Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OPS 1 & 2 > Suppression Emergency > Flashcards

Suppression Emergency Flashcards

0
Q

The ________, the __________ at a scene, or the PIO are the ____ ________ who can ________________.

A

IC, Public Information Sector Officer, only personnel, release names of victims.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Recover and give immediate _________ to all living victims. Request ambulances for transportation for all living victims.

A

First aid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The FD should not remove a victim unless it is necessary to preserve the body. This is a function of the ____________ and _____________ on the scene.

A

Medical Examiner and Police Officers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Do not start salvage or clean up operations until ___________________.

A

The proper authority has erased the area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The ________ will be responsible for taking appropriate action when any _______ is done to __________. They will notify their _________ and the _________.

A

Company Officer, damage, private property.

District Officer, homeowner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When a ___________ requests any heavy equipment from another City department, a _____________ will be _________ to the scene and, if he approves the ___________ will request approval from the __________. The _______ will then notify dispatch who will then make proper arrangements.

A

Company Officer, District Officer, dispatched, District Officer, Deputy,
Deputy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is any aggressive act by civilians toward a fire dept member or any other city official while in the performance of their respective duty?

A

Violence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is any domestic emergency such as a riot, and/or public panic, that has the potential of causing or major damage to property?

A

Civil Distubance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Response levels will be initiated and/or escalated by the Fire Chief, or his designee, based on credible information from the ______________________________.

A

Oklahoma City Police Department Incident Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

RESPONSE LEVELS:

LEVEL I: __________

___________________ for specific facilities, stations, or districts, where threatening circumstances or conditions may show the possibility of civil disturbance or violence.

A

THREAT

An increased state if readiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

RESPONSE LEVELS:

LEVEL 2: ______________

________________________ against property or human life on a large scale.

A

ACTUAL DISTURBANCE

Actual physical violence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

INCIDENT RESPONSE PRIORITIES:

  1. Reports of life in danger in _____________________.
  2. ____________ structures.
  3. ____________ structures with _____________ exposures.
  4. ____________ structures.
  5. ____________ as resources permit.
A 
Occupied structures
Occupied
Vacant
Vital public utility
Other incidents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Personnel will not engage in _______________.

A

“Police actions”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For decisions to abandon an area, apparatus drivers will sound air horn by using ________________.

A

THREE HORN BLASTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Companies should work for a quick knockdown using deck guns and ladder pipes as much as possible. No personnel will be positioned at the __________________.

A

Aerial ladders tip.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In any event, __________________ have the primary responsibility for care of the patient.

A

Ambulance personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The decision to transport a patient by ambulance will be made by the patient, a family member, or under special circumstances by the police department, but not by __________________.

A

the fire department.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Complaints regarding EMSA or other transporting agency personnel are to be forwarded to ________________ in writing and by phone at 297-3465, or 520-8253 as soon as practical.

A

The QA Office in writing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The _____________ is responsible for all emergency operations being __________________ all existing _______________________.

A

Company Officer, in compliance with, Fire Department policies and procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

At emergency incidents where activities are judged by the ISO to be unsafe or to involve an imminent hazard, the ISO shall have the authority to __________________ those activities.

A

Suspend or terminate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The ______ may be the _____________, a separate individual appointed by the ____ or the ____________.

A

ISO, IC, IC, OCFD Fire Safety Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Safety Officer vests are located in the ISO Bag on all ____________ vehicles and shall be _____________ with the words “______________”.

A

District Officers, lime green, “SAFETY OFFICER”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The ISO shall ensure that the IC establishes a _____________________.

A

Rehabilitation Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The ISO shall use the OCFD Emergency Scene ______________ and the _________________________ located in the ________ on all District Officers vehicles.

A

Site safety plan, OCFD Incident Safety Officer Field Operations Guide,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

FIELD OPERATIONS GUIDE

Which color of pages are required on every emergency?

A

WHITE PAGES, pg 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

FIELD OPERATIONS GUIDE

Which pages are for Structure Fire Guides?

