim to mimic the body’s insulin secretion in response to food.

Injected with food
Onset of action = 15 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Soluble insulins

A

e.g. Actrapid, Humalin S
(also short-acting)

Generally injected 30 mins before food.
Onset of action = 30-60 mins
Duration of action = up to 8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Intermediate-acting insulins

A

e.g. Humalin I, Insulatard

Mimic basal insulin secretion

Onset of action = 1-2 hours
Maximal effects between 4-12h
Duration of action up to 16-35 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Long-acting insulins

A

e.g. Lantus, Levemir, Tresiba, Detemir

Mimic basal insulin secretion

Used once/twice per day
Achieve a steady-state level after 2-4 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Complications of insulin therapy

A
  • Weight gain (avoided by DAFNE)
  • Insulin resistance can develop
  • At the injection site – pain, redness/swelling, abscess, lipohypertrophy (can result in erratic insulin absorption).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How do macrovascular complications of DM occur?

A

Hyperglycaemia leads to formation of advanced glycation end products (AGE) on arterial endothelial cells and activation of inflammatory pathways

This exacerbates the process of atheroma formation, leading to artery occlusion and subsequent macrovascular complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How do microvascular complications of DM occur?

A

occur via AGE-activated biochemical pathways resulting in cellular damage caused by abnormal extracellular protein matrix accumulation and reactive oxygen species production.

=> Microvascular complications are specific to diabetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Macrovascular complications of DM

A

Coronary Artery Disease (=> 4x increased risk of MI)

Cerebrovascular Disease (=> 2x increased risk of Stroke)

Peripheral Vascular Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Microvascular complications of DM

A

Diabetic Eye Disease
Nephropathy
Neuropathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Preventing complications of DM

A

MACROVASCULAR
Good glycaemic control only has modest effects on CV risk – need to work on other factors such as smoking/alcohol, BP, cholesterol, diet, exercise, etc.

MICROVASCULAR
Regular screening
Good glycaemic control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR)

A

= development of new vessels on the optic disc/retina as a response to significant retinal ischaemia (VEGF => new vessels).

The vessels are fragile and likely to bleed; giving rise to pre-retinal or vitreous haemorrhage.

If untreated, the blood vessels will cause fibrosis and a tractional retinal detachment

Tx:
- Pan-retinal photocoagulation (aim = to reduce the ischaemic drive and VEGF production).
- Vitrectomy can be used to remove persistent vitreous haemorrhage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR)

A

Usually asymptomatic

ALWAYS occurs at some severity after 8-10 years of DM

Features on fundoscopy:
- Microaneurysms
- Exudates
- Haemorrhages – dot, blot, flame
- Cotton wool spots (>5 of these indicated pre-proliferative retinopathy).

Can progress to PDR

Mx = good glycaemic control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Diabetic Maculopathy

A

A specific type of retinopathy that affects the macula.

Typically presents with blurring of vision

Three subtypes – focal, diffuse, ischaemic

Mx = focal laser to stop focal leaks, but may require more complex Tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What forms of diabetic eye disease are there?

A

PDR / NPDR
Maculopathy
Cataracts
Glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the possible diabetic neuropathies?

A

Symmetrical Polyneuropathy
Acute Painful Neuropathy
Mononeuropathy
Diabetic Amyotrophy
Autonomic Neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

DM - Symmetrical Polyneuropathy

A

“Glove and stocking” sensory loss
=> Vibration, deep pain and temperature lost first

Loss of proprioception

Interosseus wasting of small muscles of the feet results in a characteristic foot shape, and abnormal pressure areas lead to ulcers.

Unrecognised trauma with poor wound healing may lead to ulcers
=> Can lead to Charcot’s foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

DM - acute painful neuropathy

A

Painful burning pains in the feet, shins and anterior thighs; Typically worse at night

Associated with poor glycaemic control

Usually remits after 3-12 months of good glycaemic control.

More chronic forms can be resistant to all forms of therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

DM - mononeuropathy

A

Cranial Nerve lesions can occur in patients with diabetes – mainly CN III, IV and VI (ocular palsies).

Isolated peripheral nerve lesions can also occur

Any nerve compression syndrome is more common in DM (e.g. carpal tunnel)

Foot drop may occur due to lesions of the sciatic nerve.

When more than one nerve is affected, this is known as mononeuritis multiplex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

DM - amyotrophy

A

Amyotrophy = progressive wasting of muscle fibres.

In DM, it presents as painful wasting of the quadriceps

Course is variable, often with gradual but incomplete improvement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

DM - autonomic neuropathy

A

Sympathetic dysfunction leads to:
- Postural hypotension
- Ejaculatory failure
- Reduced sweating
- Horner’s syndrome

Parasympathetic dysfunction leads to:
- Erectile dysfunction
- Constipation
- Urinary retention
- Holmes-Adie Pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

DM - identifying and managing renal complications

A

Usually manifests 15-25 years after diagnosis

The single most important intervention is BP control

Test every patient every 6 months for microalbuminuria (i.e. negative urine dip but early morning albumin:creatinine ratio >3)

Every patient with microalbuminuria should be started on an ACEI, regardless of BP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is DKA?

A

= a medical emergency, in which hyperglycaemia is associated with metabolic acidosis due to greatly raised ketone levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

DKA - Presentation

A

SYMPTOMS
- N&V
- Generalised abdominal pain
- Confusion / drowsiness
- Blurred vision
- Polyuria
- Coma (severe cases)

SIGNS:
- Smell of ketones on the breath
- Signs of dehydration

  • ABG/VBG will show an acidosis (or compensated acidosis) due to bicarbonate consumption by acidic ketone bodies. Lactate levels will also be raised.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

DKA - diagnosis

A

all 3 required:

  1. Blood glucose >11 mmol/L (or previously known diabetes).
  2. Capillary ketones >3 mmol/L (or Ketones >2+ in urine).
  3. Venous pH <7.35 (or venous bicarbonate <15 mmol/L)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

DKA - Ix

A

U&Es
Blood glucose

Venous blood gas
=> Metabolic acidosis with raised anion gap

ECG/ CXR / cultures / pregnancy test based on clinical suspicion to identify cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

DKA - severity

A

Severity is determined by pH rather than blood glucose:
- Mild = pH >7.3
- Moderate = pH 7.1-7.3
- Severe = pH <7.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

DKA - immediate Mx

A

ABCDE

1L 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour if SBP >90
=> 500 ml bolus over 10 mins if <90, reassess & repeat if poor response

Start IV insulin infusion:
=> 50 units human soluble Actrapid Insulin added to 50ml 0.9& sodium chloride (giving a 1 unit / mL solution)
=> Start syringe driver at a fixed rate of 0.1 units/kg/hour (can use estimated weight).

Treat any precipitating factors of the DKA (e.g. infection).

Urgent critical care review if:
=> severe DKA / drowsy / pregnant / sats <94% / on 40% oxygen / persistent hypotension after 2L sodium chloride.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

DKA - ongoing management

A

Continue fixed-rate insulin at 0.1 units/kg/hour, and continue normal long-acting insulin.

Continue IV 0.9% sodium chloride
- First bag = 1L over 1 hour
- Second bag = 1L over 2 hours
- Consider KCl from second bag onwards
- Third bag = 1L over 2 hours
- Fourth bag = 1L over 4 hours.

When glucose is <14 mmol/L, add 10% glucose at 125 mL/hour
=> Adjust to keep blood glucose between 8-14 mmol/L

Potassium:
- If plasma K+ <5.4, add 40 mmol KCl per litre NaCl
- Consider after the first litre of fluid has run through

Clinically reassess the patient hourly for the first 4-6 hours

Regular lab monitoring of glucose, ketones, potassium and bicarb required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

DKA - Mx after recovery

A

Transfer to s.c. insulin once the patient is able to eat and drink normally and venous pH >7.3

Stop the IV insulin infusion 1 hour after the next s.c. injection of insulin

Refer all patients to the diabetes team prior to discharge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is HHS?

A

= a severe hyperglycaemia leading to diuresis (leading to a hyperosmolar state) in the absence of severe ketosis and acidosis.

Even a small amount of insulin is sufficient to prevent ketosis.

The patients will be more severely dehydrated than DKA patients, but there will be no raised ketones.

Mortality is 10x more likely in HHS than DKA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

HHS - presentation

A
  • Dehydration
  • Stupor/coma/seizures
  • Evidence of an underlying illness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

HHS - diagnostic criteria

A

Marked hyperglycaemia (often >30 mmol/L)

Hypovolaemia

No significant ketonaemia/ketonuria

No significant Acidosis (pH >7.3, bicarb >15mmol/L)

Confirm by calculating osmolality
=> Normal Osmolality = 280-295 mmol/kg; HHS = >320 mmol/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Why is fluid replacement more important than insulin in HHS?

A

Fluid replacement alone will cause the glucose levels to fall.

Insulin treatment prior to adequate fluid replacement may result in cardiovascular collapse as water moves out of the intravascular space, with a resulting decline in intravascular volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

HHS - Mx

A

A-E assessment

Aggressive IV fluids:
=> 1L 0.9% NaCl over 1 hour
=> Aim for positive balance of 3-6L over 12 hours.

Low-dose fixed IV insulin infusion:
=> If there are some ketones – treat as per DKA
=> If no ketones – fluid replacement alone should cause a fall in glucose.
=> Start insulin once fall in glucose is <5 mmol/L/hour = 0.05 units/kg/hour

Consider potassium replacement

Give prophylactic LMWH (due to very high risk of thrombosis)

Regular monitoring of vitals, fluid balance, glucose, osmolality, U&Es hourly for 1st 6 hours.

Transfer to s.c. insulin once eating and drinking normally and biochemistry has normalised
=> Stop IV infusion 1 hour after starting s.c. insulin

Refer to diabetes team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Hypoglycaemia

A

Defined as plasma glucose <3mmol/L, but individual thresholds for symptoms are variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Hypoglycaemia - Sx

A

AUTONOMIC
Sweating
Anxiety
Hunger
Tremor
Palpitation

NEUROGLYCOPAENIC
Confusion
Drowsiness / Coma
Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Causes of hypoglyaemia

A

Excess insulin – either exogenous or insulinoma

Depletion of hepatic glycogen – malnutrition, fasting, exercise, alcohol; also liver failure.

(Pituitary insufficiency, adrenal insufficiency, non-pancreatic neoplasms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Hypoglycaemia - Mx (if Pt able to swallow)

A

Promptly consume 10-20g of fast-acting form of carbohydrate (preferably liquid form).

Recheck blood glucose after 10-15 minutes.
- Should reverse in 10 mins
- Improvements in signs and symptoms may lag behind improvement in blood glucose.

If inadequate response, repeat as above and recheck again.

When symptoms improve, the patient should eat some long-acting carbohydrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Hypoglycaemia - Mx (if Pt unconscious / unable to swallow)

A

Administer IM glucagon immediately:
- If <8 years = 500 micrograms
- If >8 years = 1mg

If glucagon is not available, the patient has consumed alcohol, or the person does not respond to glucagon within 10 minutes – call 999 for emergency hospital transfer
=> Glucagon is NOT effective if alcohol has been consumed

If the patient responds to glucagon, advise intake of long-acting carbohydrates when able.

Vomiting is common in recovery, which can precipitate further episodes of hypoglycaemia.

Within hospital:
- 100ml of 20% glucose can be used as an alternative to glucagon (can be repeated 3 times).
- If IV access is not available, administer IM glucagon whilst gaining access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Symptoms of Asthma

A

Symptoms tend to be variable but recurring:
- Wheeze
- SoB
- “Tight” chest feeling
- Cough (classically nocturnal)

Symptoms tend to be worse at night or early in the morning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Common precipitants to asthma symptoms

A
  • Viral infections
  • Cigarette smoke
  • Cold weather
  • Emotion
  • Excercise
  • Atmospheric pollution
  • Pets / pollen / other allergens
  • Occupational pollutants – e.g. flour/chemicals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Important points to establish in an asthma history

A

HPC
Known precipitants
Diurnal variation
Acid reflux symptoms (known association)
Hx of atopy
Hx of these episodes (incl. whether they required hospital admission/ITU)

DHx
NSAIDs
Beta-blockers

FHx
Atopy, asthma

SHx
Smoking
Days off work/school
Occupation (identify occupational pollutants)
Pets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Diagnosis of asthma

A

Asthma is a CLINICAL DIAGNOSIS – if there are suggestive symptoms, then a structured clinical assessment is needed to see if:
* Episodes are recurrent
* Sx are variable
* PMHx/FHx of atopy
* Recorded observation of expiratory wheeze
* Variable PEF or FEV1
* Absence of symptoms of an alternative diagnosis

If these give a high probability of asthma, diagnose as suspected asthma and initiate treatment.

DIAGNOSIS IS CONFIRMED AFTER AN OBJECTIVE IMPROVEMENT AFTER Tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

When might further Ix be needed for a diagnosis of asthma?

A

If response to treatment is poor, refer for spirometry to test for airway obstruction with bronchodilator reversibility

=> FEV1/FVC <70% with bronchodilator reversibility is diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Extrinsic Asthma

A

= Type I hypersensitivity reaction

Most frequently occurs in atopic individuals who show positive skin prick tests to common allergens, implying a definite extrinsic cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Intrinsic Asthma

A

= Due to non-immune mechanisms

Occurs in middle-aged individuals, when no causative agent can be identified.

Generally more severe, and associated with quicker deterioration of lung function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Pathophysiology of asthma attack

A

Acute episodes of bronchospasm that are triggered by recognised triggers.

Triggers activate mast cells, which lead to two phases of airway narrowing

Early phase – bronchospasm due to spasmogen production (histamine, PG D2, leukotrienes) causing smooth muscle contraction in the airways.

Late phase – due to chemotaxins causing an inflammatory response, causing narrowing of the airways).

There will also be airway hyper-reactivity in the late phase, which can lead to further acute deterioration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Aims of long-term Mx of asthma

A

no daytime Sx,
no night-time waking,
no need for rescue medication,
no limitations on activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Steps of Asthma management

A
  1. Short acting beta2-agonist inhaler
    => For all in whom asthma is suspected
  2. Add inhaled low-dose ICS (e.g. beclomethasone, budesonide or fluticasone)
    => For all patients with CONFIRMED asthma
    => Remember steroids take 2-3 days to take effect.
  3. Trial of LABA (e.g. Salmeterol)
    - ALWAYS use LABA in combination with a steroid
    - If no response from LABA, stop it and increase dose of ICS.
    - If some response but more control required, continue LABA but increase ICS.
    - Consider use of LTRA (e.g. montelukast), theophylline or a LAMA.
  4. Increase dose of ICS (up to highest dose)
    - Refer to specialist
  5. Specialist management
    - Can include oral steroids, oral beta2-agonists, biologics (e.g. omalizumab).

If salbutamol inhaler is used more than 2 times a week, this indicates that their current control is inadequate, and the care needs to move up a step.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is important to remember when prescribing a LABA?

A

ALWAYS use LABA in combination with a steroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Moderate Acute Asthma

A

Increasing symptoms
PEF 50-75%

NO features of acute severe asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Acute Severe Asthma Attack

A

Requires any one of:
* PEF 33-50% predicted best
* RR >25/min
* HR >110
* Inability to complete sentences in one breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Life-threatening Asthma Attack

A

Any one of:
* PEF <33% predicted
* SpO2 <92%
* PO2 <8kPa
* Normal or RAISED PaCO2 (4.6-6)
* Silent chest
* Cyanosis
* Poor respiratory effort
* Arrhythmia
* Exhaustion
* Altered consciousness
* Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Asthma attack- Ix

A

If a patient has ANY life-threatening feature, an ABG is the only immediate investigation required whilst treatment is initiated.

Certain blood gas features are markers of a life-threatening attack:
=> Normal PaCO2 (should normally be low due to hyperventilation).
=> RAISED PaCO2 indicates near-fatal asthma.
=> Severe hypoxia <8 kPa
=> A low pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Initial Emergency Tx of Asthma

A
  1. O2 to maintain sats at 94-98% (unless COPD) – usually 15L/min non-rebreather mask
  2. Salbutamol 5mg via O2 driven NEB
    => Add ipratropium to nebuliser if required
  3. PO Prednisolone 50mg
    => Or IV hydrocortisone 100mg

If life-threatening features present:
- Discuss with senior and ICU
- Add IV magnesium sulphate 2g
- Keep giving nebulised salbutamol 5mg every 15-30 mins
- Senior clinicians may consider IV aminophylline or IPPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Mx of patient post-asthma attack

A

If the patient is stable and improving:
- Continue prednisolone dose daily for at least 5 days.
- Continue nebulised salbutamol 4 hourly until discharge.
- Chart PEF before and after nebulisers, at least 4 times daily while in hospital.

Prior to discharge:
- Check inhaler technique
- Agree on written asthma action plan
- Ensure GP follow-up within 2 working days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is COPD?

A

= A disease of progressive airflow obstruction that is not fully reversible.

Associated with an abnormal inflammatory response of the lungs to noxious stimuli (predominantly [90%] cigarette smoke).

Encompasses a spectrum of illnesses:
1. chronic bronchitis – increased mucous, airway obstruction and intercurrent infections
2. emphysema – destruction of alveoli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is emphysema?

A

= Dilation of any part of the respiratory acinus (the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles), with destructive changes in the alveolar walls.

Loss of connective tissue in the alveolar walls leads to a loss of elastic recoil of the lungs, leading to air entrapment in the lungs and inadequate ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Centrilobular Emphysema

A

Changes are limited to the central part of the lobule, directly around the terminal bronchiole.

Normal alveoli elsewhere

Most common form – associated with smoking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Pan-acinar emphysema

A

Leads to destruction and distension of the whole lobule.

Can happen in smokers, but more common in alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is chronic bronchitis?

A

= Daily cough with sputum for at least 3 months per year

Primary abnormality seen is abnormal amounts of mucous, which causes plugging of the airway lumen.

Hypersecretion is associated with hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the bronchial mucous-secreting glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

COPD - RFs

A

Cigarette smoke exposure!!!

Occupational toxins – e.g. coal dust

Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency

Recurrent chest infections in childhood

Low socio-economic status

Asthma/atopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

COPD - Presentation

A
  • Productive morning cough, following many years of “smokers cough”
  • Increased frequency of LRTIs
  • Slowly progressive dyspnoea
  • Exacerbated in acute infective episodes
  • Wheezing
  • Respiratory failure
  • Chronic right heart failure (occurs late).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

COPD - O/E

A

MILD – widespread wheeze

SEVERE:
- Tachypnoea, possibly cyanosis and/or flapping tremor
- Hyperinflation, intercostal recession on inspiration, signs of respiratory distress.
- Raised JVP if right heart failure
- Poor chest expansion
- Hyper-resonant throughout, loss of cardiac/hepatic dullness
- Decreased breath sounds, prolonged expiratory phase, polyphonic wheeze.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Will there be clubbing in COPD?

A

Clubbing is NEVER present in pure COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

“Pink Puffers”

A

Patients remain sensitive to CO2, thus keep a low CO2 and near-normal O2.

Tachypnoeic, tachycardic, using accessory muscles to increase ventilation.

Breathless but not cyanosed.

Very thin – large amounts of calories used to breathe.

Can progress to type 1 respiratory failure.

More emphysematous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

“Blue Bloaters”

A

Patients are insensitive to CO2.

Severe chronic bronchitis/COPD.

Not particularly breathless but are cyanosed and oedematous (cor pulmonale).

Blood gas will show type 2 respiratory failure (low oxygen, retaining CO2.

Oxygen should be given with care to these patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Diagnosis of COPD

A

There is no single diagnostic test for COPD – diagnosis can be clinical if there are typical Sx, in a person >35 in the presence of a risk factor.

Everyone suspected of COPD should then undergo post-bronchodilator spirometry, CXR, FBC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

COPD - CXR

A

Hyperinflation (>7 anterior and >11 posterior ribs)

Flattened hemidiaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

COPD - FBC

A

Can show
- Secondary polycythaemia
- Anaemia of chronic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Severity of COPD by spirometry

A

Stage 1 – FEV1 >80% predicted (clinical diagnosis); mild.

Stage 2 – FEV1 50-79% predicted; moderate.

Stage 3 – FEV1 30-49% predicted; severe.

Stage 4 – FEV1 <30% predicted; very severe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

COPD - ABG

A
  • Normal in mild disease
  • Developing to type 1/2 respiratory failure as disease progresses.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Stable COPD - Mx

A

Patient Education:
=> How to recognise an exacerbation early
=> Action plan/rescue medication (in patients with frequent exacerbations).

Lifestyle advice:
=> Diet, exercise, SMOKING CESSATION

Pneumococcal and Flu vaccination

Medical Mx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Initial Medical Mx options for stable COPD

A

Short-acting bronchodilators (SABA or SAMA) are 1st line

Further medications are added if ongoing symptoms are limiting QoL or persistent exacerbations.

=> If no features of asthma/steroid responsiveness:
- Add a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) and muscarinic agonist (LAMA)
- Add inhaled corticosteroids if still symptomatic
- Remove ICS after 3 months if no improvement.

=> If features of asthma/steroid-responsiveness* are present => LABA + ICS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are features of asthma / steroid responsiveness in COPD patients?

A

Previous diagnosis of asthma/atopy,

Blood eosinophilia,

Substantial variation in FEV1 over time or diurnally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What Tx may be considered by specialists for COPD

A

Pulmonary rehabilitation

Oral aminophylline/theophylline

Mucolytics – e.g. carbocysteine

Roflumilast – PDE4 inhibitor

Nutritional supplements – consider for those with low BMI

Long-term oxygen therapy
=> Remember to warn patient not to smoke.

Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Acute exacerbation of COPD - presentation

A

Dyspnoea and wheeze become worse

Increased production / change in colour or smell of sputum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

When is hospital admission considered in acute exacerbation of COPD?