A

YELLOW PAGES, pg 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

FIELD OPERATIONS GUIDE

Which pages are for HAZMAT/Water and Special Operations Guides?

A

PINK PAGES, pg 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

FIELD OPERATIONS GUIDE

Which pages are for ISO Equipment Use Guides?

A

BLUE PAGES, pg 31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

SIZE-UP (________)

A

360 DEGREES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

COLLAPSE INDICATORS

  • Little or no progress on a fire after ___________ of operating well-placed hand lines.
A

10-12 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

COLLAPSE INDICATORS

  • Pesonnel fighting fire over or under ____________.
A

Large spans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

COLLAPSE INDICATORS

  • Walls, floors or ________________.
A

Ceilings severely burned, bowing or sagging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

COLLAPSE INDICATORS

  • ___________ of doors or windows.
A

Distortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

COLLAPSE INDICATORS

  • _______________ pulling away from supports.
A

Beam ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

COLLAPSE INDICATORS

  • _______ or __________ runoff.
A

Little, water runoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

COLLAPSE INDICATORS

  • ____________ developing and/or moving.
A

New cracks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

BACKDRAFT INDICATORS

  • High heat and little or no ___________.
A

Ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

BACKDRAFT INDICATORS

  • Smoke ___________________ or being ___________ back in.
A

Yellow/gray puffing, sucked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

BACKDRAFT INDICATORS

  • __________________ from cracks.
A

Pressurized smoke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

BACKDRAFT INDICATORS

  • Window glass/door ________________ with no visible flame.
A

Hot to the touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

BACKDRAFT INDICATORS

  • ___________________ running down the inside of windows.
A

Tar oily like substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

BACKDRAFT INDICATORS

  • __________ smoke in the building.
A

Swirling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

FLASHOVER INDICATORS

  • ______________________ fire in a room.
A

Significant free burning fire

43
Q

FLASHOVER INDICATORS

  • _____________ build-up in the area.
A

Increasing heat

44
Q

FLASHOVER INDICATORS

  • ______, _______, ______________ banking down inside the building.
A

Heavy, hot, dark smoke

45
Q

Which color cone identifies the Exclusion Zone or IDLH Condition?

A

Red Cone & Windsock

46
Q

Which color cone identifies the Hot Zone?

A

Yellow Cone

47
Q

Which color cone identifies the Warm Zone (Contamination Reduction Zone)?

A

Green Cone

48
Q

Which color cone identifies the Decontamination Corridor (Contamination Reduction Corridor)?

A

Orange Cone

49
Q

Which color cone identifies the Support Zone?

50
Q

Heat stress monitoring is mandatory for HAZMAT incidents if the air temperature is above ______.

A

70 degrees F

51
Q

Upon notification of an injury in the Exclusion Zone, the designated emergency signal ___________________ shall be sounded.

A

THREE HORN BLASTS

52
Q

The __________________ and ______________________ will evaluate the nature of the injury, and the affected person shall be decontaminated to the extent possible prior to movement to the Support Zone.

A

HAZMAT Safety Officer and Intervention Group Leader

53
Q

CLANDESTINE DRUG LABS EVAC PERIMETERS:

RESIDENTIAL

A

One house in all directions

54
Q

CLANDESTINE DRUG LABS EVAC PERIMETERS:

APARTMENT

A

All connecting apartments (up & down stairs)

55
Q

CLANDESTINE DRUG LABS EVAC PERIMETERS:

HIGHWAY

A

150 ft in all directions

56
Q

CLANDESTINE DRUG LABS EVAC PERIMETERS:

COMMERCIAL

A

Building involved

57
Q

During confined space rescue pre-entry Air surveillance equipment is on site and operating in the space. Obtain a reading every _______ at all levels within the space.

58
Q

All personnel within _______ of the water will wear a PFD.

59
Q

During dive/water incidents there will be a minimum of _____ divers on scene.

60
Q

AIM 450 SERIES CO MONITOR

Do not take monitor into areas GREATER than ______ degrees F or LESS than ______ degrees F.

61
Q

AIM 450 SERIES CO MONITOR

Safe environment for up to 8 hrs without SCBA

A

0 - 35 PPM

62
Q

AIM 450 SERIES CO MONITOR

Employees without an SCBA have 15 mins to evacuate the area.

A

35 - 180 ppm

63
Q

AIM 450 SERIES CO MONITOR

SCBA must be worn.

A

180 ppm or more

64
Q

BANNER GUARD

The _____________________________ banner guard is used to identify a zone(s) or area(s) that present a dangerous or hazardous condition to exclude all emergency scene personnel from entering.

A

Safety & Hazardous Materials

65
Q

BANNER GUARD

It is the responsibility of the _________________ to remove and dispose of the banner guard.

A

IC or their designee

66
Q

FALCON SUPER SONIC AIR HORN

Thread the valve horn assembly onto the can until safety seal is punctured. When you hear a hissing sound, screw approx ___________.

A

1 1/2 - 2 more turns.

67
Q

What incident shall be identified as any incident that occurs or has the potential to progress to a level at or above the fifth floor above ground level?

A

High Rise Incident

68
Q

HIGH RISE

The first arriving Crew Officer will establish command and operate in the _________________ unless the first officer is a District Officer.

A

Fast Attack/Investigation Mode

69
Q

HIGH RISE

If a working fire is confirmed, a High Rise Alarm will be called immediately! A High Rise Alarm is the equivalent to a ____ alarm response.

70
Q

HIGH RISE

The first arriving Officer will establish the Investigation Group. This group consist of ___________, and ____________. This group will proceed to the incident floor.

A

2 Engine Crews, 1 Rescue Ladder Crew

71
Q

HIGH RISE

What is defined as a fire that is beyond the capabilities of the Investigation Group’s ability to mitigate?

A

“Significant Fire”

72
Q

HIGH RISE

If a fire is confirmed, the Investigation Group companies will the. Be referred to by ________________.

A

their assignments. (ie fire attack, search, ventilation)

73
Q

HIGH RISE

_________ will be located 3 floors below the the fire.

74
Q

HIGH RISE

The Stairwell Support Officer will report to _________ and coordinate the transport of equipment via the stairwells from the lobby to staging.

  • ______ member per 2 floors.
  • ______ Officer per four or five members.
A

Logistics, One, One

75
Q

HIGH RISE

Base should be established a minimum of _____ ft from the building.

76
Q

HIGH RISE

According to NFPA _____, the maximum operating pressure for large diameter hose with Stortz couplings is ______ psi and should not be used to supply high-rise FDC’s.

A

NFPA 1962, 185 psi

77
Q

The difference in a Serie-Pump Operation from a normal ______________ is pressures pumped by the Engine located at the Hydra-Assist.

A

Hydra-Assist Operation

78
Q

_________________ is actually a short relay pump operation in which the pumper receiving water from the hydrant then pumps into the intake of the second pumper. This allows the _________ pumper to boost the pressure even higher.

A

Series Pumping, boost.

79
Q

It is well documented that typical fire dept centrifugal pumps operate at their highest gpm flow at ____ psi net discharge pressure. Any pressure above ____ psi results in a decrease of total gpm flow from the pump. As a rule of thumb, a _________ should be added into the operation for every ____ psi.

A

150 psi, pumper, 150 psi

80
Q

In a Series Operation, the pumper at the Hydra-Assist will pump ____ of the system pressure + ______________ to the Engine at the FDC.

A

1/2, friction loss

81
Q

2 types of elevators in service: ___________ and __________

A

ELECTRIC (TRTACTION) and MECHANICAL (HYDRAULIC)

82
Q

What do both types of elevators have in common?

A

With loss of electrical power both will stall secondary to both being powered by electric motors.

83
Q

Which type of elevator is found in buildings of all heights and is used exclusively above 6 or 7 floors?

A

Electric elevators

84
Q

__________ elevators can be lowered by bypassing the hydraulic fluid in the same manner as would be done with an ordinary hydraulic jack with a lowering valve. (Usually located in the machine room)

85
Q

_____________ elevators, which are powered by electric motor, are raised and lowered in a manner similar to that of a hydraulic jack, are found in buildings of _________________________ in height, do not have hoistway cables, and the machine room is usually found in or near the basement.