A
  • Severe breathlessness
  • Rapid symptom onset
  • Acute confusion
  • Cyanosis
  • Low O2 sats (<90%)
  • Worsening peripheral oedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Outpatient Mx of acute exacerbaton of COPD

A

Increase dose/frequency of SABA (using a spacer if they don’t already use one)

Prescribe 30mg prednisolone for 7-14 days for breathlessness interfering with regular activities.

Prescribe oral ABX on local ABX prescribing guidelines.

Safety net and follow-up in 6 weeks to optimise medical Tx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Inpatient Mx of acute exacerbation of COPD

A

O2 should be titrated according to the patient’s alert card

If unknown patient, titrate saturations to 88-92% using a venturi system.
=> Start on a 28% mask at 4L/min

Mx as per outpatient regime, with targeted oxygen therapy and regular monitoring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the definition of pneumonia?

A

= signs of infection of the pulmonary parenchyma, PLUS new shadowing on CXR (separates it from bronchitis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

CAP definition

A
  1. Clinical lower respiratory tract infection AND
  2. New pneumonic changes on CXR AND
  3. Onset of symptoms in the community OR within 48 hours of hospital admission.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

CAP - Presentation

A

Acute systemic illness – fever/ rigors / vomiting

Cough
=> Initially short, dry and painful
=> Progresses to productive with mucopurulent sputum.

Dyspnoea

Pleuritic chest pain
=> May be referred to shoulder to anterior abdominal wall.

Elderly populations may report very few Sx but be very unwell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

CAP - O/E

A

Inspection
=> Tachypnoea

Palpation
=> Decreased chest expansion on affected side

Percussion
=> Dullness over affected area

Auscultation
=> Coarse crackles and pleural rub over affected area
=> Bronchial breathing
=> Increased vocal resonance => “99” heard better due to consolidation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

CAP - bacterial causes

A

CONVENTIONAL
S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae

ATYPICAL
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Chlamydia pneumoniae
Legionella pneumophila

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

CAP - Ix

A

STANDARD:

Observations (including O2 sats)

Bloods – FBC, U&E, CRP, LFTs
=> Consider ABG
=> May need blood cultures.

Confirm diagnosis – CXR

Sputum sample for MC&S (plus mycoplasma PCR if suspected)

Throat swab in viral transport medium if severe / suspected viral pneumonia.

EXTRA:

Urine for legionella/pneumococcal antigen if moderate/severe
=> Empirical Tx will not cover legionella

Serum mycoplasma IgM if suspected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

CURB-65 score

A

Criteria for severe CAP = CURB65:

Confusion – mini-mental test score of 8 or less (new)
Urea >7 mmol/L (new
)
Respiratory Rate >30 breaths per minute
Blood Pressure – systolic BP <90 mmHg or diastolic BP <60 mmHg
65 or more years old

One point for each new finding.

Score 0-1 = low severity
Score 2 = moderate
Score 3 or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Mx of CAP

A

Low-severity CAP (score 0 or 1):
- Outpatient care
- PO Amoxicillin
- Alternatives available in penicillin allergy/atypical organism

Moderate severity CAP (score 2):
- PO amoxicillin + clarithromycin
- Usually admit the patient.

Severe CAP (score > 2):
- Can be >20% mortality
- Requires admission to at least Level 1 unit or even HDU/ICU.
- IV co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin.
=> Penicillin allergy/MRSA suspicion – vancomycin and levofloxacin.
- Treatment for at least 10 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Aspiration Pneumonia

A

Aspiration of gastric contents leading to chemical inflammation and infection.

This does not always show on CXR – suspect it e.g. in someone who has a low GCS and evidence of vomiting (so at risk of aspirating).

If suspected can add metronidazole for HAP or CAP – this is to cover anaerobic bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

HAP Definition

A
  1. Clinical lower respiratory tract infection AND
  2. New pneumonic changes on CXR AND
  3. onset of symptoms > 48 hours after admission OR admission in the last 7 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

HAP - typical causative pathogens

A

Enteric gram-negative bacilli – ~60% HAP cases.
=> Enterobacteriaceae (e.g. Klebsiella)
=> Pseudomonas spp.

Strep. pneumoniae
H. influenzae
Staph. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Management of HAP

A

Assess MRSA risk factors

Assess HAP severity – no evidence-based guidelines => clinical decision

Mild HAP – oral doxycycline.

Severe HAP – IV Tazocin.

THESE PATIENTS SHOULD BE DISCUSSED WITH MICROBIOLOGY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Pneumonia Follow-up

A

Follow-up CXR at 6 weeks
=> to ensure resolution of consolidation => to assess for persistent abnormalities of the lung parenchyma.

Non-resolution => ?endobronchial obstruction as cause of pneumonia (e.g. lung cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Potential complications of pneumonia

A

Sepsis

Lung abscess

Empyema – pus-filled collection in the pleural space.
=> Often develops from a parapneumonic effusion

Lung abscess/empyema can be suspected if there is a persistent swinging pyrexia and rising CRP despite treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Bronchopneumonia

A

Primary infection centres around the bronchi, spreading to involve adjacent alveoli which become consolidated.

Initial consolidation is patchy (involves lobules), but if left untreated can involve whole lobes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Lobar pneumonia

A

Organisms gain entry to distal air spaces rather than colonising bronchi, thus there is rapid spread of infection through alveolar air spaces.

Macroscopically, the whole lobe becomes consolidated and airless.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Causes of PTX

A

SPONTANEOUS PTX
=> Primary
=> Secondary

TRAUMATIC PTX
=> Penetrating trauma, rib fractures

IATROGENIC PTX
=> Lung biopsy, endoscopy, subclavian cannulation, positive pressure ventilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Primary PTX

A

Lung parenchyma otherwise normal;

Often occurs in tall, thin young men.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Secondary PTX

A

Underlying lung disease/abnormality – e.g. COPD, asthmatic, malignancy, CF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

PTX - symptoms

A

May be asymptomatic if small / primary (low index of suspicion required).

Sudden onset of unilateral pleuritic pain

Progressive dyspnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

PTX - signs

A

May be few physical signs

Reduced expansion on affected side

Increased resonance to percussion on affected side

Decreased breath sounds and reduced vocal resonance on affected side

If TENSION PTX:
- Tracheal deviation away from affected side;
- Cyanosis
- Severe tachypnoea
- Tachycardia
- Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is tension PTX?

A

= Medical Emergency

Air in the pleural space leading to cardiac compromise.

Arises due to a one-way valve system, allowing air entry into the pleural space during inspiration but no air exit during expiration.

This results in very high intrapleural pressure, deflating the lung and decreasing venous return to the heart (leads to circulatory collapse).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Tension PTX - Ix

A

Diagnosis is clinical (there is no time for imaging).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Tension PTX - Mx

A
  1. Call for help immediately.
  2. A-E
  3. Oxygen therapy
  4. Needle decompression with a cannula
    => 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line with a 14g (orange) cannula.
    => After decompression, patient will require rapid insertion of a chest drain.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

PTX - Diagnosis

A

Basic Hx and Examination

ABG – if signs of respiratory distress / chronic lung disease

Erect CXR = diagnostic
=> you should not be able to see the edge of the lung; if you can, there is likely to be a PTX.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Size of PTX

A

Estimating the size of a pneumothorax is important for management.

Estimation of size from a CXR is imperfect but most practical.

=> General rule is that a 2cm interpleural distance at the level of the hilum equates to a pneumothorax of 50% of the volume of the lung.

=> <2cm is a small pneumothorax and patient may not need treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Management - Primary PTX

A

Rim of air <2cm and patient is not SoB/hypoxic:
=> Discharge, with interval CXR at 2 weeks
=> Safety net – return to hospital if become SoB
=> Advise to avoid strenuous exercise and quit smoking.

Rim of air >2cm
=> Attempt aspiration
=> If successful (<1cm residual rim of air), discharge as above.
=> If unsuccessful, will require chest drain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Management - Secondary PTX

A

Rim of air <1cm
=> Give oxygen and admit for 24h observation

Rim of air 1-2cm
=> Attempt aspiration
=> Chest drain if <1cm residual rim of air.

Rim of air >2cm
=> Will require chest drain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Advice for patient post-PTX

A

After PTX, air travel should be avoided for 6 weeks, and scuba-diving should be permanently avoided.

If there is recurrent PTX (>2 occasions) or PTX that does not resolve within 5 days of a chest drain, then surgery may be indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Pleural Effusion

A

= a build-up of excess fluid (normal = 15 mL) found between the layers of the pleura

(i.e. outside the lungs and therefore different to pulmonary oedema).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

different types of pleural effusion

A

Haemothorax = accumulation of blood, due to trauma.

Empyema/pyothorax = accumulation of pus, due to infection.

Chylothorax = accumulation of lymph, due to thoracic duct leakage.

Fluid effusion = fluid accumulation, can be transudative or exudative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

pleural effusion - TRANSUDATE

A

= Protein concentration <30 g/L

Occur due to increased hydrostatic pressure or decreased oncotic pressure.

CAUSES:
* Organ failure – Cardiac, Liver, Renal
* Peritoneal Dialysis
* Hypothyroidism
* Ovarian tumours

More often bilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

pleural effusion - EXUDATE

A

= Protein concentration >30 g/L

Causes:
* Infections – bacterial pneumonia, TB
* Neoplasm – lung primary/secondary, mesothelioma.
* Pulmonary Embolism
* Autoimmune disease – RA/SLE
* Abdominal disease – pancreatitis, subphrenic abscess.

More often unilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Pleural Effusion - O/E

A

Decreased chest expansion

Tracheal deviation away (if large)

Dull percussion – due to underlying fluid

Decreased breath sounds

Can be bronchial breathing above effusion due to compression of lung

Reduced vocal resonance

Examination should also focus on features of possible cause – e.g. signs of liver/kidney disease, malignancy. Cardiac failure, RA/SLE, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What can cause empyema?

A

caused by bacterial invasion of the pleural space

either from an adjacent pneumonia or from direct inoculation (e.g. poor aseptic technique in a chest drain).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Empyema - presentation, Ix, Mx

A

Clinically presents as fever plus signs of pleural effusion

Aspirated fluid is yellow and turbid, with pH <7.2, low glucose, high LDH

Require IV ABX and chest drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Pleural Effusion - Ix

A

CXR
=> On Erect PA/AP, >300mL fluid is typically needed before effusion becomes evident.

USS
=> Can detect smaller amounts of fluid than CXR
=> Recommended to guide aspiration

Aspiration:
=> Fluid sent for MC&S, clinical chemistry (protein, LDH, glucose) and cytology
=> Also run through blood gas machine to determine pH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Transudate vs Exudate

A

Transudate vs Exudate is determined by protein level, but if protein level is borderline (25-35 g/L), one positive element of LIGHT’S CRITERIA will suggest an exudate:

  • Pleural fluid protein/serum protein >0.5.
  • Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH >0.6.
  • Pleural fluid LDH more than two-thirds the upper limit of normal serum LDH.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Pleural Effusion - Mx

A

If aspirated fluid is turbid/purulent (or if pH <7.2 this also suggests empyema):
=> Place chest drain
=> Consider IV ABX

Drainage should also take place if symptomatic

Manage the underlying cause of effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What are the 3 main acid-base buffer systems in the body?

A
  1. Intra- and extracellular buffers (rapid)
  2. Ventilation (rapid)
  3. Renal regulation of H+ and HCO3 (slower)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Steps for interpreting an ABG

A
  1. How is the patient?
  2. Assess oxygenation
    - On air – PaO2 should be >10kPa
    = On Oxygen – PaO2 should be ~10kPa less than the % inspired concentration.
  3. Determine the pH
    - <7.35 is acidaemic
    - >7.45 is alkalaemic
  4. Determine the respiratory component
    - If acidaemic, is the PaCO2 >6? Respiratory acidosis
    - If alkalaemic, is the PaCO2 <4.7? Respiratory alkalosis
  5. Determine the metabolic component
    - If acidaemic, is the HCO3- <22? Metabolic acidosis
    - If alkalaemic, is the HCO3- >26? Metabolic alkalosis
  6. Is there any evidence of compensation?
  7. Base excess
    - Negative in metabolic acidosis
    - Positive in metabolic alkalosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Respiratory Acidosis - causes

A
  • Central – e.g. drugs, stroke, infection
  • Airway obstruction
  • Parenchymal emphysema
  • Neuromuscular
  • Obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Respiratory Acidosis

A

= Decrease in gaseous exchange leading to retention of CO₂

COMPENSATION:
High pCO₂ leads to renal retention of bicarbonate to buffer excess H⁺

Compensation by the kidneys results in an increase in secretion of H⁺ over 3-5 days leading to increase in plasma bicarbonate level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Respiratory Alkalosis

A

Hyperventilation => excess exhalation of CO₂, resulting in low pCO₂ and thereby increased pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Respiratory Alkalosis - causes

A
  • Anxiety, Pain
  • Hypoxia => Altitude, pneumonia, aspiration, severe anaemia
  • Drugs – progesterone, salicylates
  • Sepsis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Metabolic Acidosis

A

Results from the body producing too much acid or the kidneys failing to excrete enough H⁺.

COMPENSATION:
Initially this creates a decrease in bicarbonate as carbonic acid is produced to buffer the H⁺

The lungs compensate by hyperventilation and blowing of the CO₂

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Metabolic Acidosis - causes

A

The anion gap can be used to differentiate causes:

Normal Gap = bicarbonate is being lost:
- GI loss (e.g. diarrhoea)
- Renal disease allowing loss.

High anion gap = increased production of acids
- Lactic acidocis
- DKA
- Drugs (e.g. NSAIDs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Metabolic Alkalosis

A

Results from increased bicarbonate due to either decreased H⁺ concentration or a direct increase in bicarbonate.

Bicarbonate shift can occur from retention, an intracellular shift in H⁺ or by ingestion of large amounts of alkali (e.g. antacids).

COMPENSATION:
The lungs compensate by slower breathing to retain more CO₂

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Metabolic Alkalosis - causes

A

Excess base – e.g. Ingestion

Loss of acid (Vomiting, NG suction)

Burns
Hyperaldosteronism
Hypokalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Type I Respiratory Failure

A

PaO2 low (<8 kPa)
PaCO2 normal or low

T1RF occurs with diseases of the lung parenchyma
=> e.g. Pulmonary oedema, pneumonia, PE, COPD, ARDS
=> An asthma attack is initially type 1, with type 2 indicating a peri-arrest state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What is Type 2 Respiratory Failure?

What are the causes?

A

PaO2 low (<8 kPa)
PaCO2 high (>6 kPa)

INSUFFICIENT VENTILATION to excrete the volume of CO2 being produced by tissues

=> Severe pulmonary disease – asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, OSA

=> Reduced respiratory drive – CNS pathology, sedation

=> Thoracic wall disease – rib fractures (pain), kyphoscoliosis, flail chest

=> Neuromuscular disease – diaphragm paralysis, MG, Guillain-Barre, poliomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Hypercapnia - presentation

A
  • Headache
  • Tachycardia
  • Bounding pulse
  • CO2 retention flap
  • Papilloedema

Features of acidosis:
- Kussmaul respiration – “air hunger”, giving deep and laboured breathing.
- CV dysfunction – acidosis is negatively ionotropic
- K+ abnormalities
- Cerebral dysfunction – confusion or coma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

T1RF - Mx

A
  • Treat the underlying cause
  • Give high-flow oxygen via a face mask.
  • Consider assisted ventilation if PaO2 remains <8kPa (e.g. CPAP)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

T2RF - Mx

A

Respiratory centre may be reliant on hypoxic drive – oxygen therapy should be given with care (starting at 24% O2) and rechecking ABG after 20 mins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is interstitial Lung Disease?

A

= generic term used to describe a number of conditions that affect the lung parenchyma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Causes of Interstitial Lung Disease

A

EXOGENOUS STIMULI
- Occupational / environmental – asbestosis, silicosis, coal dust inhalation
- Drugs
- Hypersensitivity reactions – e.g. EAA, Bird Fancier’s Lung
- Infections – TB/fungal/viral infections

ENDOGENOUS STIMULI:
- Sarcoidosis
- RA
- CTDs – SLE, systemic sclerosis, Sjogren’s

IDIOPATHIC
- Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis = most common cause of interstitial lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What drugs can cause ILD?

A

nitrofurantoin,
amiodarone,
sulfasalazine,
methotrexate,
some anti-cancer chemotherapy drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Interstitial Lung Disease - Presentation

A

SYMPTOMS:
- dyspnoea on exertion
- non-productive cough.

O/E:
- Inspection – may be signs of respiratory distress
- Palpation – reduced expansion
- Percussion – normal (unless secondary pathology).
- Auscultation – bilateral, fine end-inspiratory crackles; sometimes expiratory wheeze.

May also be signs of decompensation – i.e. signs of pulmonary HTN and right heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

A

= most common cause of ILD

Aetiology unknown

Along with the dry cough and dyspnoea, patients will report malaise and weight loss, with arthralgia.

Hx should attempt to exclude occupational exposures and connective tissue diseases.

O/E – fine end-inspiratory crackles and also can be cyanosis and clubbing.

Complications:
- T2RF
- Pulmonary HTN
- Increased risk of lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

General Ix for interstitial lung disease of unknown origin

A

BLOODS
– FBC, ANA/RF if suspecting CTDs

CXR
=> reduced lung volume, bilateral reticulo-nodular shadowing.

HIGH-RESOLUTION CT
– more sensitive, essential for diagnosis
=> “honeycombing” seen on CT

SPIROMETRY
– restrictive deficit, reduced gas exchange (DLCO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Potential further Ix in interstitial lung disease

A

Bronchoalveolar lavage – may indicate disease activity in IFF/EAA

Lung biopsy (via bronchoscopy or surgical) – only if diagnosis is uncertain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Prognosis of ILD

A

typically poor prognosis and limited Tx options

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Long-term management of ILD

A

Lifestyle:
- Smoking cessation
- Healthy diet and regular exercise

Pneumococcal and Flu vaccines

Many cases will be unresponsive to Tx

There are some monoclonal antibodies used in IPF if the patient meets the criteria:
=> Pirfenidone, Nintedanib

20% respond to long courses of prednisolone, tapered down.

Some patients will be suitable for lung transplantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Mx of acute exacerbation of ILD

A
  1. Oxygen: High flow nasal oxygen, NIV rarely indicated as usually T1RF
  2. Exclude treatable pathology
  3. Empirical antibiotics
  4. Enoxaparin if suspect PE
  5. High dose steroids
  6. Careful consideration of ICU vs palliation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Dyspepsia

A

Epigastric/upper abdo pain

Occurs following a meal

Central, no radiation

Worse with bending/lying down and when drinking hot liquids/alcohol

Improves with sitting upright and antacids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Symptoms of GORD

A
  • Dyspepsia
  • Acid reflux
  • Waterbrash
  • Bad breath
  • Bloating and belching
  • Nausea and/or vomiting
  • Odynophagia and/or dysphagia

There may be atypical chest pain due to distal oesophageal muscle spasm and a nocturnal cough/wheeze (giving asthma type symptoms).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

RFs for GORD

A
  • Hiatus Hernia
  • Raised IAP (pregnancy / obesity)
  • Large meals, eaten late at night
  • Smoking
  • High caffeine intake
  • (High fatty food intake)
  • Drugs
    => Anticholinergics, nitrates, TCAs, CCBs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

GORD - potential complications

A
  • Oesophageal ulcers – bleeding, pain, odynophagia.
  • Oesophageal strictures – dysphagia, odynophagia.
    => Caused by repeated ulcers/inflammation
  • Barrett’s Oesophagus
  • Oesophageal Cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Diagnosis of GORD

A

Diagnosis is usually based on symptoms and treated empirically

If there are any RED FLAG SYMPTOMS (ALARM55) – patient should be referred for endoscopy

Also refer if:
- Unsure of GORD diagnosis
- Symptoms are persistent, severe or unusual
- Not controlled by medication
- May benefit from surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

GORD - Mx

A
  1. Lifestyle changes
  2. Medical Management
    - 1st line = Antacids (e.g. magnesiums or aluminium hydroxide) +/- alginates (e.g. Gaviscon)
  • 2nd line = H2RAs (e.g. Ranitidine) / PPIs for 4-8 weeks.
  • If symptoms return after the initial course, then test for H. Pylori in primary care.
    => Need 2 weeks PPI-free before testing.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

GORD - lifestyle changes

A
  • Weight loss and smoking cessation
  • Eat small and regular meals; >3h before bed.
  • Avoid hot drinks/alcohol.
  • Avoid drugs that exacerbate the condition/damage the mucosa (e.g. NSAIDs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Barrett’s Oesophagus

A

In patients with long-standing reflux, the normal stratified squamous epithelium of the oesophagus undergoes metaplasia to glandular columnar epithelium.

Continued inflammation can lead to dysplasia and malignant changes (risk approx. 0.5% per patient per year).

The process of metaplasia is asymptomatic, but the patient will have Sx of GORD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Barrett’s Oesophagus - Ix

A

OGD – if present, it will be visible and biopsies can be taken

Normal oesophageal squamous mucosa => metaplastic columnar mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Barrett’s Oesophagus - Mx

A

Regular endoscopic surveillance with biopsies to look for dysplasia/carcinoma in situ (which can be treated with endoscopic resection.

The risk of malignant change is ~0.5% per year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Gastric Ulcers - features

A

Occur in older patients (>55)

Mainly on the lesser curve of the stomach

Pain is worse on eating
Pain relieved by antacids

May present with small bleed (iron deficiency anaemia) or major haemorrhage (haematemesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Duodenal Ulcers - Features

A

4x more common than gastric ulcers

90% located within 2cm of the pylorus.

Pain is at night and before meals.
Relieved by eating food/drinking milk.

May present with bleeding or perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Peptic Ulcers - RFs

A

H. pylori infection

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
=> Excessive acid secretion due to non-insulin secreting islet cell tumour of the pancreas, secreting gastrin-like hormone.
=> Often leads to extensive ulceration.

Drugs:
- Long-term NSAIDs
- Long-term / high-dose Corticosteroids

Increased ICP (Cushing ulcers)
Post severe burns (Curling ulcer)

Hepatic/renal failure

Smoking, alcohol, caffeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Peptic Ulcer - presentation

A

Nearly 75% of patients are asymptomatic.

Symptoms can be:
- Burning epigastric pain

  • Pain related to food intake.
    => Typically relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers, worse on eating in gastric ulcers.
  • Feeling of fullness, bloating or belching.
  • Appetite changes
  • Unexplained weight loss
  • Haematemesis/melaena
  • Nausea
  • Severe abdominal pain (?perforation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Peptic Ulcer - Ix

A

Urgent OGD (2WW) if fit the ALARM-55 criteria.
=> Multiple biopsies taken from rim/ base for (histology & H/pylori) as well as brushings (cytology).

No investigation required if <55 and no ALARM55 criteria:
- Lifestyle measures
- PPIs/H2RAs

If symptoms persist on Tx, investigate for H. pylori

If previous peptic ulcer, assume H. pylori and eradicate with “triple therapy”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Surgery for Peptic ulcers

A

Generally now only reserved for disease complications:
=> Haemorrhage, perforation, strictures, malignant changes

Sometimes in patients who cannot tolerate medical therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

H. Pylori Infection

A

Infection will cause:

  1. Gastritis (mainly in the gastric antrum)
  2. Increased acid secretion (due to neutralisation of acid) and abnormal mucous production, leading to epithelial damage.

H. pylori is also associated with duodenal ulcers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

H. Pylori - Ix

A

13C Urea Breath Test

Stool antigen test

Serum test (if its performance has been locally validated)

OGD – biopsies can be added to a urea solution with phenol red dye, and if H. pylori is present there will be a colour change to the urease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

13C Urea Breath Test for H Pylori

A
  • Patient ingests 13C-labelled Urea.
  • If H. pylori is present, the urease enzyme will metabolise this to 13CO2 which can be detected on the breath.
  • This will become negative when H. pylori is eradicated (unlike stool/serum tests)

!!! The patient should not take ABX for 4 weeks or PPI for 2 weeks before testing, as these can cause a false negative !!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

H. Pylori - Mx

A

H. pylori eradication involves triple therapy:

=> PPI + 2 antibiotics for 7 days.

Omeprazole + clarithromycin + amoxicillin (metronidazole in penicillin allergy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What is IBS?

A

= a relapsing functional bowel disorder, with no discernible structural or biochemical cause.

It is shown to have a negative impact on quality of life, but it is not associated with the development of serious pathology.

The mechanisms may be differences in the “brain-gut axis”, leading to increased visceral perception and decreased visceral pain threshold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

IBS - RFs

A

Stress and other psychological factors

Dietary triggers (alcohol, caffeine, spicy foods)

Enteric infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

IBS - Diagnosis

A

Diagnosis of IBS is made POSITIVELY on symptom-based diagnostic criteria

Consider the diagnosis if any of the following symptoms for AT LEAST 6 months:
- Abdominal pain, or
- Bloating, or
- Change in bowel habit.

Make a diagnosis of IBS if a person has abdominal pain which is either:
- Related to defecation, and/or
- Associated with altered stool frequency (increased or decreased), and/or
- Associated with altered stool form or appearance (hard, lumpy, loose, or watery)

AND at least 2 from the following:
- Altered passage of stool (straining, urgency, tenesmus)
- Abdominal bloating/ distension/ hardness
- Symptoms aggravated by eating
- Passage of rectal mucus
- Associated gynaecological, urinary symptoms, or back pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

IBS - Ix

A

History to ensure there are no Red Flag symptoms.
=> E.g. unintentional weight loss, PR bleeding, FHx bowel/ovarian cancer, change in bowel habit >60, incontinence, having to frequently open bowels at night.

Examination:
- For signs of anaemia / masses

Bloods:
- CRP/ESR + faecal calprotectin to exclude IBD
- TTG/ anti-endomysial antibodies to exlcude coeliac disease
- FBC – any anaemia ?

In cases that meet the criteria for IBS, no further investigations are required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

IBS - Conservative Mx

A

Form a therapeutic alliance and self-help materials

Lifestyle:
- Regular exercise
- Regular mealtimes, lots of water, limit tea/coffee, limit high insoluble fibre intake.
- Relaxation techniques.

Further dietary advice may be given by a dietician if initial measures are unsuccessful (i.e. low FODMAP diet).

Peppermint oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

IBS - Medical Mx

A

1st Line Medical Mx:
=> Antispasmodics (e.g. mebeverine) as 1st line medical Mx

=> Laxatives can be given for constipation
- But AVOID lactulose (bloating)

=> Loperamide is 1st choice anti-motolity agent for diarrhoea.

Further Medical Mx:
=> 2nd Line = Low dose TCAs once nightly.
=> 3rd Line = SSRIs, if TCAs are unsuccessful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Refractory IBS

A

defined as symptoms persisting after 12 months of antidepressant medications.

At this stage, referral for CBT may be made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

pathophysiology of cirrhosis

A
  1. Destruction of Liver Cells
  2. Associated chronic inflammation, stimulating fibrosis
  3. Regeneration of hepatocytes to form nodules.
    => nodules lack normal vascular and bile drainage connections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Micronodular Cirrhosis

A

Nodules <3mm

occurs as a result of alcoholic liver disease or biliary tract disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Macronodular Cirrhosis

A

Nodules >3mm

occurs due to previous hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Causes of Cirrhosis

A

COMMON
* Alcoholic Liver Disease
* Cryptogenic Liver Disease (no cause found on investigation)
* Non-alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)
* Chronic viral hepatitis

LESS COMMON
* Autoimmune hepatitis
* Primary biliary cirrhosis
* Primary sclerosing cholangitis
* Budd-Chiari Syndrome
* Cystic fibrosis

RARER
* Haemochromatosis
* Wilson’s disease
* Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

What is Primary Biliary Cirrhosis?

A

= Autoimmune destruction of the intra-hepatic bile canaliculi

Occurs mainly in 40-60 year old females (90%)

Related to IBD

Often presents with jaundice, pruritis, skin xanthomas

It is a slowly progressive condition

Replacement of fat-soluble vitamins is important in Mx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis - Dx

A

Raised anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) is considered diagnostic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What is Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis?

What is the treatment?

A

= Autoimmune inflammation and fibrosis around the bile ducts in the liver.

This leads to secondary cirrhosis, due to chronic biliary obstruction.

70% associated with IBD

Cholangiocarcinoma can develop

No effective Tx other than transplantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

What is Wilson’s Disease?

A

= Rare inborn error of copper metabolism, leading to deposition of copper in many organs.

Classically the liver, basal ganglia and cornea (Kayser-Fleischer rings)

It is treatable, so any person with hepatic/neurological problems should be screened.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Wilson’s Disease - Ix and Mx

A

Ix:
- Serum caeruloplasmin (reduced), urinary copper (increased)
- Liver biopsy shows increased copper

Tx = chelating agents (e.g. D-penicillamine or trientene).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

What is Haemochromatosis ?

What is the classic presentation?

A

= Inherited condition characterised by excess iron deposition in various organs, leading to fibrosis and organ failure.

Classic triad (only present in gross overload):
- Bronze skin discoloration
- Hepatomegaly
- DM

Hypogonadism is a common presenting feature (impotence, testicular atrophy) due to pituitary iron deposition).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Haemochromatosis - Ix and Mx

A

Ix:
- Serum iron/ferritin (both raised)
- Total iron binding capacity decreased
- Genetic testing
- Liver biopsy

Tx:
=> Venesection (1 unit per week initially until iron levels are normal, then 2-4 times per year; usually lifelong).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Classic History in chronic liver disease

A

Fatigue

Weight loss/anorexia
- Early satiety with hepatomegaly
- BUT Patient may often note “central weight gain” of ascites.

Jaundice

Leg swelling
=> Due to decreased oncotic pressure and increased intra-abdominal pressure)

Bleeding/bruising
=> Due to decreased synthetic function)

Itching
=> Due to bile salt accumulation in peripheral nerves
=> Tx = cholestyramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Signs of chronic liver disease O/E

A

Nails
=> Leukonychia due to low albumin
=> Clubbing

Hands:
=> Palmar erythema
=> Dupytren’s Contracture
=> Liver flap

Skin:
=> Pigmentation / jaundice
=> Spider naevi
=> Striae

Feminisation:
=> Gynaecomastia, testicular atrophy and loss of body hair

Signs of portal HTN:
=> Caput medusae
=> Hepatosplenomegaly
=> Ascites

Signs of hepatocellular failure:
=> Bruising
=> Prolonged clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Why can chronic liver disease lead to signs of feminisation?

A

Secondary hyperaldosteronism (due to activation of RAAS because hypoalbuminaemia leads to a lower circulating volume)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

What can precipitate decompensation of chronic liver disease?

A
  • Alcohol binge
  • Variceal bleed
  • Hepatotoxic drugs
  • Portal/hepatic vein thrombosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Child-Pugh score

A

Gives prognosis for patients with chronic liver disease

Uses variables:
A - albumin
B - bilirubin
C - clotting (INR / PTT)
D - distention (ascites)
E - encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Chronic Liver Disease - Ix

A

Liver function – albumin & INR are the best indicators

Liver damage – LFTs

Complications:
=> U&Es (hepatorenal syndrome) / ABG (hepatopulmonary syndrome).

LIVER SCREEN to find cause:
- Viral serology
- Serum autoantibodies/Ig
- AFP
- Iron studies (hereditary haemochromatosis)
- Serum copper/caeruloplasmin (Wilson’s disease)
- Alpha1-antitrypsin level

IMAGING:
- USS & duplex of liver and abdomen.
- Endoscopy – detection and Tx of any varices; should be undertaken in anyone with suspected cirrhosis.
- MRI if indicated

Further Ix:
- Ascitic Tap
- Liver biopsy (gold-standard, but not always required)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

When is an OGD indicated in cirrhosis?

A

should be undertaken in anyone with suspected cirrhosis.

for detection and Tx of any varices (as 90% of cirrhosis patients develop these)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Cirrhosis - Mx

A

Tx depends on the patient, and cause, severity, and complications

May include:
* Avoidance of alcohol
* Laxatives to maintain bowel movements, ideally >2 per day
* Good nutrition and advice from a specialist dietician
* Avoidance of drugs that cause hepatic impairment

The ONLY definitive treatment is liver transplant (if suitable, depending on cause).
=> However, there is a shortage of donated livers available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Ascites - presentation and Mx

A

= fluid in the peritoneal cavity, which can accumulate slowly or rapidly.

Mild abdo pain is common
=> If severe pain, consider spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.

Mx =
- Initially bed rest, fluid restriction, low-salt diet and spironolactone
- Ideally the patient should lose 0.5-1kg in 24 hours.
- Furosemide can be added if the response is poor
- Therapeutic paracenteses and albumin infusion reserved for large volume ascites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Suspected spontaneous bacterial Peritonitis - Mx

A

suspected if ascites with fever, pain, deterioration

=> Ceftriaxone IV until sensitivities are known (diagnostic tap)

=> Long-term norfloxacin (as recurrence is high).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Hepatic Encephalopathy - cause and severity

A

Caused by nitrogenous waste build-up in the circulation.

Leads to cerebral oedema when astrocytes attempt to clear it.

Severity:
- Grade I – altered mood/behaviour, sleep disturbances
- Grade II – increasing drowsiness and confusion
- Grade III – stupor, incoherence, restlessness
- Grade IV – Coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Hepatic Encephalopathy - Mx

A

ICU admission with 20 degree head tilt

Oral lactulose, with regular enemas to clear the bowel of nitrogen-forming organisms

If there is evidence of cerebral oedema, IV mannitol and hyperventilation may be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Where are there Porto-systemic anastomoses ?

A

Cardia of the stomach => gastric/oesophageal varices

Anus => rectal varices

Retroperitoneal organs => stromal varices

Paraumbilical veins of anterior abdominal wall => caput medusae.

When portal blood flow is obstructed, blood from the portal territory is able to use these collateral routes to return to the heart (as the portal system has no valves, so blood can flow in a reverse direction).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

What is portal HTN?

A

= pressure in the portal vein >10mmHg (normal = 5-10 mmHg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Causes of portal HTN

A

PRE / POST-HEPATIC
Portal vein thrombosis (Budd-chiari syndrome)

HEPATIC
Cirrhosis
Hepatitis
Idiopathic non-cirrhotic portal HTN
Schistosomiasis
Congenital hepatic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

What is Budd-Chiari Syndrome?

A

= obstruction of hepatic veins, most commonly due to thrombosis or obstruction due to external mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Portal HTN - manifestations

A

Variceal Bleeding

Haemorrhoids/caput medusae

Ascites

Splenomegaly

Porto-systemic encephalopathy (toxins bypass liver).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

What is Unstable Angina ?

What is the pathology?

A

(also “crescendo angina”)

= Angina occurring at rest, or sudden increased frequency/severity of existing angina.

Pathologically caused by fissuring of atheromatous plaques, this there is a risk of subsequent total vessel occlusion and progression to MI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Regional MI

A

Infarct of one segment of the ventricular wall

Nearly always due to thrombus formation on an atheromatous plaque, giving prolonged ischaemia.

The area of regional infarction depends on the artery occluded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Regional Subendocardial Infarction

A

If there is lysis of the thrombus, or a strong collateral supply, the infarct is limited to the subendocardial zone (the most distal point from the blood supply).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Circumferential subendocardial Infarction

A

Caused by general hypoperfusion of all coronary arteries, usually due to hypotensive episode in arteries already affected by high-grade atherosclerosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

What is required for a diagnosis of MI?

A

The diagnosis of MI requires elevations in serum cardiac troponin levels (i.e. cardiac myocyte death)

Additional categorisation based on ECG:
=> ST elevation / new LBBB = STEMI
=> No ST elevation/LBBB = NSTEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

STEMI vs NSTEMI

A

STEMI generally correlates with a full-thickness MI

NSTEMI is often a partial-thickness lesion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

MI - RCA

A

Supplies RA, RV, posterior septum

Gives posterior/inferior MI
=> Leads II, III, aVF

Also supplies the AVN in 80% and SAN in 60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

MI - LCA

A

Splits into the circumflex and left anterior descending artery.

Gives a massive antero-lateral MI.
=> Leads I, aVL, and V1-V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

MI - circumflex artery

A

Mainly supplies LA and LV

Gives lateral MI
=> Leads I, aVL, V5 & V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

MI - left anterior descending artery

A

Mainly supplies the LV and anterior septum

Gives antero-septal MI
=> Leads V1-V4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

ECG - lateral region

A

I
aVL
V5
V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

ECG - inferior region

A

II
III
aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

ECG - anterior region

A

V1
V2
V3
V4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

End pathophysiology of MI

A

The end result is replacement of the necrotic area with collagenous scar, which occurs in a predictable time-course

  • 12-24 hours – infarct pale and blotchy, with intercellular oedema
  • 24-72 hours – infarcted area excites acute inflammatory response, with dead area soft and yellow with neutrophilic infiltration.
  • 10 days to several months – collagen deposition, infarct replaced by collagenous scar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

ACS - Symptoms

A

Severe crushing, gripping or heavy chest pain lasting longer than 20 minutes.
- Not relieved by 3x GTN sprays at 5 minute intervals.

Radiates to the left arm, neck or jaw.

Associated with dyspnoea, nausea, fatigue, sweatiness and palpitations, with distress and a feeling of “impending doom”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

“Silent” MI

A

MI without chest pain

More common in the elderly and diabetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

MI - O/E

A

Sympathetic activation – tachycardia, HTN, pallor, sweatiness.

Vagal stimulation – bradycardia, vomiting.

Myocardial impairment – hypotension, narrow pulse pressure, raised JVP, basal crepitations, 3rd heart sound.

Tissue damage – low-grade pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

MI - later signs

A

Pericardial rub = an extra heart sound due to friction
=> Resembles the sound of squeaky leather and often is described as grating, scratching, or rasping.
=> Best heard between the apex and sternum but may be widespread

Peripheral oedema

Pan-systolic murmur due to papillary muscle rupture/ventriculo-septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

MI - Ix

A

ECG = essential in all patients presenting with chest pain.
=> Repeated every 15 minutes whilst in pain, or continuous monitoring in ACS (due to high chance of arrythmias developing).

Bloods:
- FBC, U&E
- Glucose, lipids
- Cardiac Enzymes to confirm MI

CXR:
- Consider for evidence of cardiomegaly/ pulmonary oedema (heart failure), widened mediastinum (aortic dissection)

If Dx still in doubt => Transthoracic Echocardiography may confirm, or help detect alternative diagnoses.

260
Q

Cardiac Enzymes in MI

A

Troponins are 1st Line:

  • Rise 4-8 hours following onset of symptoms
  • Peak at 24 hours
  • Detectable for 10 days

(Also raised in critically unwell patients with non-cardiac causes)

261
Q

Pattern of ECG wave morphology in STEMIs

A

a. At onset of pain – the ECG shows a normal sinus complex

b. Within 1 hour – noticeable ST segment elevation has developed

c. Following treatment – subsequently, T-wave inversion may develop

d. 24h later – ST segment has returned to baseline, T-wave inversion persists

e. Days/Months later – deep Q-wave indicating tissue death
=> A deep Q wave will remain on the ECG (i.e. if only pathological Q-waves are present, this could be from a previous MI).

262
Q

Cardiac chest pain with new onset LBBB

A

can be assumed as a STEMI, as further interpretation of the ECG is not possible.

263
Q

How can you differentiate unstable angina from MI?

A

In unstable angina:

There may be ischaemic ST depression in the leads affected,

There will be NO troponin rise (i.e. no infarction).

264
Q

ACS - Immediate Mx

A

INFORMANT

INvestigations
=> ECG, Troponin, U&Es, glucose, Hb, ?angiography
=> If there is ST elevation on ECG, immediate referral to cardiology for PCI is required.

Fondaparinux
=> 2.5 mg SC OD for 2-8 days (until no chest pain for >24 hours)

Oxygen
=> Prescribe, but only indicated if SpO2 <94%

Reassurance

Morphine
=> 5-10mg by slow IV injection initially
=> Usually need to co-prescribe metoclopramide 10mg IV (unless contraindicated).

Aspirin
=> 300 mg PO; such or chew for faster absorption

Nitrate
=> Sublingual GTN (e.g. 400 mucrogram spray)
=> Consider IV infusion if pain continues

Ticagrelor
=> First dose = 180mg PO
=> Continues for 12 months at 90 mg bd

265
Q

Mx of STEMI

A

Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) is gold-standard, if available in a timely fashion.
=> Door to balloon within 90 minutes.

PCI is contraindicated if there are significant co-morbidities

Thrombolysis is indicated in STEMI when PCI is contra-indicated

266
Q

Mx of NSTEMI / UA

A

High risk – if GRACE mortality >3% in 6m, or raised troponins, persistent pain, ST depression, or diabetes.
=> Organise semi-elective PCI as an inpatient

Low Risk – i.e. resolved unstable angina or GRACE <3%
=> Potentially can be discharged with long-term medication and outpatient follow up.

267
Q

ACS - long-term Mx

A

48 hour bed rest with continuous ECG monitoring

Daily U&Es and cardiac enzymes for 2-3 days

Thromboprophylaxis
=> Fondaparinux s.c. 2.5mg o.d. for max 8 days (until chest pain free for 24h)

DUAL ANTIPLATELET THERAPY
=> Aspirin 75mg o.d. continued for life
=> Ticagrelor OR clopidogrel for ONE YEAR

Bisoprolol for life, titrated to maximum tolerated dose.

ACEI titrated to maximum tolerated dose

Atorvastatin 80mg o.n.

GTN Spray for angina Sx

Address modifiable risk factors

268
Q

Complications of MI

A

IMMEDIATE
Arrythmias - VT, VF, AF, bradycardia/block (if AVN/SAN affected)

SHORT-TERM
Pulmonary Oedema
Cardiogenic Shock
Thromboembolism
Ventriculo-septal defect
Ruptured chordae tendinae
Rupture of ventricular wall

LONG-TERM
Heart failure
Dressler’s Syndrome
Ventricular aneurysm formation

269
Q

Dressler’s Syndrome

A

= Immune-mediated pericarditis; associated with high ESR and sometimes anti-myocardial antibodies.

Develops in a very small number of cases, 2-10 months after an MI.

Pericarditis gives sharp chest pain (different to that of MI), exacerbated by movement and lying down, relieved by sitting forwards.

O/E – classic pericardial friction rub at lower left sternal edge, with the patient leaning forwards.

Tx = high-dose aspirin/NSAIDs

It is important to recognise that pericarditis (non-immune mediated) can occur at any time following MI, and this is more common than Dressler’s syndrome.
=> Tx = opioids for pain.

270
Q

Ventricular Aneurysm formation

A

Gradual Distension of the infarcted part of the ventricular wall, which has been replaced by collagen scar.

Aneurysmal rupture will lead to cardiac tamponade and death.

271
Q

Rupture of Ventricular Wall

A

Usually occurs 2-10 days after the infarct, due to re-organisation and softening of the wall.

Leads to haemopericardium, cardiac tamponade and rapid death.

272
Q

Causes of Heart Failure

A

Common Causes
1. IHD (most common)
2. Dilated cardiomyopathy
3. HTN

Rarer Causes
* Other cardiomyopathies
* Valvular Disease
* Congenital heart disease
* Cor pulmonale
* Alcohol / drugs
* AF / heart block
* Anaemia

273
Q

What is Left Ventricular Heart Failure?

A

The left side of the heart must work harder to pump the same amount of blood.

Poor output of the impaired left ventricle leads to an increase in left atrial and pulmonary venous pressure.

=> causes pulmonary oedema, as the increased pulmonary venous pressure prevents the reuptake of fluid at the level of the capillaries.

274
Q

What is Right Ventricular Heart Failure?

A

RV output fails.

Predominantly due to lung disease (cor pulmonale) and pulmonary valvular stenosis.

This typically leads to peripheral oedema.

275
Q

What is Biventricular Failure?

A

LVF and RVF may be present at the same time, due to either:

i. Disease (e.g. IHD) affecting both sides of the heart

ii. LVF leading to pulmonary congestion which can then lead to RVF = “congestive heart failure”

276
Q

LV Failure - Presentation

A

Symptoms:
- Fatigue
- Exertional dyspnoea, Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, Orthopnoea

Signs are often very few until late stages (unless failure is acute):
- Pulmonary oedema/congestion
- 3rd heart sound, plus “Gallop rhythm” if tachycardic.
- Cardiomegaly, laterally displaced apex beat.

277
Q

RV Failure - Presentation

A

Symptoms:
- Fatigue
- Breathlessness
- Anorexia/nausea (due to hepatomegaly)
- Swollen Ankles

Signs tend to be more prominent than symptoms:
- Jugular venous distension
- Hepatomegaly
- Cardiomegaly
- Peripheral oedema
- Pleural effusions
- Ascites

278
Q

Cardiac Cachexia

A

A syndrome of life-threatening weight loss due to a combination of:

  1. Hepatomegaly (nausea and anorexia)
  2. Increased metabolic demands
279
Q

Maladaptive compensatory mechanisms in cardiac failure

A
  • Reduced CO leads to activation of the SNS and RAAS.
  • RAAS activation leads to vasoconstriction (increasing afterload) and sodium/water retention (increasing preload) thus further increasing BP and cardiac work.
  • SNS activation initially maintains cardiac output by increasing contractility, yet prolonged stimulation leads to myocyte apoptosis and necrosis.
280
Q

Adaptive mechanisms in cardiac failure

A

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) is released in response to atrial stretch, and acts to antagonise the fluid-conserving effects of aldosterone.

281
Q

New York Heart Association (NYHA) Classification of Heart Failure

A

Class I
Disease present, but no limitation of physical activity.

Class II
Dyspnoea present on ordinary activities

Class III
Marked limitation of activity (breathlessness with minimal exercise)

Class IV
Dyspnoea present at rest, any activity causes discomfort.

282
Q

Cardiac Failure - Ix

A

Bloods:
- FBC, LFT, U&Es, TFTs
- Cardiac enzymes in acute failure

B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
=> Normal level will exclude heart failure, so a good screen for breathlessness in GP

CXR:
=> Cardiomegaly and pulmonary oedema.

ECG:
=> For signs of ischaemia, hypertension or arrythmias.

Echo = gold standard for diagnosis.
=> EF <45% is diagnostic

283
Q

Management of CCF

A

Upon confirmed diagnosis of LV dysfunction:

  1. Lifestyle advice
  2. ACEi and beta-blocker are 1st line
    => Proven mortality benefit in heart failure!
  3. Add diuretic if symptomatic oedema
  4. Aldosterone antagonists (e.g. spironolactone) / ARB / hydrasalazine plus nitrate = 2nd line.
  5. Cardiac resynchronisation therapy / digoxin / ivabradine = 3rd line
284
Q

Heart failure - lifestyle advice

A

Patient education

Weight control

Dietary modification (fluid and salt restriction in severe heart failure)

Smoking cessation

Physical Activity:
=> Bedrest is important following an exacerbation
=> Low level endurance exercise is recommended in all patients with compensated heart-failure.

Vaccination – against pneumococcal disease and flu.

Sex – patients should not take Viagra.

285
Q

ACEIs in heart failure

A

Work to reverse the neurohormonal adaptation in CHF.

Low dose used and titrated upwards.

286
Q

Beta-blockers in heart failure

A

Used to block the SNS activity causing maladaptation.

Also anti-arrhythmic effects.

By reducing sympathetic drive, the symptoms initially become worse!
=> WARN THE PATIENT!!!
=> Low dose and then titrate up.

287
Q

Diuretics in heart failure

A

Mainly used for symptomatic relief of oedema, but also venodilate.

Thiazides (Bendroflumethiazide) are used in mild failure or in elderly patients, where massive diuresis may be intolerable.

Loop diuretics (furosemide) are used especially in pulmonary oedema.

Both types can cause hypokalaemia (thus can be useful to counteract the hyperkalaemia from ACEi)

Spironolactone = potassium-sparing diuretic
=> Used at low (non-diuretic) dose of 25mg to reverse the neurohormonal adaptation

288
Q

Digoxin in heart failure

A

Used in refractory heart failure.

Positive ionotrope and negative chronotrope
=> increases force of contraction but decreased heart rate.

Impairs AVN conduction and also increases vagal activity.

Contra-indicated in heart block and bradycardia.

DOSING:
- Dosage is according to eGFR (drug is 2/3rds renally cleared).
- Dosage titrated to make sure HR does not fall below 60 bpm.

NARROW THERAPEUTIC WINDOW
=> toxicity suggested by anorexia, nausea, visual disturbances, diarrhoea.

289
Q

Renal function in heart failure

A

Always monitor renal function in patients being treated for heart failure:

  • Digoxin is renally cleared
  • Thiazides are ineffective in renal failure
  • ACEis are used with caution in renal failure
  • Diuretics and ACEis can lead to hyperkalaemia.
290
Q

Acute Heart Failure - Mx

A

Sit the patient up and give high flow oxygen

IV Furosemide 40-80mg

GTN spray 2 puffs SL (unless SBP <90)

Continue with necessary history and investigations

If SBP >100 – start IV infusion of nitrate
=> Consider NIV (e.g. CPAP) if not improving

If SBP <100 – treat as cardiogenic shock, alert ICU
=> May require invasive ventilation

291
Q

What is angina?

A

episodic pain that takes place when there is increased myocardial demand (usually upon exercise), in the presence of impaired perfusion by blood.

292
Q

Causes of myocardial ischaemia

A

REDUCED PERFUSION – atheroma, embolus, thrombosis, spasm or inflammation of coronary arteries, generalised hypotension.

REDUCED BLOOD OXYGENATION – anaemia, carboxyhaemoglobinaemia

INCREASED TISSUE DEMANDS – increased CO2, cardiac hypertrophy.

293
Q

Arteriosclerosis

A

Non-specific thickening and hardening of the walls of arteries, causing a loss of contractility and elasticity and decreased blood flow.

Often due to prolonged HTN in smaller arteries

294
Q

pathophysiology of atheroma formation

A

Damage to the endothelium due to a variety of RFs => allows entry of LDLs into the intima.

The lipid is taken up by macrophages in the intima, and accumulates excessively as it is able to bypass normal receptor mediated uptake, forming a “fatty streak”

As the macrophages take up more and more lipid, they release free lipid into the intima.

The macrophages also stimulate cytokines, which lead to collagen deposition by inflammatory cells and the intimal lipid plaque becomes fibrotic.

At this stage it appears raised and yellow, and leads to pressure atrophy of the media an disruption of the elastic lamina.

Increased secretion of collagen forms a dense fibrous cap to the plaque, which is now hard and white.

Advanced plaques also show free lipid as well as lipid in macrophages

The endothelium is fragile and often ulcerates, allowing platelet aggregation.

295
Q

Stable Angina - Sx

A

Ischaemic pain of the myocardium
=> Varying from a mild ache to a severe pain that provokes sweating and fear

Pain provoked by exercise
=> Especially after meals, in the cold, and if the patient is angry/excited.

Pain fades quickly with rest / GTN

In some, the pain occurs predictably at certain levels of exertion.

May be some associated SoB

296
Q

Stable Angina - O/E

A

Usually no abnormal findings O/E

Occasionally a 4th heart sound

BP should always be taken

297
Q

What are some variants of stable angina?

A
  1. Decubitus angina
  2. Variant / Prinzmetal’s Angina
298
Q

Decubitus angina

A

angina precipitated by lying down (as there is increased venous return to the heart)
=> Associated with LVF

299
Q

Variant / Prinzmetal’s Angina

A

occurs without provocation at rest, as a result of coronary artery spasm

=> There is ST elevation during the episode, so consider if ST elevation but no troponin rise.

300
Q

Angina - Ix

A

Clinical assessment alone can be sufficient to confirm stable angina.

Exclude other causes
=> FBC, glucose, lipids, TFTs

Resting 12-lead ECG – usually normal, may be signs of previous infarction
=> Consider aortic stenosis if LVH / LBBB

Consider stress 12-lead ECG

Then use clinical assessment and ECG findings to estimate the likelihood of coronary artery disease using the NICE tool.

301
Q

Stress 12-lead ECG

A

if resting ECG is normal, use Bruce protocol on treadmill, with ST depression >1mm indicating ischaemia.

=> If positive within 6 minutes then angiography indicated (only 70% sensitive).

302
Q

Stable Angina - Mx

A

Education & lifestyle advice:
- Explain diagnosis
- Inform that the disease has a good prognosis
- Healthy balanced diet, weight loss if necessary
- Reduce alcohol, smoking cessation

Treat underlying problems and co-morbidities

Symptomatic Tx:
- SL GTN Spray = 1st line for relief
- Add beta-blocker OR RL CCB to reduce symptoms
- 2nd line = combination therapy (beta-blocker and NON-RATE LIMITING CCB) or Nicorandil

Secondary Prevention:
- Consider Statin (if QRISK high)
- Consider low-dose aspirin (75mg o.d.)

Refer to cardiology if any doubt over the diagnosis, atypical features or refractory symptoms.

303
Q

How should patients with angina be advised to use their GTN spray?

A

Patients should be advised to:

  1. Sit down, rest and spray once beneath the tongue
  2. Wait for 5 mins
  3. Spray again if there is still pain
  4. If there is still pain at 10 minutes, call 999 and unlock the door

They can also be used prior to performing activities that will provoke angina.

304
Q

How do nitrates work in managing angina?

A

Nitrates cause marked venorelaxation, thus REDUCES pre-load and afterload, and INCREASES coronary artery dilation.

=> decreases the oxygen requirement of the myocardium, and coronary vasodilation leads to increased oxygen delivery.

(Nitrates also relieve the coronary artery spasm of Prinzmetal angina. )

305
Q

How do beta-blockers work in angina?

A

beta1 selective blockers are used to reduce cardiac rate and force (this reduces myocardial oxygen consumption), with as little broncho-constrictive effect as possible.

They also have anti-arrhythmic effects (class II)

306
Q

How do CCBs work in angina?

A

Both types work to prevent smooth muscle contraction, reducing afterload and causing coronary vasodilatation.

The rate-limiting agents also act on cardiac calcium channels in the AVN to control the heart rate, exhibiting class IV anti-arrhythmic effects

CCBs are 1st line in Prinzmetal angina

307
Q

Common SEs of CCBs

A

Flushing and headache (as with all vasodilators)

Ankle swelling

Constipation

308
Q

In what conditions are murmurs of each valve area heard best?

A

Mitral
= Patient on their left hand side

Aortic
= Patient leaning forward, breath held in expiration

Pulmonary
= Breath held in inspiration

Tricuspid
= Breath held in inspiration

309
Q

Mitral Stenosis - causes

A

Post-inflammatory scarring (history of rheumatic fever in >50%)

310
Q

Mitral stenosis - pathophysiology

A
  • The LA is unable to empty, leading to pulmonary HTN.
  • The LA becomes dilated and hypertrophied
  • Pulmonary HTN leads to RHF
  • AF commonly develops due to muscular hypertrophy.
311
Q

Mitral Stenosis - Sx

A

Dyspnoea & haemoptysis – pulmonary HTN

Fatigue, weakness, abdominal / LL oedema – RHF

Palpitations – secondary AF

312
Q

Mitral Stenosis - O/E

A

Inspection:
* Malar flush – due to vascular stasis
* Small volume regular pulse (or irregularly irregular in AF)
* Raised JVP

Palpation:
* Left parasternal heave, due to RV hypertrophy (aka right ventricular heave).

Auscultation:
* “Rumbling” mid-diastolic murmur, loudest at the apex, just prior to systole.
* Also a loud S1, and “opening snap”

313
Q

Mitral stenosis - Mx

A

Treat AF appropriately

Diuretics – reduces pre-load & pulmonary venous congestion

Surgical Mx => If medical measures fail (symptoms still limiting activity)
- Balloon valvuloplasty if valve pliable / non-calcified
- Open valvotomy.

314
Q

Mitral Regurgitation - Causes

A

Post-inflammatory scarring – commonly rheumatic

Post-infarction papillary muscle dysfunction

LV dilation – i.e. in LVF, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Mitral prolapse

315
Q

Mitral Regurgitation - O/E

A

Inspection:
* Signs of LHF/RHF develop in later disease
* AF can also develop (but less common than in mitral stenosis)

Palpation:
* Laterally displaced apex beat
* Systolic thrill

Auscultation:
* Pansystolic murmur at the apex, radiating to the axilla.
* Soft S1
* Prominent third heart sound (due to sudden rush of blood into dilated LV in diastole if decompensated).

316
Q

Mitral Regurgitation - Mx

A

Treat AF
Treat Heart failure

Surgery if Sx are deteriorating to prevent irreversible LV impairment
=> Generally considered at NYHA grade 2

317
Q

Aortic Stenosis - causes

A

Calcification of congenital bicuspid valve

Post-inflammatory scarring – rheumatic fever

Senile calcific degeneration – no known cause

318
Q

Aortic Stenosis - pathophysiology

A

Progressive outflow obstruction leads to LV hypertrophy, which may lead to angina.

There is a risk of sudden cardiac death due to arrythmias

Without surgical intervention prognosis is poor with death in 2-3 years.

319
Q

Aortic Stenosis - Sx

A

Exercise induced syncope

Angina

Dyspnoea

320
Q

Aortic Stenosis - O/E

A

Inspection:
* Small pulse volume, slow rising carotid pulse
* Narrow pulse pressure (e.g. 110/95) as stroke volume small
* Signs of LVF then CCF

Palpation:
* Normal apex beat
* May be systolic thrill in aortic area

Auscultation:
* Ejection systolic murmur with a crescendo-decrescendo characteristic.
* Best heard in the aortic valve area
* Can radiate to carotids
* S2 is soft

321
Q

Aortic Stenosis - Mx

A

Prompt valve replacement if symptomatic

Percutaneous valvuloplasty if unfit for surgery.

322
Q

Aortic Regurgitation - causes

A
  • Post-inflammatory scarring
  • Infective endocarditis
  • Age-related calcification
  • Dilation of the aortic root
323
Q

Aortic Regurgitation - Sx

A

Usually asymptomatic until acute left ventricular failure.

Symptoms may include angina (due to low diastolic BP) and dyspnoea.

324
Q

Aortic Regurgitation - O/E

A

Inspection:
* Bounding/collapsing pulse
* Wide pulse pressure (e.g. 140/40)
* Signs of LVF

Auscultation:
* Early diastolic murmur with a “decrescendo” quality.

Specific Signs in severe disease:
* Quinke’s sign – capillary pulsation in nail beds
* De Musset’s sign – head nodding with each heartbeat
* Duroziez’s sign – murmur on the femoral arteries if pressure applied distally.
* Pistol shot femorals – sharp bang in time with the heartbeat if femorals auscultated.

325
Q

Aortic Regurgitation - Mx

A

Aim to replace valve before there is significant LV dysfunction (indicated if there are increasing Sx, cardiomegaly, ECG deterioration).

326
Q

Tricuspid Valve Disease - signs

A

STENOSIS
- Symptoms of RHF
- Signs of pre-systolic liver thrill and mid-diastolic murmur.

REGURGITATION
- Symptoms of RHF
- Signs of systolic liver thrill and pan-systolic murmur.
- Classic in cor pulmonale.

327
Q

Pulmonary Valve Disease

A

STENOSIS
- Symptoms of RHF
- Signs of RV heave and ejection systolic murmur

REGURGITATION:
- Usually asymptomatic, with a diastolic murmur.
- Can occur secondary to pulmonary HTN

328
Q

Systolic Murmurs

A

Aortic Stenosis
Mitral Regurgitation

Pulmonary Stenosis
Tricuspid Regurgitation
VSD/ASD

329
Q

Diastolic Murmurs

A

Aortic Regurgitation
Mitral Stenosis

Pulmonary regurgitation

330
Q

Continuous murmurs

A

= continuous throughout systole and diastole

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

331
Q

Eisenmenger’s Syndrome - causes

A

occurs when there is a right to left shunt across a structural heart lesion, bypassing the lungs.

Occurs due to VSD, ASD or PDA
=> Can develop after 1-2 years with large defects or in adulthood with small defects.

332
Q

Eisenmenger’s Syndrome - pathophysiology

A

Initially left-to-right shunt as pressure is higher in LV => blood still travels to the lungs

Over time the extra blood flowing into the right side of the heart and the lungs increases the pressure in the pulmonary vessels.
=> PULMONARY HTN.

When the pulmonary pressure exceeds the systemic pressure, the shunt switches to right-to-left.

This causes deoxygenated blood to bypass the lungs and enter the body => CYANOSIS

333
Q

Eisenmenger’s Syndrome - O/E

A

RV heave
Clubbing
Cyanosis

Loud S2 (due to forceful shutting of the pulmonary valve)

A murmur depending on where the shunt is:
- Atrial septal defect: mid-systolic, crescendo-decrescendo murmur loudest at the upper left sternal border
- Ventricular septal defect: pan-systolic murmur loudest at the left lower sternal border
- Patent ductus arteriosus: continuous crescendo-decrescendo “machinery” murmur

334
Q

Eisenmenger’s Syndrome - Mx

A

Ideally the underlying defect should be managed optimally or corrected surgically

Once significant pulmonary HTN has developed, the structural defects are considered irreversible and the only Tx is heart and lung transplant.

335
Q

What should be considered with a fever and a new murmur?

A

INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS until proved otherwise

336
Q

What is IE?

Who does it affect?

A

= an infection of the endocardial surface of the heart.

Patients with a structural abnormality of the heart (e.g. valve disease, valve replacements, congenital cardiac defects)
=> insidious onset, caused by normal GI/skin commensals

Patients with structurally normal heart valves (often IVDU)
=> Acute, fulminating presentation; Pathogenic organisms that directly invade the valve

337
Q

Common bacteria involved in IE

A

Staphylococcus viridans = most common

Staph aureus / Strep epidermis both also seen

338
Q

IE - RFs

A
  • Previous IE
  • Acquired valvular heart disease
  • Valve replacement
  • Structural congenital heart disease (excl. ASD or fully-repaired VSD/PDA)
339
Q

IE - symptoms

A

Classical presentation = acute febrile illness plus a new murmur.

However, may present as insidious illness (malaise, lethargy, anorexia, arthralgia) and thus high index of suspicion is required.

Other Presentations may be distal infarctions or AKI due to immune complex deposition.

340
Q

IE - O/E

A

Fever + changing / new heart murmur
Microscopic haematuria
Splenomegaly

Osler’s Nodes
Roth’s Spots
Janeway Lesions
Clubbing
Splinter haemorrhages

Petechial rash
Digital infarcts

341
Q

IE - Ix

A

Bloods:
=> FBC, CRP/ESR, U&E
=> Cultures – 3 sets at different sites

Urinalysis:
=> Look for proteinuria and microscopic haematuria

ECG:
=> At regular intervals – can get MI due to emboli or conduction defects.

CXR:
=> To look for evidence of heart failure or abscess / emboli

Transthoracic Echocardiography:
=> Should be done in all patients with ?IE
=> Negative echo does not rule out endocarditis.

342
Q

Duke’s Criteria

A

MAJOR
Positive culture (typical organism in 2 cultures)

Endocardial involvement on echo (vegetations, abscess, new regurgitation)

MINOR
Predisposition
Fever >38o
Vascular / immunological signs
Culture / echo positivity not sufficient for “major” criteria


Diagnosis can be made if there are 2 major or 1 major and 3 minor criteria.

343
Q

Acute Infective Endocarditis

A

Bacterial proliferation in the valve leads to necrosis of the valve tissue, with rapid perforation of the valves.

Leads to acute cardiac failure.

344
Q

Subacute Infective Endocarditis

A

As the infective organisms are poorly virulent, there is very gradual onset and destruction of the valves

Stimulation of thrombus formation leads to systemic embolization, and the persistent low grade inflammation leads to immunological phenomena

345
Q

IE - complications

A

Systemic Emboli (or pulmonary abscess in right-sided disease)

Valvular incompetence and CCF

Glomerulonephritis

346
Q

IE - management

A

If suspected, consult a microbiologist early.

EMPIRICAL Tx:
- Amoxicillin and gentamicin IV for 4 weeks
- Different regimen if prosthetic valve endocarditis or penicillin allergic.

Subsequent therapy is dependent on the organisms and sensitivities

347
Q

IE - prevention

A

ABX prophylaxis is no longer recommended for people undergoing dental procedures (no evidence of any benefit)

Patients at risk of infective endocarditis should be:
=> Advised to maintain good oral hygiene;
=> Told how to recognise signs of infective endocarditis, and advised when to seek expert advice.

348
Q

Blunt cardiac trauma

A

=> cardiac contusion

can give ECG changes similar to MI

Management is conservative.

349
Q

Cardiac Tamponade - signs

A

Cardiac Tamponade is suggested by Beck’s triad:

  1. Hypotension
  2. Raised JVP
  3. Muffled heart sounds
350
Q

Penetrating cardiac trauma

A

Complex investigation and management (often surgical) will be required.

CXR is vital due to risk of damage within the thoracic cavity, and should be upright if possible

Can cause cardiac tamponade

351
Q

Cardiac Tamponade - Ix and Mx

A

Ix:
- CXR may show cardiomegaly with or without an epicardial fat pad sign suggesting a pericardial effusion.
- Echo = 1st line for diagnosis (diagnosis and approach planning for pericardiocentesis)
- CT provides valuable information about the possible nature of pericardial effusions based on the attenuation measurements

Tx:
- Time is bought with pericardiocentesis, prior to sternotomy and repair.

352
Q

Myxoma

Signs, diagnosis & management

A

= Most common myocardial tumour

Benign, usually sporadic

Signs:
- Mimic either IE or mitral stenosis

Ix:
- Confirmed on echocardiogram

Tx:
- Excision

353
Q

Constrictive Pericarditis

A

Pericardial Inflammation can result in constriction of the whole pericardium.

Causes - TB, RA, Pericardial trauma / radiotherapy

Clinical signs:
- Pulmonary and systemic congestion (as it affects all 4 heart chambers)

Tx:
- Excision of whole pericardium

354
Q

Lifestyle limitations post-ACS

A

Work:
- May return to office work after two months
- Certain occupations (e.g. pilots, divers) should not return to work
- Heavy manual labourers should seek lighter work

Travel:
- Avoid air travel for 2 months

Sex:
- Avoid intercourse for 1 month

Driving:
- The DVLA do not need to be notified
- If successfully treated with PCI, driving can continue after 1 week
- Otherwise driving may recommence after 4 weeks

355
Q

Driving Limitations with angina

A

The DVLA do not need to be notified.

Driving can continue unless angina occurs at rest / whilst driving / with emotion.

Recommence when adequate symptom control gained.

356
Q

Driving Limitations with AAA

A

Notify the DVLA if >6cm

Annual review to permit licensing, will be disqualified if >6.5cm

357
Q

Cardiac conditions and HGV Drivers

A

In general, all CV diagnoses lead to revocation of licenses for 6 weeks
=> 3 months post-CABG

Re-licensing can then be permitted if exercise / other functional requirements are met

358
Q

Pathophysiology of pulmonary oedema

A

Occurs due to an increase in fluid in the alveolar wall (pulmonary interstitium), which then affects the interstitial spaces.

359
Q

Pulmonary Oedema - Clinical Features

A

Dyspnoea

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea

Orthopnoea:
- Due to increased venous return on lying down
- Can be measured objectively by number of pillows required to sleep

Cough:
=> Producing frothy, blood-stained sputum

360
Q

Presentation of acute pulmonary oedema

A

Severe dyspnoea

Productive cough

Anxiety and sweating

Cheyne-stokes respiration in LVF:
=> Cycling apnoea / hyperventilation due to impaired response of respiratory centre to CO2

361
Q

Pulmonary Oedema - O/E

A

Tachypnoea

Tachycardia, with gallop rhythm

Raised JVP

Peripheral shutdown

Auscultation:
- Widespread course crackles / reduced breath sounds
- Wheeze can also be associated with pulmonary oedema and is referred to as ‘cardiac asthma’.

362
Q

Pulmonary Oedema - Ix

A

ABG:
- Initially T1RF due to hyperventilation
- Later T2RF due to impaired gas exchange.

Bloods:
- FBC, U&E, glucose, D-dimer, CRP

CXR:
- Diffuse haziness (“bat wings”)
- Kerley B lines
- Upper zone vessel enlargement
- Cardiomegaly (HF)
- Pleural effusions

ECG:
- Tachycardia
- Arrythmia
- Signs of cardiac cause

Echo:
- To demonstrate a cardiac cause

363
Q

Causes of pulmonary oedema

A

MOST COMMON = LVF

Increased capillary pressure:
- Cardiogenic – LVF, valve disease, arrythmias, VSD, cardiomyopathies, negatively inotropic drugs.
- Pulmonary venous obstruction
- Iatrogenic fluid overload

Increased capillary permeability:
- ARDS
- Infection – pneumonia/ sepsis
- DIC
- Inhaled toxins

Reduced plasma oncotic failure:
- Renal / Liver failure – hypoalbuminaemia

Lymphatic Obstruction:
- Tumour / parasitic infection

Others:
- Neurogenic – raised ICP / head injury
- PE
- Altitude

364
Q

Pulmonary HTN in pulmonary oedema

A

Pulmonary HTN secondary to prolonged pulmonary oedema leads to irreversible structural changes to pulmonary arteries.

This in turn puts more pressure on the right ventricle of the heart, which eventually leads to RV hypertrophy and RHF => “cor pulmonale”

365
Q

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

A

= a type of respiratory failure characterized by rapid onset of widespread inflammation in the lungs

Due to the pulmonary response to either direct (inhalation) or indirect (blood-borne) insults, leading to non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema

366
Q

Causes of ARDS

A

DIRECT
Aspiration of gastric contents
Smoke / toxin inhalation
Pneumonia
Near-drowning

INDIRECT
Sepsis
Multiple trauma
Pancreatitis
Transfusion reactions
Anaphylaxis
Drug reactions

367
Q

Pathophysiology of ARDS

A

Neutrophil infiltration of pulmonary capillaries leading to increased capillary permeability and protein-rich pulmonary oedema.

There is also damage to type 2 pneumocytes, leading to surfactant depletion and alveolar collapse due to lack of lung compliance.

368
Q

ARDS - clinical features

A

SOB, tachypnoea, cyanosis

Hypoxaemia

Absence of signs of raised right atrial pressure

Diffuse bilateral infiltrates on CXR

Impaired lung compliance.

369
Q

ARDS - Mx

A

These patients will often be admitted to ICU for respiratory / circulatory support.

Sit the patient up with 100% oxygen

Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (e.g. CPAP) used initially
=> BUT most will require mechanical ventilation

IV nitrates titrated upwards until clinical improvement seen (or drop in SBP)

IV furosemide (40-80mg)

IV morphine + anti-emetic

Aminophylline if bronchospasm also present

The patient will then be kept on bed rest with continuous monitoring, and investigation / Tx for underlying cause.

370
Q

Haemophilia A

  • what is the deficiency?
  • what is the mode of inheritance?
A

Factor VIII deficiency

X-linked recessive inheritance (but a high rate of new mutations)

371
Q

Haemophilia B

A

Factor IX deficiency

(Also known as Christmas disease)

X-linked recessive inheritance

372
Q

Haemophilia A/B - presentation

A

Major bleeds following minor trauma

Recurrent haemarthroses leading to crippling arthropathies

Compartment syndrome / nerve palsies can develop due to pressure effects.

Women can be CARRIERS and have a milder version of the disease.

373
Q

Haemophilia A and B - Ix

A
  • FBC
  • Clotting screen – raised APTT
  • Fibrinogen activity

Upon contacting haematology:
=> vWF
=> Intrinsic factor assays:
- Low factor VIII or IX (depending on type)

374
Q

Haemophilia A and B - Mx

A

Avoid NSAIDs and IM injections

Minor bleeding:
- Compression & elevation
- Desmopressin (recombinant ADH) – raises factor VIII levels and may be sufficient

Major bleeding (e.g. haemarthrosis):
- Recombinant factor VIII / IX to raised factor levels to 50% of normal

Life-threatening bleeds:
- Raise levels to 100% of normal

375
Q

Von Willebrand’s Disease

A

= the absence or abnormal function of vWF:

TYPE 1 – most common and least severe; due to reduced levels of vWF;
=> bleeding is mostly only a problem if after surgery/ injury/ dental surgery

TYPE 2 – vWF does not work properly

TYPE 3 – most severe and rarest; very low or no vWF;
=> Bleeding from the mouth, nose and gut is common
=> Also joint and muscle bleeds after an injury.

376
Q

von Willebrand’s Disease - Presentation

A

This gives symptoms of platelet type disorder:

=> Mucocutaneous bleeding - Epistaxis / menorrhagia / petechial rash

Haemarthroses are rare

377
Q

Mode of inheritance of von Willebrand’s disease

A

autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant

=> Recessive – type 3 / complete absence of detectable vWF (20%)

=> Dominant – type 1 or 2; less severe depletion of vWF (80%)

378
Q

Von Willebrand’s disease - Mx

A

Expert Mx is required:

  • Transexamic acid for mild bleeding
  • Desmopressin / recombinant factor VIII for more severe bleeds (vWF has a secondary role of binding factor VIII to prevent destruction, so low factor VIII levels co-exist).
379
Q

What are causes of clotting factor deficiency

A
  • Haemophilia
  • Liver disease
  • DIC
  • Vitamin K deficiency
  • Anticoagulant drugs
380
Q

Bleeding Disorder Assessment - Hx

A

Site of bleed:
=> Muscle / joint bleeds – coagulation issue
=> Purpura / epistaxis / menorrhagia / GI haemorrhage – platelet issue
=> Recurrent bleeds at one site – local endothelial abnormality

Duration of Hx / FHx
=> Congenital vs. acquired

Seriousness?
=> Spontaneous bleeds indicate a more serious issue than post-traumatic bleeds

Surgical Hx
=> Bleeding that starts immediately after => suggests platelet issue
=> Bleeding that starts several hours later => suggests coagulation issue

PMHx:
=> Renal / liver failure ?

DHx:
=> Anticoagulants
=> Steroids / NSAIDs

381
Q

Bleeding Disorder Assessment - O/E

A

Skin:
=> Any bruises / purpura / telangiectasia?

Joints:
=> Any evidence of haemarthrosis?

Abdomen:
=> Splenomegaly?
=> Evidence of hepatic dysfunction?

382
Q

Secondary Haemostasis

A

= the process of stabilisation of the soft haemostatic plug through a complex interaction between platelet membrane, enzymes and coagulation factors

383
Q

Clotting Factor I and Ia

A

I = Fibrinogen
Ia = Fibrin

384
Q

Clotting Factor II and IIa

A

II = prothrombin
IIa = thrombin

385
Q

Coagulation cascade

A

Clotting factors are primarily synthesised in the liver, and many act as serine proteases to activate other factors.

INTRINSIC or EXTRINSIC pathway can be activated, but both activate a final common pathway that leads to production of fibrin and thus a thrombus can be formed.

At the same time, thrombin, in the presence of calcium ions, activates factor VIII which stabilises the fibrin clot by cross-linking fibrin molecules.

386
Q

Sources of vitamin K

A

Found in leafy green vegetables, dairy products and soya beans.

Intestinal flora can also synthesise many forms of vitamin

387
Q

Vitamin K - actions

What can cause deficiency and what can this lead to?

A

VitK is a co-factor necessary for the production of some clotting factors.
=> Factor II, VII, IX and X

Deficiency of VitK thus leads to clotting factor deficiencies, leading to an increased PT and haemorrhage.

Deficiencies arise from:
- Malabsorptive conditions (VitK = fat soluble vitamin)
- Cholestatic jaundice (no bile salts)
- ABX (gut flora disturbances).

388
Q

Physiological Inhibitors of Coagulation

A

Anti-thrombin III – serine protease inhibitor (potentiated by heparin)

Activated protein C – also generated by vitamin K, and activated by thrombin.
=> APC acts with the co-factor protein S to induce fibrinolysis
=> It destroys factor V and VIII, reducing further thrombin generation and inhibits stabilisation of the fibrin clot.

389
Q

Fibrinolysis

A

Plasminogen is converted to plasmin by tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), produced by the endothelium.

Many mediators, including thrombin and APC, stimulate the release of t-PA.

Plasmin is a serine protease that breaks down fibrinogen and fibrin into fibrin degradation products (FDPs) – e.g. D-dimer
=> D-dimer presence in the plasma thus indicates that the coagulation mechanism has been activated.

390
Q

Lab tests for primary haemostasis

A

FBC and Blood Film – platelet number and morphology

Platelet function tests – e.g. PFA/closure time, platelet aggregometry.

Complex platelet test by specialist

Von Willebrand factor assays

391
Q

Lab tests for secondary haemostasis

A

CLOTTING SCREEN
=> PT (extrinsic)
=> APTT (intrinsic).
=> INR
=> APTT ratio
=> derived fibrinogen

392
Q

Prothrombin Time (PT)

A

Tests the extrinsic pathway, by addition of a tissue factor substitute to the patient’s plasma.

Prolonged in:
- Liver disease
- Patients on warfarin

393
Q

Activated partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)

A

Addition of a surface activator to the plasma

Tests the intrinsic (contact) pathway

Used for monitoring of unfractionated heparin (not required for LMWH)

394
Q

INR

A

Ratio of patient’s PT to a normal control whilst using an international reference preparation (standardises laboratories worldwide)

0.9 – 1.1 = normal range

Used for warfarin dosing

395
Q

Thrombin Time:

A

Addition of thrombin to the patient’s plasma

Prolonged with:
- Fibrinogen deficiency / abnormal function
- Inhibitors such as heparin

396
Q

Primary Haemostasis

A

= Characterised by vascular contraction, platelet adhesion and formation of a soft haemostatic plug.

397
Q

How does the endothelium prevent platelet aggregation in homeostatic conditions?

A

when the endothelium is in continuity it secretes mediators such as prostacyclin (PGI2) and nitric oxide that prevent platelet adhesion.

398
Q

How does endothelial damage initiate primary haemostasis?

A

Vasoconstriction => slows blood flow, enhances platelet adhesion and activation.

Exposed collagen and vWF => triggers platelet adhesion

Platelet adhesion leads to degranulation of the platelets, releasing ADP

ADP stimulates further platelet aggregation at the site

Platelets also synthesise the prostaglandin thromboxane A2 (TXA2), which causes both vasoconstriction and further aggregation.

Receptors on the platelet surface then activate the coagulation cascade, which generates fibrin to form a fibrin/platelet thrombus (= soft haemostatic plug).

This process is short-lived and the weak plug is easily sheared off.

399
Q

Aspirin antiplatelet MOA

A

Low-dose (75mg) aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX enzyme, preventing conversion of arachidonic acid to endoperoxides such as PGI2 and TXA2.

After administration of aspirin, the nuclei of endothelial cells are quickly able to secrete mRNA for PGI2 production.

The anucleate platelets cannot form TXA2, so levels decrease until new platelets are formed (in approximately 7 days).

Low-doses of aspirin every 24-48 hours thus decrease synthesis of TXA2, without massively affecting PGI2 production.

400
Q

MOA of clopidogrel

A

can be used as an alternative or an adjunct to aspirin

It works as an ADP receptor antagonist, thus preventing glycoprotein expression and platelet aggregation.

401
Q

Thrombocytopaenia - Causes

A

REDUCED PRODUCTION
Aplastic Anaemia
Marrow Infiltration
Marrow Suppression

EXCESS DESTRUCTION
Immune thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)
Other autoimmune causes – SLE, CLL, viruses
Thrombotic thrombocytopaenic purpura (TTP)
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)
Sequestration – hypersplenism

402
Q

Thrombocytopaenia - presentation

A

Bruising / purpura of the skin

Epistaxis / menorrhagia

Major haemorrhage is very rare

Physical examination is generally normal.

403
Q

Immune Thrombocytopaenic Purpura

A

= isolated thrombocytopaenia without an isolated cause.

Presentation:
- In children, ITP is usually acute and self-limiting – following a virus or immunisation.
- In adults, the presentation is usually less acute, classically in women with other autoimmune disorders.

404
Q

Immune Thrombocytopaenic Purpura - Ix

A

FBC – only thrombocytopaenia seen

Clotting screen – to r/o other clotting disorders

Bone marrow examination:
- Not usually performed in children
- Normal / increased megakaryocyte numbers found, otherwise normal

Platelet autoantibodies
=> Positive in 70% of patients, but does not confirm diagnosis.

405
Q

Immune Thrombocytopaenic Purpura - Mx

A

Children are not usually treated.
=> If clinically necessary, they may be treated with prednisolone or IVIG

Chronic thrombocytopaenia is rate, and requires specialist management.

In adults:
=> corticosteroid are 1st line
=> IVIG can be used if a rapid rise in platelets is required
=> Splenectomy may be 2nd line

Platelet transfusions are reserved for severe haemorrhage.

406
Q

What hormones does the anterior pituitary synthesise and secrete?

A

Growth Hormone (GH)

Prolactin

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)

Thyroid-stimulating Hormone (TSH)

Gonadotrophin Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

407
Q

What hormones does the posterior pituitary store and secrete?

A

stores and secretes hormones that were produced in the hypothalamus (connected by the pituitary stalk)

Anti-diuretic Hormone (ADH)
Oxytocin

408
Q

Pituitary Adenoma

A

Benign tumour of the glandular tissue (BUT can be life-threatening due to mass effects or secretory actions)

Size:
- >1cm = macroadenoma
- <1cm = microadenoma

Tumours are classified as “functioning” or “non-functioning” (silent) on the basis of whether they are secretory or not.

409
Q

Non-functioning Pituitary Adenoma -Presentation

A

Bitemporal Hemianopia – due to compression of the optic chiasm

Ocular Palsies – due to compression of CN III, IV or VI

Hypopituitarism – destroys the normal functioning tissue

Signs of raised ICP

Hypothalamic compression symptoms – altered appetite, thirst, sleep/wake cycle

410
Q

Functioning Pituitary Adenoma - Presentation

A

Acromegaly – excessive GH production

Hyperprolactinaemia – excessive prolactin production

Cushing’s Syndrome – excessive ACTH production

Functioning Adenomas can also cause any of the mass effects.

Many tumours can secrete multiple hormones, however tumours producing TSH / LH / FSH are very rare.

411
Q

Hyperprolactinaemia

A

Prolactin stimulates milk production in the breast, and also inhibits GnRH and gonadotropin production.

Clinical Features:
- Gynaecomastia
- Galactorrhoea in females (spontaneous and expressible)
- Oligo/amenorrhoea
- Decreased libido
- Subfertility
- Arrested puberty in younger patients

In the long-term, osteoporosis may develop due to androgen/oestrogen deficiency.

412
Q

Causes of hyperprolactinaemia

A
  • Pituitary Adenoma
  • Breast stimulation / stress
  • Drug induced
  • Idiopathic
413
Q

Pituitary Adenoma - Ix

A

pituitary MRI

414
Q

Pituitary Adenoma - Mx

A

Dopamine Agonists are 1st line (dopamine inhibits prolactin release)
=> Lifelong Ropinirole / bromocriptine
=> These reduce tumour bulk without the surgical risks
=> Sx usually recur on stopping medication

Surgery is 2nd line if medical Tx ineffective

415
Q

Excess growth hormone

A

GH stimulates skeletal and soft tissue growth

Excess GH can cause:
=> Gigantism in children (if prior to epiphyseal plate closure)
=> Acromegaly in adults

416
Q

Causes of acromegaly

A

Acromegaly is almost exclusively due to pituitary tumours

Rarer causes – paraneoplastic release of GH from non-pituitary tumours.

417
Q

Acromegaly - Ix

A

Raised IGF-1 level
- Used as this level correlates with GH levels over the past 24 hours (GH levels themselves are too variable)
- Mainly used for monitoring rather than diagnosis

Glucose tolerance test:
- Normally will suppress GH secretion
- In acromegaly, concentrations are >2mcg/mL at 2 hours.

418
Q

Acromegaly - Symptoms

A

Change in appearance
Increased hand/foot size
Tiredness
Excessive sweating
Poor libido
Symptoms of diabetes
Headaches
Visual Deterioration
Symptoms of hypopituitarism

419
Q

Acromegaly - Signs

A

Protruding mandible
Prominent supraorbital ridge
Interdental separation
Large tongues
Spade-like hands/feet
Tight rings
Visual field defects
HTN

420
Q

Acromegaly - Mx

A

Somatostatin analogues may be used to shrink the tumour
=> Short-term prior to surgery
=> Long-term if surgical removal not possible.

Surgical Mx = via transphenoidal approach

421
Q

Cushing’s Syndrome - causes

A
  • Exogenous administration of steroids (most common)
  • Cushing’s disease = Increased ACTH from the pituitary
  • Ectopic ACTH (non-pituitary ACTH-secreting tumour – classically small cell lung cancer)
  • Excess adrenal cortisol production
422
Q

How does Cushing’s Syndrome differ from Cushing’s disease?

A

Cushing’s syndrome = umbrella term describing the symptoms of increased circulating glucocorticoid.

Cushing’s disease = specifically due to increased ACTH from the pituitary

423
Q

Cushing’s Syndrome - Presentation

A

SYMPTOMS
Central weight gain
Change of appearance
Depression
Insomnia
Poor libido
Thin skin/easy bruising
Excess hair growth / acne
Diabetes symptoms

SIGNS
Moon face
Frontal balding
Striae
HTN
Pathological Fractures
“Buffalo hump”
Proximal myopathy

(There may also be hypokalaemia due to the mineralocorticoid activity of cortisol)

424
Q

Cushing’s Syndrome - Ix

A
  1. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
    => Normal = negative feedback leads to cortisol level <50 mmol/L
    => Cushing’s = failure to suppress cortisol secretion
  2. If abnormal, localisation tests are required:
    => Plasma ACTH – if undetected, adrenal cause is likely => adrenal CT
    => If ACTH is detectable, pituitary vs. ectopic sources must be separated.
  3. High-dose dexamethasone suppression test:
    - Complete / partial suppression indicates Cushing’s disease (the pituitary retains some feedback control) => MRI pituitary
    - No suppression indicates an ectopic source => CXR/find primary tumour
425
Q

What is Panhypopituitarism?

How can it present?

How is it diagnosed?

A

= Defective production of all pituitary hormones

PRESENTATION
- Fatigue, myalgia, hypotension – GH/ ACTH deficiency
- Diabetes insipidus – ADH deficiency
- Hypothyroidism – TSH deficiency

Can have pituitary or hypothalamic causes

DIAGNOSIS
- Pituitary hormones = low
- Effector gland hormones = low
- Low response to stimulation tests
- Imaging to localise pathology

426
Q

Panhypopituitarism - causes

A

Pituitary causes:
- Obliteration of the pituitary by primary/metastatic tumour
- Surgical removal / irradiation of pituitary
- Ischaemic necrosis due to hypotensive shock

Hypothalamic causes:
- Destruction of hypothalamus by primary tumour/ infection/ sarcoid/ infection.

427
Q

Posterior pituitary disease

A

Occur mainly as a result of damage to the hypothalamus (e.g. tumour invasion or infarction).

Failure of ADH production leads to Cranial diabetes insipidus (as opposed to nephrogenic DI)

Excessive ADH production leads to SIADH

428
Q

Diabetes Insipidus

A

Failure of ADH production leads to cranial diabetes insipidus

=> Presents with polyuria and polydipsia, hypernatraemia

Ix:
- Low urine osmolality
- High serum osmolality
- Water deprivation test

Mx = treat underlying cause; desmopressin (synthetic ADH) can be used in cranial DI.

429
Q

Causes of SIADH

A

Post-operative from major surgery

Infection, particularly atypical pneumonia and lung abscesses

Head injury

Medications (thiazide diuretics, carbamazepine, vincristine, cyclophosphamide, antipsychotics, SSRIs, NSAIDSs,)

Malignancy, particularly small cell lung cancer

Meningitis

Excess pituitary secretion

430
Q

What is SIADH?

A

Excessive ADH production results in excessive water reabsorption in the collecting ducts.

This water dilutes the sodium in the blood so you end up hyponatraemia

The excessive water reabsorption is not usually significant enough to cause a fluid overload, therefore you end up with a “euvolaemic hyponatraemia”.

The urine becomes more concentrated as less water is excreted by the kidneys therefore patients with SIADH have a “high urine osmolality” and “high urine sodium”.

431
Q

SIADH - Ix

A
  • Assess Fluid status – euvolaemia
  • U&Es – hyponatraemia
  • Urine sodium and osmolality will be high
432
Q

SIADH - Mx

A

Treat cause;

Fluid restriction (0.5 – 1 L);

Correct sodium SLOWLY (~10 mmol/day)

Potentially ADH receptor blockers or Demeclocycline (a tetracycline antibiotic that inhibits ADH)

433
Q

Goitre

A

= painless enlargement of thyroid gland. It can be defined by certain characteristics:

  1. Diffuse vs. nodular – pattern of swelling
  2. Simple vs. toxic – actively secreting thyroid hormone
  3. Benign vs. malignant
434
Q

Diffuse Goitre - causes

A

Physiological
- Puberty
- Pregnancy

Autoimmune
- Grave’s disease
- Hashimoto’s disease

Thyroiditis
- Subacute (De-Quervain’s) thyroiditis
- Riedel’s thyroiditis

Endemic
- Iodine deficiency

Drugs
- Anti-thyroid drugs
- Lithium
- Iodine excess
- Amiodarone

435
Q

Nodular Goitre - causes

A

Multinodular
- Toxic multinodular goitre
- Subacute thyroiditis

Solitary Nodule:
- Follicular adenoma
- Benign nodule
- Thyroid malignancy
- Lymphoma
- Metastasis
- OR one prominent nodule from a multinodular goitre

Infiltration (rare):
- TB
- Sarcoid

436
Q

Goitre - Ix

A

FBC – assess for related anaemia

ESR – may indicate thyroiditis / autoimmune disease

TFTs

Thyroid autoantibodies

CT neck and thorax – if pressure Sx

USS – to distinguish between solid and cystic masses (not required in all cases)

Fine needle aspiration for cytology (FNAC) – if concern regarding malignancy.

437
Q

Goitre - Mx

A

Mx depends on whether the patient is hyperthyroid or hypothyroid.

In a euthyroid patient, Tx is not required for a non-malignant nodule unless it is causing pressure Sx.

438
Q

Hyperthyroidism / thyrotoxicosis - causes

A

COMMON
Grave’s Disease
Toxic multinodular Goitre

LESS COMMON
Solitary Toxic Adenoma
Thyroiditis
Drug-induced - Amiodarone; Excess levothyroxine

Exercise Iodine intake
Hashitoxicosis (the hyperthyroid phase of Hashimoto’s disease)

RARE
Secondary causes:
- TSH secreting pituitary adenoma
- Resistance to thyroid hormone

439
Q

Grave’s Disease - pathophyisiology

A

IgG autoantibodies stimulate thyroid follicular cells, out of the normal pituitary feedback mechanism => HYPERTHYROIDISM

440
Q

Toxic multinodular Goitre / Solitary Toxic Adenoma

A

Both causes of hyperthyroidism

hyperactive nodule(s) develop, outside of TSH control

441
Q

Hyperthyroidism - symptoms

A

Anxiety / irritability
Heat intolerance
Increased appetite
Palpitations
Weight loss
Tremor
Diarrhoea
Fatigue / weakness

Can rarely present with thyroid crisis/thyroid “storm”

442
Q

Hyperthyroidism - Signs

which signs are specific to Grave’s disease?

A

Lid retraction / lid lag
Goitre
Systolic HTN
Tachycardia / AF
Tremor
Hyperreflexia
Warm peripheries
Proximal Weakness
Pre-tibial myxoedema

Grave’s Ophthalmopathy*
Acropachy*

443
Q

Grave’s Ophthalmopathy

A

Lagophthalmos – inability to close eyes completely

Exophthalmos / proptosis – bulging eyes

Ophthalmoplegia – especially affecting upwards and lateral gaze

Periorbital oedema

!! Graves’ Ophthalmopathy is much more common in smokers.

444
Q

Thyroid crisis / “storm” - presentation and management

A

Generally occurs in periods of stress (infection, surgery, childbirth) in people with untreated/uncontrolled hyperthyroidism.
- Hyperpyrexia
- Severe tachycardia
- Profuse sweating
- Confusion / psychosis
- If untreated, coma and death

Treat with:
- Propylthiouracil, propranolol, sodium iodide, high dose steroids
- Supportive measures

445
Q

Hyperthyroidism - Ix

A

TSH – fully suppressed (unless in rare cases of pituitary adenoma)

Free T3/4 – elevated
=> Typically both elevated, in rare cases there can be T3-toxicosis with T4 within reference range.

TSH receptor antibody (TRAb) – sensitive and specific for Grave’s disease

Thyroid Peroxidase (TPO) is not elevated in all Grave’s patients, so no longer routinely used.

Technetium uptake scan – if TRAb not present
=> Diffuse pattern of uptake in Grave’s disease
=> One or more “hot” nodules in toxic multinodular goitre
=> Reduced/absent uptake in thyroiditis

Radioiodine scans can be used, but are less common

CT/MRI Orbit – to assess extent of eye disease in Grave’s

446
Q

Management of hyperthyroidism in primary care

A

Non-selective beta-blocker – e.g. propranolol
=> 20-40 mg t.d.s for rapid relief of symptoms
=> May be the only Tx required for cases of thyroiditis

Refer to specialist endocrinologist
=> Options include antithyroid drugs, radioactive iodine therapy, surgical management.

447
Q

Management of hyperthyroidism in secondary care (endocrinologist)

A

Patients with Grave’s disease are usually offered an intermediate course of antithyroid therapy (titration vs. block and replace)

In other pathologies, antithyroid drugs control but do not cure the disease:
=> Patients are offered a choice of radio-active iodine (RAI) therapy or surgical management.

  • RAI generally first line
  • Drugs will always be used prior to RAI / surgery to render the patient euthyroid before definitive Tx.
  • Antithyroid drugs may be used long-term if these therapies are unsuitable.
448
Q

Different regimens of antithyroid drug therapy

A

Titration regimens – start at a high dose and titrate down until the patient is euthyroid.

“Block and replace” – maintain a high dose, and thyroxine added in.

449
Q

What are the two Antithyroid drug options?

How do they work?

What are possible side effects?

A

Carbimazole is 1st line

Propylthiouracil is 2nd line
=> Due to risk of severe liver injury

Both act as preferred substrate for thyroid peroxidase, the key enzyme in thyroid hormone synthesis.

SEs:
- Both can cause skin rashes or the more serious agranulocytosis/thrombocytopaenia.
- Carbimazole can also cause cholestatic jaundice.

450
Q

Radioactive Iodine Therapy

A

131I is used as first line in non-Grave’s pathology; or following failure of drug therapy in Grave’s.

It is taken up by the thyroid cells, and induces DNA damage and cell death.

Antithyroid drugs must be discontinued prior to therapy for at least 1 week to allow adequate uptake.

451
Q

What are the contraindications for RAI in hyperthyroidism

What are the implications for fertility/pregnancy?

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Active Grave’s ophthalmology (can cause worsening of eye symptoms)

Patients should avoid prolonged contact with children for 3 weeks after treatment, and should not attempt to conceive for 6 months

452
Q

When is surgery indicated for hyperthyroidism

A

Surgery is indicated if:
- other measures have failed or are contraindicated,
- There is suspicion of malignancy
- To manage a large toxic goitre

453
Q

Causes of hypothyroidism

A

COMMON
Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis (goitre)
Atrophic Thyroiditis (no goitre)
Previous Tx for hyperthyroidism

LESS COMMON
Drugs (Amiodarone, iodine excess, lithium)
Iodine Deficiency
Thyroiditis
Secondary causes (Hypothalamic/pituitary disorders)

RARE
Congenital agenesis
Neoplastic infiltration

454
Q

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

A

= most common cause of hypothyroidism in the UK

T-cell destruction of the gland, plus B-cell secretion of inhibitory TSH-receptor antibodies.

Often an initial hyperthyroid phase.

There will be a goitre

455
Q

Hypothyroidism - Symptoms

A

Fatigue
Depression / psychosis
Cold intolerance
Weight gain
Constipation
Menorrhagia
Myxoedema coma (rare)

456
Q

Hypothyroidism - signs

A

Hair loss
Loss of outer third of eyebrow
Anaemia
Hoarse voice
Goitre
Bradycardia
Dry skin
Hyporeflexia

457
Q

Hypothyroidism - Ix

A

FBC – anaemia
=> Macrocytic due to co-morbid pernicious anaemia
=> Microcytic due to menorrhagia

TFTs:
=> Raised TSH, reduced free T4 in primary causes
=> Low TSH in hypothalamic disease or “sick thyroid syndrome” (due to non-thyroidal illness)

TPO autoantibodies
=> Raised in Hashimoto’s

Cholesterol – can be raised in hepatic hypothyroidism

458
Q

Hypothyroidism - Mx

A

Levothyroxine
=> Low starting dose, titrated up to clinical effect

=> Reassess every 4-6 weeks, until TSH is in the lower half of the reference range in primary disease.

=> TSH is unreliable in secondary disease, titrate based on free T4 levels and clinical symptoms

459
Q

Acute Thyroiditis

A

Relatively uncommon
May follow an URTI

Presentation:
- Initially fever and malaise, plus thyroid swelling and tenderness
- Initially there are thyrotoxic features, as stored hormone is released.
- After this, the patient develops hypothyroidism, which is usually transient but can occasionally be permanent

There is classically low/absent uptake on technetium scanning

Tx:
- Propranolol in thyrotoxic phase
- Simple analgesia
- Occasionally prednisolone 30mg/day is used.

460
Q

Calcium distribution in the body

A

99% of the body’s calcium is in the bone – combined with phosphate as hydroxyapatite.

40% of plasma calcium is bound to albumin, and thus is inactive (Only free Ca2+ is biologically active)

=> Acidotic states increase ionised calcium, by decreasing albumin binding.
=> Alkalotic states decrease ionised calcium, by increasing albumin binding

461
Q

How can serum albumin have an effect on serum calcium levels?

A

40% of plasma calcium is bound to albumin

Many labs will adjust for a low/high serum albumin to give a measure of the ionised calcium present (“adjusted calcium”)

462
Q

Normal Plasma Calcium

A

Plasma calcium normal range = 2.2 - 2.6 mmol/L

Maintaining calcium at optimum range ensures normal excitability of nerve and muscle.

Calcium is also required for clotting and complement cascades

463
Q

When and from where is PTH secreted?

A

There are 4 pea-sized parathyroid glands, lying just posteriorly to the thyroid.
=> These glands have calcium and vitamin D receptors.

The chief cells of the parathyroid glands are responsible for secreting parathyroid hormone (PTH):
=> when plasma calcium levels are low.
=> in response to low vitamin D, or high phosphate levels.

464
Q

What are the effects of PTH?

A

PTH works to increase plasma calcium by:

  1. Directly stimulating calcium reabsorption from bone, via increased osteoclast activity.
  2. Directly increasing renal tubular calcium reabsorption.
  3. Indirectly stimulating increased GI calcium absorption.
    => Via increased vitamin D activation in the kidney.

PTH also has a secondary effect of increasing renal phosphate excretion

465
Q

Vitamin D sources

A

ENDOGENOUS - synthesised in the skin, forming D3 (cholecalciferol).
=> Action of UV light on the precursor to vitD (7-dehydrocholesterol)

EXOGENOUS - ingested as D3/D2
=> D3 – found in fish, liver, dairy products
=> D2 – found in plants/fungi (less potent than D3)

466
Q

Calcitonin

A

Calcitonin is secreted by the parafollicular/ “C” cells of the thyroid gland

Secreted in response to increased plasma calcium levels.

It acts to decrease plasma calcium levels, by antagonism of the effects of PTH on the bone.
=> Reducing osteoclast activity
=> Decreasing renal resorption of calcium and phosphate.

HOWEVER the effects of calcitonin are controversial (evidence that there aren’t many effects).

467
Q

Possible causes of hypercalcaemia

A
  1. Excessive PTH secretion
    - Hyperparathyroidism
    - Ectopic PTH secretion (rare)
  2. Malignant disease
    - Myeloma
    - Bone metastases
    - PTH-related protein secreting tumours (e.g. SCC of lung/other tissues)
  3. Excess action of Vit D
  4. Excessive calcium intake - “Milk-alkali syndrome”
  5. Drugs
  6. Hereditary - Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia
468
Q

Features of hypercalcaemia

A

Mild hypercalcaemia (<3.0 mmol/L) is usually asymptomatic.

Symptoms in hypercalcaemia (>3.0 mmol/L):
- BONES – bone pain, muscle weakness, chondrocalcinosis
- STONES – renal colic (stones), polyuria, AKI/CKD
- ABDOMINAL GROANS – abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, pancreatitis, GI ulcers
- PSYCH MOANS – depression, confusion, tiredness, hypotonicity.

ECG will slow reduced QT interval, and this can lead to cardiac arrest.

469
Q

Primary Hyperparathyroidism

A

80% due to parathyroid adenomas
20% due to diffuse hyperplasia of the glands

PTH levels raised, calcium levels raised.

Tx = Parathyroidectomy

470
Q

Parathyroidectomy in hyperparathyroidism

A

Tx for primary and tertiary hyperPTH

Indicated even in many asymptomatic cases, due to potential long-term adverse effects.

Serum calcium should return to normal within 24h post-surgery

There may be post-op hypocalcaemia (AdCal is usually given for 14 days post-op)

471
Q

Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

A

PHYSIOLOGICAL hypertrophy of all parathyroid glands in response to hypocalcaemia

Seen in renal disease or VitD deficiency

PTH levels raised, calcium levels are low/normal

Tx = PTH will return to normal if the cause of hypocalcaemia can be corrected.

472
Q

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

A

Occurs after long-standing secondary hyperparathyroidism

Most commonly occurs in renal failure

Plasma calcium is raised, PTH levels raised
Phosphate is often grossly raised

Tx = Parathyroidectomy usually necessary.

473
Q

How can you differentiate primary and tertiary hyperPTH?

A

Primary can be separated from tertiary hyperparathyroidism fairly easily based on clinical presentation, and phosphate levels are also helpful

=> Phosphate low/normal in primary, grossly raised in tertiary.

474
Q

Hyperparathyroidism - Ix

A
  • PTH – raised
  • Ca2+ – raised (if primary/tertiary)
  • PO43-
  • ALP – raised
  • 24h urinary calcium – raised
  • DEXA scan – vital to assess extent of osteoporosis
  • Tumour localisation:
    => Technetium scanning – show areas of increased uptake
    => USS (requires highly skilled operator)
475
Q

MEN Syndromes

A

= multiple endocrine neoplasia

AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT INHERITANCE

MEN 1
- Pancreatic endocrine tumours – gastrinoma / insulinoma
- Pituitary adenoma
- Parathyroid adenoma (causing hyperPTH)

MEN2a:
- Thyroid – medullary carcinoma
- Adrenal – PCC
- Parathyroid – hyperplasia (causing hyperPTH)

MEN 2b:
- Thyroid – medullary carcinoma
- Adrenal – PCC
- Mucosal neuromas
- Marfanoid appearance.

476
Q

Mx - Acute Hypercalcaemia

A

If Ca2+ = >3.5 mmol/L and severe symptoms:

  1. IV Fluids
    => 0.9% NaCl to increase calcium clearance.
    => Aim for 3-6L over the first 24 hours.
    (Diuretics no longer routinely used, but may be considered if there is a risk of fluid overload.)
  2. Bisphosphonates:
    - Single dose of pamidronate
    - Lowers calcium over 2-3 days.
  3. Calcitonin:
    - May be used to rapidly reduce levels in life-threatening hypercalcaemia (however effects are short-lived)
  4. Dialysis:
    => May be required if there is renal impairment

Further Mx is related to investigating and treating the cause of hypercalcaemia.

477
Q

Causes of HYPOcalcaemia

A
  1. ARTIFACT of low serum albumin if not “corrected”.
  2. With low PTH (hypoparathyroidism)
    - Idiopathic / primary hypoparathyroidism
    - H&N surgery / radiation
    - Infiltration – sarcoid / malignancy
    - Congenital absence of the gland (DiGeorge Syndrome)
    - Severe hypomagnesaemia (impairs PTH secretion)
  3. With High PTH:
    - Vitamin D deficiency
    - Acute pancreatitis
    - Alkalosis
    - Acute hypophosphatemia – renal failure, rhabdomyloysis, tumour lysis
    - Drugs – bisphosphonates, calcitonin
478
Q

What electrolyte disturbance goes hand-in-hand with hypocalcaemia?

What is the clinical relevance?

A

Severe hypomagnesaemia impairs PTH secretion

Always check serum magnesium levels

Replacing magnesium is essential (calcium will not increase otherwise)

479
Q

Hypocalcaemia - presentation

A

Signs of Peripheral irritability:

  • Tetany / cramps
  • Carpo-pedal spasm
    => Happens especially after occlusion of brachial artery (Trousseau’s sign)
    => Tapping over facial nerve causes twitches – Chvostek’s sign
  • Seizures
  • Depression / anxiety
  • Perioral paraesthesia
  • Cataracts
480
Q

Hypocalcaemia - Ix

A

Serum calcium – low

Serum PTH – high / low
=> Check parathyroid antibodies if low

Serum vitamin D – r/o deficiency

ECG – prolonged QT interval

481
Q

Hypocalcaemia - Mx

A

Mild/moderate symptoms:
=> AdCal (calcium and vitamin D)

Severe symptoms:
=> Calcium gluconate IV, 10ml of 10% bolus, then maintenance infusion.
=> Start AdCal without delay.
=> Find and treat the cause.

If hypomagnesaemia, replace magnesium as calcium will not increase otherwise.

482
Q

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

A

Small rod-shaped bacteria (bacilli)

Have a waxy coating that makes gram staining ineffective. They are resistant to the acids used in the staining procedure (“acid-fastness”).

=> “ACID FAST BACILLI”

They then stain red with Zeihl-Neelsen staining

Infection affects predominantly the lungs, lymph nodes and gut.

483
Q

TB - RFs

A
  • Non-UK born patients (areas where TB is endemic – e.g. South Asia, Africa)
  • Immunocompromise
  • Those with close contacts with TB.
  • People living in overcrowded conditions
  • Alcohol /drug abuse
484
Q

Multi-Drug Resistant TB

A

strains that are resistant to more than one TB drug making them very difficult to treat.

The most common drug resistance in the UK is isolated isoniazid, with resistance to Rifampicin being the marker for MDR-TB

485
Q

Primary TB - pathophysiology

A

= the syndrome produced by M. tuberculosis infection in those not previously affected

There is a mild inflammatory response at the site of the infection:
- Common sites of initial infection are sub-pleural in the mid zones of the lungs, in the pharynx or terminal ileum
- Infection will then spread to hilar, cervical or mesenteric nodes respectively.

1-2 weeks after infection, with the onset of immune sensitivity, the tissue reaction at both sites of the primary complex changes to form characteristic caseating granulomas

Viable bacteria may remain within the primary complex, giving latent TB.

486
Q

TB - primary complex

A

= The combination of infective focus and lymph node involvement is known as the primary complex.

487
Q

TB - Ghon focus

A

the infective focus of TB in the lung

488
Q

Primary TB - presentation

A

Usually asymptomatic or have a single enlarged lymph node that may be palpable if cervical.

There are several methods by which primary TB can become symptomatic:
- The Ghon focus can erode through the visceral pleura to discharge organisms and cause TB pleurisy / pleural effusions
- Enlarged hilar lymph nodes can cause bronchial obstruction and collapse
- The hilar lymph nodes can also erode into the bronchus and rupture, causing TB bronchopneumonia
- The enlarging nodes can erode into vessels, giving miliary dissemination to the lung or systemic dissemination.
- Erythema nodosum is common in primary disease.

Symptomatic presentation is more common in patients with incomplete immunity.

489
Q

Secondary TB - pathophysiology

A

M. tuberculosis re-infection in tuberculin-sensitive individuals.
=> Infection can be from exogenous sources or more commonly from “reactivation” from a healed primary complex

There is immediate granulomatous response to the disease, thus regional lymph involvement is not common

The lesion may heal with fibrosis and calcification if the immune system is strong.
=> Will progressively enlarge in those with poor immune systems.
=> This has greater risks of eroding into vessels / airways

490
Q

TB - Assman focus

A

Secondary infection in the lung => classical apical lesion termed an Assman focus, with destruction of the lung parenchyma leading to cavitation.

491
Q

Secondary TB - presentation

A

Earliest symptoms are non-specific – malaise, night sweats, anorexia, weight loss.

Specific symptoms can occur late:
- Productive cough
- +/- small amounts of haemoptysis
- Pleural pain

Can present with pneumonia or pleural effusion

O/E:
- May only be a fever and apical crepitations
- May be clubbing in advanced disease

492
Q

Ix for Suspected active pulmonary TB

A

SPUTUM SAMPLES – at least 3, including one morning sample.
=> Microscopy for acid-fast bacilli, results within 24h
=> PCR – if rapid diagnostic results are required or suspected MDR-TB (however this will not differentiate between active and latent TB)
=> Culture = gold-standard diagnostic test; but takes 6 weeks.

If sputum samples are negative, bronchoscopy with biopsy or bronchoalveolar lavage may be useful.

CXR

Investigate for extra-pulmonary disease as clinically indicated.

493
Q

How might TB appear on CXR?

A

Primary TB may show patchy consolidation, pleural effusions and hilar lymphadenopathy

Reactivated TB may show patchy or nodular consolidation with cavitation (gas filled spaces in the lungs) typically in the upper zones

Disseminated Miliary TB gives a picture of “millet seeds” uniformly distributed throughout the lung fields

494
Q

Ix for Latent TB

A
  • Mantoux test
  • Interferon-gamma Release Assay
    => also required to diagnose latent TB in immunocompromised individuals, as they can have false negatives in skin tests

Positive results should lead to assessment for active TB (these tests cannot differentiate between active/latent TB)
=> If no evidence then treat for latent TB

495
Q

Mantoux test

A

TB antigen (does not contain live bacteria), injected intradermally on the arm; size of wheal reaction monitored:
=> A positive result indicates either previous vaccination, latent or active TB.

Reactions >5mm
Considered positive in immunosuppressed individuals, those with prior TB or recent contacts

Reactions >10mm
Considered positive in those with RFs

Reactions >15mm
Considered positive in any individual

496
Q

Active TB - Mx

A

Consider admission if severely unwell

Assess risk factors for MDR TB (and assess with PCR if suspected)

Normal ABX Regimen:
R Rifampicin => 6 months
I Isoniazid(+ prophylactic pyridoxine) => 6 months
P Pyrazinamide => 2 months
E Ethambutol => 2 months

(If CNS involvement, the isoniazid and rifampicin are continued for 12 months)

NOTIFIABLE DISEASE

497
Q

What are risk factors for MDR TB?

A
  • Previous TB treatment
  • From endemic areas
  • Contact with MDR-TB
  • Poor adherence to current Tx
  • Aged 25-45
  • HIV co-infection
498
Q

directly observed therapy in TB

A

People considered to be at high risk of poor adherence to Tx may have DOT – drug treatment is given under the observation of a key worker

499
Q

TB - contact tracing

A

All household members and close contacts should be traced and assessed for latent/active TB

Casual contacts should be traced only if the person with TB is particularly infectious OR if casual contacts are at an increased risk of infection

500
Q

MDR TB - Mx

A

Continue infection control measures until pulmonary / laryngeal disease has been excluded

Treat with at least 6 drugs to which it is sensitive

501
Q

Latent TB - Mx

A

Treat with 3 months of Rifampicin and Isoniazid (with pyridoxine).

502
Q

TB Drug Side Effects

A

Rifampicin
=> Abnormal LFTs, pink urine

Isoniazid
=> Peripheral neuropathy / encephalopathy
=> Very rare when prophylactic pyridoxine co-prescribed

Pyrazinamide:
=> Hepatotoxic (rare but severe)

Ethambutol
=> Optic neuritis – assess with colour vision testing

503
Q

Non-pulmonary TB

A

haematogenous spread => some bacilli settle in specific organs and may remain dormant for many years – appearing later to cause disease.

Painless lymphadenopathy – Lymphatic TB

Monoarthritis – joint / spinal TB

Sterile pyuria – Renal TB

TB meningitis

Erythema nodosum / lupus vulgaris – cutaneous TB

TB pericarditis

504
Q

What is Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis ?

A

(AKA hypersensitivity pneumonitis)
= immune reactivity in the lungs due to inhaled antigens.

Can cause an acute type III hypersensitivity response with immune complex formation.

Or with repeated exposure there is a type IV cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction and granuloma formation.

The chronic inflammation eventually results in interstitial fibrosis.

505
Q

Causes of extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

A

Farmer’s Lung
=> Caused by micopolyspora

Bird Fancier’s lung
=> Caused by proteins in bird droppings

Malt worker’s lung
=> Caused by aspergillus

506
Q

extrinsic allergic alveolitis - presentation

A

Features of acute exposure come on 4-6 hours post-exposure.
=> Fevers, rigors and myalgia.
=> Dry cough and dyspnoea, possibly wheeze

Chronic features are as per idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

507
Q

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis - Ix

A

FBC – neutrophilia

Serum precipitant levels – only indicate exposure

CXR/CT/ lung function tests – confirm interstitial disease

Bronchoalveolar lavage – confirm diagnosis
=> Shows increased T lymphocytes and mast cells

508
Q

Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis - Mx

A

Aim for prevention, with no exposure/face masks/etc.

Long-term prednisolone may give physiological improvement

Established fibrosis cannot be treated.

Compensation available for patients with Farmer’s lung.

509
Q

RFs for lung cancer

A

SMOKING is the most common risk factor (90% of cases). .

Other RFs:
- Passive smoking
- Urban living
- Occupational exposure (asbestos, etc.)

510
Q

What are the types of lung cancer?

A

small cell disease (20%)

non-small cell disease (80%).
=> SCC; adenocarcinoma ; large cell anaplastic tumours

511
Q

Lung cancer - SCC

A

NON-SMALL CELL

Arise from squamous metaplasia of the normally pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium, in response to cigarette smoke exposure.

They are usually central and close to the carina
=> Thus frequently present with collapse/infection secondary to obstruction.

May secrete PTH, causing hypercalcaemia.
=> (Beware as hypercalcaemia can also be due to bone mets)

They are relatively slow growing compared to other tumours, and may be resectable.

512
Q

What is atelectasis?

What are the causes?

A

= partial collapse (or incomplete inflation) of a lung

OBSTRUCTIVE
=> mucous plug , foreign body, mass

OTHER
=> PTX, surfactant deficiency, scarring/fibrosis

513
Q

Lung cancer - adenocarcinoma

A

NON-SMALL CELL

Equal gender incidence, and less related to smoking.

Characteristically originate in peripheral locations, potentially in areas of previous lung scarring.

(Bronchoalveolar carcinoma is a special type of adenocarcinoma)

Accounts for <5%, but a better prognosis.

514
Q

Lung cancer - large cell anaplastic carcinoma

A

NON-SMALL CELL

Features showing SCC or adenocarcinomatous origins may be seen, but they are not differentiated enough to be classified.

Have a poor prognosis

Often widely disseminated at diagnosis.

515
Q

Lung cancer - small cell carcinoma

A

AKA oat cell carcinoma (as the cell nuclei resemble oat grains).

Usually centrally located, and rapidly growing.

Most highly malignant of all lung cancers.
=> Often metastasised at diagnosis.

Originate from the bronchial epithelium, but differentiate into neuroendocrine cells to secrete active products (ADH / ACTH)

516
Q

What paraneoplastic syndromes can be caused by hormone secretion from lung cancer?

A

ADH => symptoms of SIADH (i.e. dilutional hyponatraemia)

ACTH => Cushing’s syndrome

Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

Eaton Lambert Syndrome

Hyper PTH

517
Q

Eaton Lambert Syndrome

A

Rare - sometimes seen in Pts with small cell lung cancer

Myasthenia Gravis-like symptoms
=> Proximal muscle weakness and reduced tendon reflexes.
=> Can be accompanied by dry eyes, sexual impotence and neuropathy.

!!! Symptoms get better with usage, unlike MG !!!

518
Q

Lung cancer - presentation

A

Symptoms:
- Persistent cough (80%)
- Haemoptysis
- Dyspnoea
- Chest pain
- B-symptoms

O/E:
- Clubbing
- Cachexia
- Signs of anaemia
- Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
- Paraneoplastic syndrome – clubbing and painful peri-osteitis of small joints of the hand.
- Chest signs of collapse/consolidation/effusion
- Signs of metastases.

519
Q

Lung cancer - Ix

A

FBC, LFTs, U&Es, calcium

CXR – ANY patient with haemoptysis should have a CXR
=> Symptomatic tumours are almost always visible.
=> A normal CXR in a symptomatic patient should warrant further Ix for central tumours.

Sputum/pleural fluid cytology

Staging CT – head to pelvis

Biopsy:
- CT guided if peripheral (risk of PTX)
- Via bronchoscopy if central.

Pulmonary function tests – useful if planning surgery

PET scan / radionucleotide bone scan – ?mets

520
Q

Signs of local invasion of lung cancer

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
=> Change in voice
=> If present, indicates inoperability.

Phrenic nerve palsy

SVC obstruction

Pancoast syndrome:
- Horner’s syndrome (miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis)
- Shoulder pain, radiating along ulnar forearm and into hand
- Atrophy of hand/arm muscles
- Oedema (due to blodd vessel compression)

521
Q

Where does lung cancer most commonly metastasise to?

A

Brain,
Bone,
Liver
Adrenal gland

522
Q

Non-small cell lung cancer - Mx

A

Surgical excision if peripheral enough, with no LNs/metastatic spread; with adjuvant chemotherapy.
=> Must be >2cm from carina.

Curative radiotherapy can be an alternative if poor respiratory reserve, with adjuvant chemotherapy.

523
Q

Small cell lung cancer - Mx

A

Nearly always disseminated at presentation

May respond to chemotherapy +/- radiotherapy

May have prophylactic cranial radiotherapy

524
Q

Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

A

= Interrupted and repeated collapse of the upper airway during REM sleep, associated with hypopnoea/apnoea and desaturations

Hypoxia leads to increasing respiratory effort, until the patient overcomes the resistance.

The combination of central hypoxia and respiratory effort briefly wakes the patient, leading to excessive daytime sleepiness.

The patient is unaware of the awakenings from sleep.

525
Q

Correctible factors causing OSA

A

Respiratory Depressants
=> Opioids, alcohol, sedatives

Nasal Obstruction
=> Adenoids, rhinitis, polyps

Encroachment on the pharynx:
=> Obesity, acromegaly.

526
Q

Obstructive Sleep Apnoea - presentation

A

Loud snoring during sleep
Daytime sleepiness
Morning headaches
Decreased libido
Nocturnal choking
Witnessed apnoeic episodes

527
Q

Obstructive Sleep Apnoea - Ix

A
  • Epsworth sleepiness Scale – to distinguish from simple snoring.
  • Endoscopic examination of the upper airway by ENT
  • Polysomnography = gold standard for diagnosis
    => Diagnostic, but rarely used.

Diagnosis is made with the occurrence of >15 episodes of apnoea/hypopnoea during one hour of sleep.

528
Q

What is assessed in polysomnography?

A

Inpatient assessment of variable parameters (EEG, EMG, electro-oculogram, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, ECG, oximetry, snoring sound and video).

529
Q

Obstructive sleep apnoea - Mx

A

Behavioural changes – allow partner to sleep first, sleep on side.

Weight reduction
Avoidance of alcohol and tobacco

CPAP via nasal mask = gold-standard management
=> Positive pressure keeps the airway open
=> 50% will not tolerate CPAP

Alternatives to CPAP include:
- Intra-oral devices
- Daytime stimulants – e.g. modafinol
- Upper airway surgery – if pressure assessments can localise a level of obstruction.

530
Q

What is pneumoconiosis?

What is the pathophysiology behind it ?

A

= disease of the lungs caused by inhalation of dusts, generally used to refer to pathology caused by coal dust

The dust is toxic to macrophages (the normal defence for inhaled dusts) => INFLAMMATORY RESPONSE

If this becomes chronic, there will also be fibrosis leading to restrictive lung disease.

531
Q

Simple Coalworker’s Pneumoconiosis

A

Presence of small nodules (2-5 mm) on CXR, not associated with any clinically significant impairment of respiratory function.

May develop to PMF.

532
Q

Progressive Massive Fibrosis (PMF)

A

Presence of large nodules (>10mm) on CXR, and the disease progresses relentlessly, leading to a mixed obstructive and restrictive pattern.

May present long after active exposure to coal dust and culminates in COPD (often with black sputum)

Can progress to respiratory failure.

Compensation available to patients with PMF

533
Q

Asbestos-related Lung Disease

A
  • Asbestos Bodies
  • Pleural Plaques, Effusion and Thickening
  • Mesothelioma
  • Asbestosis

There can be a latent period of up to 50 years between exposure and clinical onset of disease.

The risk of disease is proportionate to intensity of exposure

534
Q

Asbestos bodies

A

Not pathological in themselves, merely act as a marker of asbestos exposure

Can only be seen histologically, following lung biopsy
=> stain golden brown, assuming the shape of fusiform or beaded rods with a translucent centre

535
Q

Asbestos Pleural Plaques

A

Can occur after light exposure and are normally asymptomatic (may be associated with recurrent pleural effusions)

There may be mild restrictive deficit on spirometry, with pleural thickening and calcification on CXR

Locations most commonly encountered include posterolateral, mediastinal, and diaphragmatic pleura

More heavy exposure can cause diffuse pleural thickening (affecting >1/4 of the pleural surface), which will produce restrictive deficits

536
Q

Asbestos-related Mesothelioma

A

Caused by light exposure

Interval of 20-40 years between exposure and disease onset.

Presentation:
- Pleuritic chest pain
- Increasing dyspnoea
- Unilateral pleural effusion on CXR

Survival is poor (median survival 2 years from diagnosis).

537
Q

Asbestosis

A

Caused by heavy exposure

Interval of 5-10 years from exposure to disease.

Progressive dyspnoea

Diffuse bilateral streaky strikes on CXR with honeycombing

Outcome is poor – can progress after exposure ceases.

538
Q

Compensation in asbsestos-related lung disease

A

Patients can claim occupational compensation for:

bilateral diffuse pleural thickening,
asbestosis,
mesothelioma
asbestos-related bronchial carcinoma.

539
Q

Angiography

A

Contrast injected (usually via a catheter introduced into the femoral artery)

Fluouroscopy is then used to visualise the arterial system

Risks = contrast reaction, haematoma/ pseudoaneurysm/ AVF formation / arterial occlusion

540
Q

CT / MR Angiography (CTA / MRA)

A

= now more commonly used to assess the arterial system

CTA => carotid/cerebral disease
MRA => thoracic, abdominal or limb disease

541
Q

Primary Headache Disorders

A

Tension headache
Migraine
Cluster headache

542
Q

Secondary Headache Syndromes

A

Raised ICP
Idiopathic intracranial HTN
HTN
Meningeal irritation (SAH/meningitis)
Post-traumatic
Giant cell arteritis
Sinusitis
Metabolic disturbances
Drugs (nitrates, vasoactive agents).

543
Q

What is a tension headache?

A

Continuous, severe pressure felt bilaterally over the vertex, occiput and eyes.
=> Can be “band like” and of variable intensity.

Classically occurs every day and can persist for year/months

Standard analgesics are ineffective, and if used continuously may exacerbate the situation when their effects wear off (analgesic/rebound headache)

Few associated symptoms

544
Q

Tension headaches - Mx

A

If episodic (<15 days/ month)
=> Paracetamol and aspirin/NSAIDs
=> Advise that can lead to a medication overuse headache.

If medications are being used on more than two days per week, consider preventative Tx
=> Low dose amitriptyline
=> 75mg initially, titrated upwards if partial response

Chronic tension headache is more difficult to treat
=> Reassurance, relaxation techniques
=> Addressing underlying stressors
=> Medication overuse headache and clinical depression should be ruled out/ treated.

545
Q

What are cluster headaches?

A

Short-lived (30-120 mins) episodes of severe, unilateral pain; typically centred on one eye and come on very suddenly.

Associated with AUTONOMIC features on the affected side.
- Red eye
- Eye/nose watering
- Ptosis
- Vomiting

They may occur several times per day and be recurrent for several weeks/months before the disorder remits

Up to 20% will experience an aura; and some may have mild background pain between attacks

Alcohol is a common precipitant

546
Q

Cluster headache - Mx

A

Exclude secondary causes, and other causes of eye pain (e.g. angle closure glaucoma).

S.C. (or nasal) triptan to take at the start of an attack
=> Home oxygen for use during the attack
=> At least 12L/min through a non-rebreather (unless COPD)

Oral triptans/oral analgesia not effective for acute attack

Prophylactic Tx = alcohol avoidance (and verapamil – off licence).

547
Q

What can migraines be associated with?

A

menstruation
OCP use
physical exercise
alcohol
specific food groups (cheese, chocolate, Chinese, red wine, etc)
emotional states.

548
Q

Migraines - pathogenesis

A

= poorly understood

Vasodilation after a period of vasoconstriction (aura phase) is thought to correlate with the onset of headache.

Many vasoactive peptides mediate this process.

549
Q

Migraine headache presentation

A

Migraine headache= throbbing headache with anorexia, N&V, and photophobia is seen.

Begins locally and spreads bilaterally.
Aggravated by movement
Can last several hours/days
Neurological Exam is relatively normal

550
Q

Subtypes of migraine

A

Classical Migraine with Aura
Migraine without aura (common migraine)
Opthalmoplegic Migraine
Hemiparetic/ facioplegic migraine

551
Q

Classical Migraine with Aura

A

Starts with sense of ill health (several hours), followed by visual aura in the field of vision opposite to the side of headache.

Sensory aura symptoms are less common, speech disturbance is very rare.

Thereafter, the headache begins.

552
Q

Migraine without aura (common migraine)

A

Classic visual/sensory aura is absent, however patients may feel non-specifically unwell prior to onset of headache.

553
Q

Opthalmoplegic Migraine

A

Migraine + 3rd or 6th nerve palsy.

554
Q

Hemiparetic/ facioplegic migraine

A

Hemiparetic = headache plus temporary hemiparesis.

Facioplegic = headache plus unilateral facial weakness

555
Q

Migraine - Ix

A

Examine to r/o other differentials:
- Signs of focal neurology, raised ICP, meningism, temporal arteritis, retinal haemorrhage (SAH).

Headache diary:
- Assess frequency, severity of attacks, precipitants, and exacerbating/relieving factors.

556
Q

Migraine - Acute Mx

A

1st line is PO NSAID or paracetamol, plus anti-emetic (e.g. metoclopramide).

Offer PO triptan (sumatriptan) if attacks are severe
- Taken ASAP at the start of symptoms
- Can be intranasal if vomiting prevents oral Tx.
- Avoid if IHD, uncontrolled HTN, coronary artery spasm.

Opioids should NOT be used.

Follow up – repeated unsuccessful triptan treatment is rare if the underlying diagnosis is actually migraine.

557
Q

Migraine - preventative Tx

A

TRIGGER AVOIDANCE

Consider Tx if migraine attacks are causing significant disability (e.g. if >2/month).

Topiramate and Propranolol are 1st line
=> Propranolol in women of child-bearing age.

2nd Line = Amitriptyline/anticonvulsants if these aren’t successful/tolerated

Menstrual-related migraines can be treated with mefenamic acid from the first day of menses, throughout menstruation; or triptans started 2 days before expected menses.

COCP should be avoided in women with migraine with aura, however contraceptive methods that prevent menstruation can be tried.

558
Q

Hemiplegic Migraine vs TIA

A

In TIAs, the maximum deficit is present immediately, and headache is unusual.

559
Q

Idiopathic Intracranial HTN - cause and presentation

A

IIH is most common in young obese women

Symptoms and signs of raised ICP, but no mass lesion on imaging.

It is thought to be a disorder of CSF reabsorption.

Most common presentation = visual disturbances (diplopia/obscuration) and headaches.
=> Sometimes associated with pulsatile tinnitus and 6th nerve palsy.

O/E: bilateral papilloedema.

560
Q

Idiopathic Intracranial HTN - Ix

A

CT/MRI will be normal
LP will confirm increased CSF pressure.

561
Q

Idiopathic Intracranial HTN - Mx

A

Weight loss may facilitate spontaneous remission.

A trial of corticosteroids may be successful

Definitive Mx is a surgical shunt (necessary to prevent optic atrophy due to prolonged raised pressure).

562
Q

Trigeminal Neuralgia - cause and presentation

A

Compression / pathology (MS) of the trigeminal nerve root.

Agonising, sharp pain over the distribution of the nerve on one side, lasting only seconds.

Often with a sensory trigger from a certain point

563
Q

Trigeminal Neuralgia - O/E

A

Look for any localising CNS signs, but examination usually normal.

564
Q

trigeminal neuralgia vs. post-herpetic neuralgia

A

post-herpetic neuralgia
- pain is usually less severe and associated with itching/sensory changes.
- patient will have had shingles previously

565
Q

Trigeminal Neuralgia - Mx

A

Simple analgesics are ineffective

Carbamazepine offers good symptom control
Sometimes TCAs (e.g. amitryptiline used)

566
Q

Atypical Facial Pain

A

Episodic aching in non-anatomical distributions of the head/neck.

Commonly associated with depression/anxiety.

May respond to antidepressants.

567
Q

What is Bulbar Palsy?

What are common and rarer causes?

A

= LMN weakness of muscles supplied by cranial nerves with cell bodies in the medulla (i.e. the “bulb”)
=> CN IX, X and XII

Most commonly degenerative (MND) or vascular (stroke) in origin.

More rare causes are inflammatory (Guillain-Barre), infective (botulism), neoplastic (brainstem tumours) or congenital.

568
Q

Examination findings in Bulbar Palsy

A

Inspect the tongue – wasted, flaccid and fasciculation, can be moved rapidly.

Ask about dysphagia (do not test unless controlled environment)

Ask the patient to say “AHHH” – look for poor elevation of the soft palate.

Ask the patient to repeat sentences – quiet, nasal speech

Assess jaw jerk/gag reflex – may be absent.

569
Q

Pseudobulbar Palsy

A

= Bilateral UMN disease of the medullary cranial nerves.

Most common causes are degenerative (MND) and vascular (stroke).

Also seen in MS and can follow head trauma.

570
Q

Examination findings in pseudobulbar palsy

A

Inspect the tongue – stiff/spastic tongue with slow movements, not wasted.

Ask about dysphagia

Ask the patient to say “AHHH” – normal elevation of the soft palate.

Ask the patients to repeat sentences – gravelly, “Donald duck” speech

Assess jaw jerk/gag reflex – preserved, may be exaggerated jaw jerk.

May be mood disturbances

571
Q

Cerebral hemisphere lesions

A

Cerebral lesions lead to impairment in higher function – the type of function affected gives clues to the location affected.

FRONTAL
- Intellectual impairment, personality change, urinary incontinence and monoparesis/hemiparesis.
- Broca’s aphasia (if left frontal area).

LEFT TEMPORO-PARIETAL (dominant hemisphere):
- Agraphia, alexia, acalculia
- Wernicke’s aphasia
- Contralateral sensory neglect

RIGHT TEMPORO-PARIETAL:
- Failure of face recognition
- Contralateral sensory neglect.

OCCIPITAL:
- Visual field defects
- Visuospatial defects

572
Q

Lateral cerebellar lesions

A

cause IPSILATERAL pathological signs

Broad, ataxic gait
Titubation – rhythmic head tremor

Dysarthria - Slurred, staccato speech

Nystagmus - Course and horizontal, towards the side of the lesion

Hypotonia
Mild hyporeflexia

Dysmetria – imprecise movements/coordination
=> Finger to nose test – misses target, may be intention tremor which worsens as the patient approaches the target.

Dysdiadochokinesis – clumsy rapid alternating movements

573
Q

How to assess for cerebellar dysarthria

A

Ask the patient to repeat “British constitution” / “baby hippopotamus”

Staccato speech - each syllable will be pronounced individually

574
Q

Cerebellar exam - DANISH

A
  • Dysdiadochokinesia
  • Ataxia (gait and posture)
  • Nystagmus
  • Intention tremor
  • Slurred, staccato speech
  • Hypotonia/heel-shin test

To complete cerebellar examination – perform a full neurological examination of the CNS and PNS.

575
Q

Midline Cerebellar lesions

A

Rolling, broad ataxic gait

Difficulty standing and sitting unsupported
=> Cannot perform Romberg’s test with eyes open or closed
=> Ask the patient to sit forward with arms across their chest.

Vertigo and vomiting if extension into fourth ventricle.

576
Q

Common causes of Cerebellar Dysfunction

A

BILATERAL
Alcohol
Drugs – phenytoin, anti-epileptics
Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration

UNILATERAL
MS
Stroke
Tumour
=> Especially acoustic neuroma, meningioma

577
Q

What investigation is useful in ?Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration

A

Anti-neuronal antibodies = +ve

578
Q

Basal Ganglion Lesion - signs

A

Bradykinesia (can progress to akinesia)

Muscle rigidity

Involuntary movements
- Tremor
- Dystonia – spasms/abnormal muscle contractions
- Athetosis – writhing involuntary movements of hands/face/tongue
- Chorea – jerky involuntary movements
- Hemiballismus – violent involuntary movements, restricted to proximal muscles of one arm

579
Q

What is meningitis?

A

= inflammation of the leptomeninges (i.e. the arachnoid and pia mater, and underlying CSF).

580
Q

causes of meningitis

A

Outside of the neonatal period, 70% of acute bacterial meningitis cases are caused by:

Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae

Other:
- Listeria monocytogenes – common in the elderly/immunosuppressed
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Staph aureus
- TB
- Viral causes: Enteroviruses, HSV, VZV
- Fungal causes (in immunosuppressed patients)

581
Q

TB Meningitis

A

Most commonly caused by blood-borne spread of M. tuberculosis to the brain following primary infection or miliary TB

RFs – immunosuppression, malnourishment, multiple comorbidities, recent contact with TB

May present as per acute bacterial meningitis, but more commonly as an insidious illness with fever, weight loss, and progressive confusion/cerebral irritation, eventually leading to coma

582
Q

Meningitis - Routes of Infection

A

Blood-borne

Para-meningeal suppuration
=> e.g. otitis media, sinusitis

Direct spread through a defect in the dura
=> e.g. post-surgery, trauma
=> CSF leaking out of the nose/ear is a sign of a defect in the dura

Direct spread through the cribriform plate
=> rare

583
Q

Meningitis - Presentation

A

Meningitic syndrome Triad:
1. Headache
2. Neck stiffness
3. Fever (+/- rigors)

Other symptoms include:
- Photophobia
- Vomiting
- Intense malaise (coming on over hours)
- Confusion / altered mental state
- Seizures

O/E:
- Kernig’s Sign positive
- Brudzinski’s sign positive
- Signs of raised ICP and/or cranial nerve palsies

In uncomplicated meningitis, consciousness will remain intact

584
Q

Positive Kernig’s Sign

A

Flex the hip and knee
extending the knee causes pain

585
Q

Positive Brudzinski’s sign

A

Passive flexion of the neck leads to flexion of the knees/hip

586
Q

What symptoms may indicate complications in meningitis?

What are possible complications ?

A

Progressive drowsiness, lateralising signs or cranial nerve lesions

  • Venous sinus thrombosis
  • Severe cerebral oedema
  • Hydrocephalus
587
Q

Suspected meningitis - investigations

A

Bloods:
- FBC, U&E, clotting, glucose, lactate
- Cultures (prior to ABX if possible, but do not delay).
Serum PCR for pneumococcal and meningococcal antigens

LP – if no clinical suspicion of mass lesion / raised ICP
- Send for MCS, protein, glucose and meningococcal / pneumococcal viral PCR
- Do not delay LP unless signs of raised ICP

CT prior to LP – if ?raised ICP

Throat swabs – 1 for virology, 1 for bacteriology.

588
Q

What causative pathogens may be suggested by CSF staining?

A

Gram positive intracellular diplococci = pneumococcus

Gram negative cocci = meningococcus.

Ziehl-Neelsen stain for acid-fast bacilli = TB

Indian Ink = fungi

589
Q

CSF Findings - Bacterial Meningitis

A

Leucocytes - VERY HIGH
Protein - HIGH
Glucose - LOW (normal = 50-80% of blood level)

590
Q

CSF findings - viral meningitis

A

Leucocytes - SLIGHTLY RAISED
Protein - SLIGHTLY RAISED
Glucose - NORMAL (normal = 50-80% of blood level)

Appearance = yellow/turbid

591
Q

CSF findings - Viral Meningitis

A

Leucocytes - SLIGHTLY RAISED
Protein - SLIGHTLY RAISED
Glucose - NORMAL (normal = 50-80% of blood level)

Appearance = clear

592
Q

CSF Findings - TB meningitis

A

Leucocytes - RAISED
Protein - RAISED
Glucose - VERY LOW (normal = 50-80% of blood level)

Appearance = yellow/viscous

593
Q

Meningitis - Mx

A

If meningitis is suspected => LP within 1 hour

If this cannot be achieved, empirical ABX should be given immediately after blood cultures.

Meningitis is managed with:
* Antibiotics
* Adequate oxygenation
* Prevention of hypoglycaemia and hyponatraemia
* Anticonvulsants – if patient is fitting
* Decrease intracranial hypertension – prevent brain herniation
* Notifiable Disease – inform public health of ALL cases.

594
Q

Meningitis - empirical Tx

A

If non-blanching rash:
=> Benzylpenicillin 1.2g IM
=> 2.4mg 4-hourly is then the treatment of choice in hospital
=> Cefotaxime can be used in penicillin allergic patients

If <60 and not immunosuppressed:
=> IV ceftriazone 2g BD (IV chloramphenicol in penicillin allergic patients)
=> IV dexamethasone given with 1st dose of ABX and 2nd dose after 6 hours

If >60 or immunosuppressed:
- IV ceftriaxone 2g BD
- IV amoxicillin 2g 4-hourly
- IV dexamethasone

Add IV acyclovir if ?HSV encephalitis (i.e. if drowsy, mood changes)

595
Q

Meningitis - treatment for contacts

A

Meningococcal meningitis contacts:
=> Single dose of ciprofloxacin given to all close contacts as prophylaxis.

596
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

= inflammation of the brain parenchyma, usually viral (similar organisms to viral meningitis).

HSV-1 => causes necrotising encephalitis, affecting the temporal lobes.
HSV-2 => causes meningitis in adults

597
Q

Encephalitis - clinical features

A

Normally mild
=> Headache, drowsiness, fever, malaise and confusion.

Rarely, serious illness can occur:
=> High fever, mood changes, progressive drowsiness over hours/days; leading to seizures and coma
=> Most commonly caused by HSV-1
=> Carries a mortality of 20%

598
Q

Encephalitis - Ix

A

Head CT/MRI
=> Diffuse oedema, classically in the temporal lobes

Lumbar puncture:
=> Raised opening pressure, Raised lymphocytes, Raised protein
=> Normal glucose
=> Positive viral PCR

Viral serology:
=> Blood and CSF culture

599
Q

HSV Encephalitis

A

Clinical features as for viral encephalitis

CSF PCR = diagnostic

Mx = IV acyclovir for >10 days

Mortality = 20%

600
Q

Complications of bacterial meningitis

A

ACUTE:
- Sepsis
- DIC
- Hydrocephalus
- Adrenal haemorrhage (Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome)

LONGER-TERM:
- Brain abscesses
- Seizure disorders
- CN palsies – sensorineural hearing loss or gaze palsies
- Ataxia / muscular hypotonia

Long-term sequelae are most common in pneumococcal meningitis

601
Q

Brain Abscess

A

Generally very rare, most commonly complicating otitis media/paranasal sinus infections or secondary to bacterial endocarditis.

May be a Hx of head trauma/neurosurgery

Presentation:
- Features of expanding mass lesion
- Fever
- Possible systemic illness

602
Q

Brain Abscess - Mx

A

Surgical drainage
Broad-spectrum ABX
High dose corticosteroids

Mortality is high; and many of those who survive go on to develop epilepsy.

603
Q

Epidural Spinal Abscess

A

Presents with fever, back pain and later spinal root lesions

Caused by S. aureus

Requires emergency imaging, ABX and surgical decompression

604
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

= the continuing tendency to have recurrent, unprovoked seizures.

605
Q

Types of Seizure

A
  1. Generalised:
    - Tonic clonic
    - Absence
    - Myoclonic
    - Tonic
    - Atonic
  2. Focal:
    - Temporal
    - Frontal
    - Occipital
    - Parietal
606
Q

Generalised seizures

A
  • Discharge from both hemispheres
  • No warning
  • Always have LOC
607
Q

Focal seizures

A
  • Discharge from ONE part of ONE hemisphere
  • May have a preceding aura
  • May or may not have LOC
  • May lead to generalised tonic-clonic seizure if LOC
608
Q

Tonic clonic seizure

A

TONIC PHASE
- body becomes rigid for up to a minute, usually fall to the ground
- Accompanied by tongue biting and incontinence
- holds breath (cyanosis)

CLONIC PHASE
- lasts seconds to minutes
- rhythmical jerking
- irregular breathing, cyanosis, salivation
- tongue biting, incontinence

POST-ICTAL PHASE
- drowsiness/ sleep / LoC (up to several hours)

609
Q

Absence seizure

A

“blanking out” / staring
Absence of motor symptoms
Brief onset and termination

610
Q

Myoclonic seizure

A

repetitive, jerky movements

611
Q

Tonic seizure

A

generalised increase in tone => fall

612
Q

Atonic seizure

A

loss of muscle tone => fall

613
Q

Temporal seizure (focal)

A

Aura - fear/deja vu sensation

Smell / taste / sound distortions
Lip smacking / chewing

614
Q

Frontal seizure (focal)

A

Clonic movements spread proximally

615
Q

Occipital seizure (focal)

A

Visual disturbances

616
Q

Parietal seizure (focal)

A

Contralateral sensory disturbance
Tingling/numbness

617
Q

Todd’s paresis.

A

= when focal seizures are associated with temporary paresis of the originally affected limb after the attack

618
Q

Epileptic vs non-epileptic seizures

A

EPILEPTIC = Seizure due to excessive, hyper-synchronous neuronal discharge in the cerebral cortex

NON-EPILEPTIC = Seizures not involving abnormal electrical activity in the brain

619
Q

Dissociative Seizures

A

a type of non-epileptic seizure

Caused by mental or emotional processes, rather than by a physical cause.
=> E.g. Seizure can happen as a cut-off mechanism to prevent bad memories being relived.

Often caused by traumatic events
- Such as major accidents, bereavement, psychological stress (e.g. divorce), physical or sexual abuse, bullying.

620
Q

Seizures - Investigations

A
  1. History = MOST IMPORTANT
    - Frequency, triggers, length, symptoms
    - Any impairments, educational/psychological/social impacts
    - Video of seizure if possible
  2. Examination:
    - CNS and PNS
    - CVS and resp
    - Skin markers for neurocutaneous syndromes
  3. EEG
    - Can show neuronal excitability in epilepsy (sharp waves/complexes).
    - NB – may be normal in epilepsy or abnormal in non-epilepsy
    - If normal, consider sleep-deprived EEG/24hr ambulatory
  4. Imaging
    - MRI/CT – if neuro signs between seizures (r/o tumour or CVD)
    - PET/SPECT – detect areas of hypo/hypermetabolism
  5. Tests to r/o other causes
    - ECG – cardiac causes
    - Bloods – metabolic disturbances
    - FBC, U&Es, LFTs, Ca, Mg, glucose.
    - Toxicology/drug screen if indicated.
621
Q

Generalised seizures - immediate management

A

Most seizures will only last a few minutes and end spontaneously – best immediate management:
- Place the patient in the recovery position
- Remove harmful objects around them

If the seizure lasts over 3 minutes, or starts outside of hospital and is still ongoing once in hospital – treat as status epilepticus:

  • ABCDE
    => 100% oxygen, IV access, bloods including glucose, magnesium and calcium, VBG/ABG, ECG.
    => If hypoglycaemia, give IV glucose.
    => If any suspicion of alcohol withdrawal, give IV pabrinex.

IV/PR/SL Lorazepam
=> 2-4mg bolus, repeated after 5 mins if no response.

In females of childbearing age, perform pregnancy test.

If seizure is continuing despite x2 doses of lorazepam – initiate 2nd anti-convulsant.
=> Often IV phenytoin 15mg/kg slow infusion with continuous ECG monitoring.

If seizure is continuing 20 minutes from first presentation, then ICU should be called.
=> They may choose to intubate under GA.
=> Thiopentone = agent of choice.

622
Q

Long-term management of epilepsy

A

TRIGGER AVOIDANCE = VERY IMPORTANT
=> Common triggers are lack of sleep, alcohol/drugs, hypoglycaemia, caffeine, stress, flashing lights.

Most specialists will start AED treatment after 2 seizures, after ruling out organic causes.

Drug depends on type of seizure:

GENERALISED:
- 1st line is valproate (or Lamotrigine in females of child-bearing age).
- Adjuncts may be clobazam, carbamazepine or Levetiracetam
- Ethosuximide is generally 1st line for Absence seizures.

FOCAL:
- 1st line is Carbamazepine (or Lamotrigine in females of child-bearing age).
- Multiple adjuncts are used.

623
Q

Withdrawal from anti-epileptic medications

A

Withdrawal from AEDs may be considered if Pt is seizure free for 2-4 years.

Drug should be dose-reduced every 4 weeks

Patient has to stop driving for the withdrawal.

624
Q

Sodium valproate - SEs

A

Weight gain
Hair loss
Teratogenic

625
Q

Carbamazepine - SEs

A

Agranulocytosis
Teratogenic
CYP140 inducer
Hyponatraemia

626
Q

Phenytoin - SEs

A

Increased gum growth
Nystagmus
Enzyme inducer

Zero order kinetics, thus requires TDM

627
Q

Pregnancy and AEDs

A

Ideally patients should withdraw from AEDs if possible prior to conception.

However, treatment is preferable to hypoxic seizures during pregnancy

Carbamazepine, Valproate, and Phenytoin all lead to NTDs (although carbamazepine has the lowest risk of the 3)

Lamotrigine is now 1st line in a woman of child-bearing age and in pregnancy for generalised seizures.

Any drug should be given with 5mg folic acid daily in the 1st trimester and vitamin K in the 3rd trimester (due to risk of neonatal bleeding).

628
Q

Driving laws for seizures / epilepsy

A

Patients must tell the DVLA immediately and stop driving if they have had a seizure.

If the attack was whilst awake and involved LOC, the license will be revoked.

Patients can apply for their license back if they haven’t had a seizure for 6 months (after one seizure)

After repeated attacks (true epilepsy), you can reapply after 1 year being seizure free.

Patients with sleep-related epilepsy can drive if they have only had seizures while sleeping during the past 3 years.

629
Q

What features are required for a diagnosis of dementia?

A
  1. Evidence of memory loss
  2. At least one of:
    * Language impairment
    * Impaired executive function (e.g. problem solving, emotions).
    * Apraxia (difficulty motor planning)
    * Agnosia (difficulty recognising objects)
  3. No other medical or psychiatric explanation
  4. Present for at least 6 months
630
Q

What is Mild Cognitive Impairment ?

A

= evidence of early memory decline on formal memory tests (e.g. MMSE) without clinical evidence of the other features of dementia.

631
Q

Types of Dementia

A
  1. Alzheimer’s Disease – 2/3rd
  2. Vascular Dementia – 20%
  3. Lewy Body Dementia – 5%
  4. Frontotemporal Dementia – 2%
  5. Other rarer causes
632
Q

Alzheimer’s Disease - pathology

A

Characteristic beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles.

Brain atrophy, particularly the hippocampus.

Enlarged ventricles

Tends to be a gradual, progressive decline.

633
Q

Alzheimer’s Disease - presentation

A

= Progressive memory loss that affects function.

  • Forgets names, people, places
  • Repeat themselves
  • Cannot remember new info
  • Misplace items
  • Confusion about time of day
  • Problems finding words
  • Mood/behaviour problems
634
Q

Causes of Alzheimer’s Disease

A

Early onset (<65) there is some familial risk

Association with APO-E gene

Association with CVD risk factors.

635
Q

Vascular Dementia - pathophysiology

A

= 2nd most common type of dementia.

Caused by reduced blood supply to the brain
=> Due to diseased blood vessels

Usually stepwise progression
=> Stable and then sudden decline – e.g. after a stroke.

Risk factors – HTN, cholesterol, alcohol, smoking, DM, male, etc.

636
Q

Vascular Dementia - symptoms

A

= problems with memory, thinking and reasoning.

Problems planning/organising/decision making/problem solving.

Difficulty following steps/instructions

Slower thought speed

(Often overlaps with symptoms of Alzheimer’s)

637
Q

Lewy-Body Dementia - pathophysiology

A

Characterised by alpha-synuclein deposits in the brain.

Cause is unknown.

638
Q

Lewy-Body Dementia - symptoms

A

Early stages – hallucinations and delusions, mood swings/ short tempered, short attention span, fluctuating alertness.

Late stages – Motor deterioration, similar to Parkinson’s.

639
Q

Fronto-temporal dementia - symptoms

A

Different Variants:
- Behavioural (2/3)
- Progressive non-fluent aphasia
- Semantic dementia

Symptoms of behavioural variant:
- Loss of inhibition – rude and compulsive
- Personality changes – loss of interest in people, loss of sympapthy/empathy
- Crave food – often sweet/fatty, eat until vomit.
- Speech, language difficulties
- (A cognitive deficit is not so obvious).

640
Q

What are some rarer causes of dementia?

A
  • Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
  • Down’s Syndrome
  • Huntington’s
  • Multiple Sclerosis
  • Parkinson’s Disease Dementia
  • Creuzfeldt-Jakob disease
  • Pugilistic Dementia (repetitive head trauma).
641
Q

Dementia - Investigations

A

Detailed History (often collateral)
=> Duration of Sx, effects on ADLs
=> r/o dementia mimics – e.g. delirium/depression

Physical examination
=> CNS/PNS, gait, CVS, thyroid.

Blood tests +/- lumbar puncture
=> “Confusion bloods” = FBC, CRP, U&E, LFT, TFT, glucose, calcium, B12, folate.

Medication Review
=> Look for any correlation of medications and duration of symptoms

Cognitive tests – e.g. MMSE/MOCA

CT/MRI
=> To exclude other causes.

642
Q

“Confusion bloods”

A

= FBC, CRP, U&E, LFT, TFT, glucose, calcium, B12, folate.

643
Q

Dementia - Management

A

There is NO CURE – eventually progresses to dependence and palliative care.

  1. Referral to Psychiatric Services
    => Memory clinic, Rapid response Liaison Psychiatry (RRLP)
  2. Pharmacological – alleviate symptoms/slow progression
  3. Non-pharmacological
    - Social services care plan
    - OT input
    - Consider capacity – organise ADs/LPAs/DNACPRs while the patient still has capacity.
    - Cognitive Stimulation Therapy – may slow decline.
644
Q

Dementia - pharmacological management options

A

Cholinesterase Inhibitors – e.g. donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine.
=> Alzheimer’s, LBD and Parkinson’s (mild-moderate disease).

NMDA Receptor Antagonists – e.g. Memantine
=> Alzheimer’s only (moderate-severe disease).

NB – there is no treatment for vascular/FT dementia.

For behavioural/psychological symptoms, consider – anti-depressants, antipsychotics, laxatives, analgesia.

645
Q

Driving rules for patients on insulin

A

can drive a car as long as they have hypoglycaemic awareness, not more than one episode of hypoglycaemia requiring the assistance of another person within the preceding 12 months and no relevant visual impairment.

They are required to check their blood glucose levels every 2 hours when driving.