A

Hydraulic, NOT over 6 or 7 floors

86
Q

When an __________ elevator stalls, the machine brake is automatically applied mechanically.

A

electric

(hydraulic elevator does NOT have a brake)

87
Q

Common causes of elevator stalling are ________________, such as a _____ in the machine room, or _________________ on the door closing devices.

A

electrical power failure, fuse, poor electrical contact

88
Q

A major cause of elevator stalling would be a _____________________.

A

loss of electrical power to the buildiung.

89
Q

Large elevators such as hospital cars weigh approx ______ lbs and Small cars weigh about _______ lbs.

A

5000, 3500.

90
Q

When supporting an elevator car never ________ or ________. This can release the safeties and let the car fall.

A

pry up or lift it

91
Q

Who recommends that, “any evacuation of passengers from elevator cars be performed under the direct supervision of elevator personnel”?

A

American Society of Mechanical Engineers

“Guide For Emergency Evacuation Of Passengers From Elevators”

92
Q

What is the preferred and safest method for evacuating passengers from an elevator?

A

Move the elevator car to a landing level.

93
Q

UPON ARRIVAL:
The main disconnect switch must be in the “____” position (closed) and, if the car is so equipped the emergency stop switch must be in the “____” postion, not the “_____” position.

A

ON, RUN, STOP

94
Q

There is an identical ________________ on or beside the operational panel inside each elevator that has a travel distance of ______ or more. (switch is operable only after the main lobby switch has been keyed to the “____” position or the return of elevators has occurred because of a heat or smoke sensing device.)

A

3 position key switch, 70 feet, “ON “

95
Q

HOISTWAY DOOR KEYS:

  1. Otis, Dover, Esco, Hunter-Hayes and Montgomery:
    I. ________ key - older elevators: 8” or 10” shank
    II. ________ key - newer elevators: Turn away from door edge.
A

I. Lunar key

II. Drop key

96
Q

HOISTWAY DOOR KEYS:

  1. Westinghouse (Exclusively):
    I. _______ key - 8” or 10” shank.
A

I. T-slot key

Hays is NOT an elevator key

97
Q

If the elevator door is located more than _____ above or below the landing, it is not recommended to remove the passengers through the elevator door opening as the excessive distance between the car floor and the landing level creates a danger to the passenger of falling into the hoistway (use top or side exits instead).

98
Q

REMOVAL THROUGH TOP EMERGENCY EXIT:

  1. A ladder of sufficient length to extend at least _______ above the landing floor, should be lowered to the elevator car top and secured in position.
A

three (3) feet

99
Q

REMOVAL THROUGH TOP EMERGENCY EXIT:

  1. A firefighter wearing a _______ and _______ to a lifeline, should descend to the top of the stalled car. A ____________ ladder should be lowered through the top emergency exit and positioned between the elevator car floor and car top. This second ladder should be of sufficient length to extend at least ___________ above the car top.
A

safety belt, tied off, second ladder, three (3) feet.

100
Q

REMOVAL USING SIDE EMERGENCY EXIT:

• Move the rescue care using the ______________, ____________, or _______________ to line up the floors of the rescue car and the stalled car.

A

independent sevice, firefighters service, or inspection mode

101
Q

REMOVAL USING SIDE EMERGENCY EXIT:

• The mainline disconnect switches in the machine room for the stalled elevator and the rescue elevator should be set in the “____” position.

102
Q

REMOVAL USING SIDE EMERGENCY EXIT:

• If available, and evacuation bridge should be used. If one is not available, use a _____ plank to lay across the opening. The span should not exceed _________.

A

six (6) foot, 30 inches.

103
Q

ELEVATORS:

Ladders should extend a minimum of ______________ resting point.

A

3’ above

104
Q

ELEVATORS:

There are two types of manual controls no in use in Oklahoma City; _______________ and ________________

A

Independent service and Fire service

OPS 1 & 2 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions