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B's Republic E170/175 > Supplemental Study Guide Review Questions > Flashcards

Supplemental Study Guide Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What does the AMS provide?

A 
ECS (heating & cooling)
Engine start
Pressurization
Engine and Wing Anti-Ice
Water pressure
Hot air leak detection
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2
Q

The pressurization system consists of:

A 
Cabin outflow valve
Static pressure port
Negative pressure relief valve
Positive pressure relief valve
Cabin pressure controller
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3
Q

What provides air for the AMS?

A

Engine bleeds
APU bleed
External pneumatic source

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4
Q

What is external pneumatic air used for?

A

ECS on the ground

Engine start on the ground

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5
Q

Where is the external ground source panel located?

A

Lower fairing between the wings

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6
Q

What is the primary use for APU bleed air?

A

ECS on the ground
Engine starting on the ground
Asssit with engine start airborne (

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7
Q

How many bleed regulation valves are in each engine?

A

2 (1 high stage bleed valve and 1 engine bleed valve)

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8
Q

Where is bleed air tapped from the engine?

A

6th and 10th stage compressors (EBV and HSV respectively)

System alternates between valves to regulate an adequate and safe pressure

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9
Q

How would an APU or Engine bleed button show a detected leak?

A

An amber light illuminates on the button

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10
Q

What does the Overheat Detection System (ODS) observe?

A

Engine bleeds, packs (air conditioning ducts)
APU bleed
Plumbing for the wing and engine anti-icing system
Trim air (rear cabin temperature control on certain Delta aircraft)

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11
Q

How many ECS packs are on the aircraft? What provides air for the pack?

A

2 independent packs (left and right)

Each engine provides bleed air to its respective pack

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12
Q

Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?

A

Yes, up to FL310

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13
Q

What is the maximum altitude for single pack operation?

A

31,000 ft

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14
Q

Where do the packs distribute air to?

A

Pack 1 - Flight deck/Cabin

Pack 2 - Cabin

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15
Q

Can a single bleed source power both packs?

A

Yes, through the crossfeed valve

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16
Q

How many recirculation fans recirulate air back into the cabin and flight deck?

A

2

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17
Q

Which cargo bay(s) have ventilation fans?

A

Forward

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18
Q

What cargo compartment(s) may we transport live animals? Why?

A

Forward

It has air circulation

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19
Q

Pushing out the RECIRC button turns off?

A

Both recirculation fans

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20
Q

What keeps the 3 avionic E-BAYS cool?

A

FWD & MID E-BAY (3 fans each pull air from cabin to bay)

AFT E-BAY (Natural airflow from cabin to bay)

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21
Q

The AFT E-BAY has no fans but is it cooled?

A

Yes, from air flowing from PAX cabin and is expelled toward the recirculation bay

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22
Q

Where does the CPC get Landing Field Elevation (LFE)?

A

FMS or manual control on pressurization panel

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23
Q

Can the APU bleed be used for the anti-ice system?

A

No

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24
Q

What happens when the XBLEED button on the panel is pushed out?

A

It manually closes the crossbleed valve

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25
Q

The DUMP switch is used for?

A

Emergency evacuation
Fast cabin depressurization
Smoke evacuation

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26
Q

What happens when the DUMP button is pressed?

A

Sets the ECS packs and recirculation fans to OFF
Controls the outflow valve to maintain the cabin altitude rate of climb at 2000ft/min up to 12,400 ft
When the cabin altitude reaches 12,400 ft it commands the outflow valve full closed

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27
Q

Will the DUMP button work when the pressurization switch is in the manual mode?

A

NO, it only works in AUTO mode

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28
Q

Does the DUMP button work in Manual mode?

A

NO, only in AUTO mode but packs and recirc fans will shut down

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29
Q

Why does the DUMP button have a red-raised border around it?

A

So you can find it in low visibility conditions in the flight deck

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30
Q

The Outflow valve can be modulates ____ or ____?

A

automatically or manually

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31
Q

The MAN mode position allows manual control of:

A

Outflow valve

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32
Q

In the Manual mode, will the cabin depressurize on landing?

A

No

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33
Q

What are the DOWN/UP positions used for on the CABIN ALT selector knob?

A

Manually closes/opens the outflow valve to decrease/increase cabin altitude

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34
Q

What is the LFE CTRL selector position on the pressurization MODE selector knob used for?

A

Allows manual input of the landing field elevation

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35
Q

Is the pressurization system still in the AUTO mode when LFE is entered manually?

A

Yes

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36
Q

What color is the LFE on the EICAS?

A

Green - FMS input

Cyan - Manual input (an M will be in front of LFE)

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37
Q

Where does the CPCS get cruise flight level and landing elevation?

A

FMS before takeoff or CPCS calculates using ambient pressure

LFE may be manually inputted

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38
Q

How does the FA know if the temperature setting knob allows control over temperature?

A

An ENABLED LED turns on when Pilot selects ATTND position

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39
Q

What does a white striped bar mean?

A

Indicates a non normal position

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40
Q

What emergency equipment is located on the flight deck (8)

A 
Crash Axe
Escape Rope (2)
Fliashlight (2)
Oxygen Masks (3)
Life Vests (3)
Halon Fire Extinguisher
PBE
Heat Resistant Gloves
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41
Q

What lights does the annunciator test button not check?

A

Fire lights, GPU button, and parking brake ON light

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42
Q

How long will the emergency lights last once illuminated?

A

Approximately 10 minutes

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43
Q

How are the emergency lights powered?

A

Four dedicated Emergency Lights Power Units (ELPU) with internal batteries

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44
Q

When will the emergency lights automatically illuminate?

A

Provided the switch is ARMED, when the airplane loses electrical power

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45
Q

What are 3 ways the emergency lights can be turned on or automatically illuminate?

A

Electrical emergency, FA panel, or flight deck EMER LT switch

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46
Q

When will the reinforced flight dfeck door latch automaticall open?

A

30 sec after the EMERG ENTRY pushbutton is pressed if the INHIB pushbutton is not pressed

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47
Q

What happens if the flight crew pushes the INHIB button

A

Inhibits the EMERG ENTRY command from the flight deck door control panel in the passenger cabin for 500 seconds (8 min 20 sec)

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48
Q

Press and holding the cabin EMER ENTRY button for a short time iniates what?

A

EMER entry into the flight deck sequence starts

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49
Q

What is the purpose of the internal door handle vent flap?

A

Relieves residual cabin pressure prior to opening the door

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50
Q

What happens if a Pilot selects EMER on the audio panel?

A

A triple HI/LO chime sounds

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51
Q

What indication(s) are present to confirm whether or not the escape slides are armed or disarmed?

A

Armed - Red ARMED appears above the respective door handle

Disarmed - Green DISARMED appears

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52
Q

What pressurizes the potable water storage tank?

A

Engine or APU bleed air

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53
Q

How many displays and instruments are on during initial aircraft power-up?

A 
DUs 2,3
IESS
Clock
MCDU 2
CCD 1
Audio Control Panels
Compass backlight
Guidance panel
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54
Q

What is the width of the E170/175

A

85’4”

175 enhanced wingtip - 93’11”

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55
Q

If not turned on in the MCDU when does the DVDR Flight data recording automatically operate?

A

First engine start

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56
Q

How many DVDRs are installed?

A

2

1 FWD and 1 AFT

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57
Q

Can the CVR be erased?

A

Yes, when the aircraft is on the ground and the parking brake is set

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58
Q

How many PBEs do we have?

A

4

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59
Q

What is the APU used for?

A

Electrical and Bleed Air

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60
Q

What monitors and controls the APU?

A

Its own dedicated FADEC

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61
Q

How are the batteries used for APU start?

A

BATT 2 powers APU START bus

BATT 1 powers the FADEC and EICAS for monitoring

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62
Q

What is the fuel source for the APU?

A

Right fuel tank

Left fuel tank through crossfeed valve

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63
Q

What fuel pump is used for APU start? (3)

A

Batteries ‘ON’ only - DC fuel pump
AC powered aircraft - AC fuel pump 2
Right engine running - Ejector fuel pump

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64
Q

When does the APU electrical and pneumatic loading become available?

A

3 sec after the APU speed reaches 95%

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65
Q

Will the APU shutdown automatically if the APU fails to start within the normal start cycle time period?

A

Yes

66
Q

What does moving the APU selector know to OFF do?

A

Initiates normal APU shutdown
1 minute cool down followed by a spooldown period
Pneumatics removed immediately
Electrical power removed after 1 minute cool down

67
Q

Can the APU electrical power be used during the cooldown period?

A

Yes

68
Q

If you need the APU 50 seconds into shutdown is there a way to get its use back?

A

Yes, just turn the APU master switch back to ON

69
Q

Can the APU shutdown be cancelled?

A

Yes, move APU MASTER switch to ON before 1 minute cool down is complete

70
Q

How can the APU be shutdown immediately?

A

APU EMER STOP button

No 1 min cool down period

71
Q

When will automatic shutdown of the APU occur?

A

Ground - All conditions

Flight - Overspeed, Underspeed, FADEC critical fault

72
Q

When do we get the red bar on the APU EMER STOP button?

A

An APU fire is detected

73
Q

What happens when the APU EMER STOP button is pushed?

A

The APU fuel shutoff valve closes and the APU will shut down with no cooling period. A white stripe illuminates on the button

74
Q

Does the cool down period apply to the EMER STOP button to the APU?

A

NO

75
Q

What is the maximum altitude for operation of the APU bleed?

A

15,000 feet

76
Q

What is the maximum altitude for APU operation?

A

33,000 feet

77
Q

What is the maximum altitude for APU start?

A

30,000 feet

78
Q

Up to what altitude may the APU assist in engine start?

A

21,000 feet

79
Q

In normal operations on the ground, which tank does the APU burn from?

A

Right tank

80
Q

How many networks make up the electrical system on the aircraft? Why?

A

2 independent networks

Segregation and fault isolation

81
Q

What components power the AC system?

A 
2 Integrated Drive Generators (IDG)
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
Inverter
Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
AC GPU receptacle
82
Q

What components power the DC system?

A

2 NiCad batteries
3 Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU)
DC GPU receptacle

83
Q

What is the AC electrical systems priority?

A 
RAGO
On-Side (Respective IDG)
Inside (APU generator)
Outside (GPU if on the ground)
Cross-Side (Opposite IDG)
84
Q

Which AC source has priority, the APU or GPU

A

APU has priority and will automatically switch when the APU is up and running

85
Q

How can you tell that the APU generator has automatically taken over the electrical load?

A

AVAIL light on the GPU button, and the MFD electrical page shows green on APU icon

86
Q

During “normal operation”, will a failed IDG de-power the respective AC BUS?

A

No

One IDG can power the entire electrical system

87
Q

What are the two lights next to the IDGs?

A

Indicates which IDG must be disconnected

Also associated with an EICAS message

88
Q

When would the amber IDG oil indicator light illuminate?

A

High Oil Temperature, Low Oil Pressure (HOTLOP)

Annunciation test button

89
Q

What is the purpose of a TRU?

A

Convert AC to DC

90
Q

What is the purpose of an Inverter?

A

Convert DC to AC

91
Q

Can the APU fully replace a failed IDG?

A

Yes

92
Q

What does it mean when the GPU switch says AVAIL?

A

Coltage/Amperage/Frequency are within limits

93
Q

If the airplane is using the C GPU and the APU is started, what should the pilot be sure to do?

A

Deselect the AC GPU button so the power can be connected the next time it is used

94
Q

What happens with BATT 1 selector ON or OFF?

A

ON: battery connected to the DC ESS BUS 1
OFF: battery powers HOT BATT BUS 1

95
Q

What will charge BATT 1 and BATT2?

A

Any AC power source

96
Q

In which BATT switch position are the HOT BATTERY BUSSES powered?

A

HOT BATTERY BUSSES are always powered regardless of the switch position

97
Q

What is on HOT BATT BUS 1

A 
Engine Fire Extinguisher 1A & 2A
Fuel Shutoff Valve 1
Hydraulic Shutoff Valve 1
Engine 1 OIl Level Indication
Courtesy/Service LIghts FWD
DC Ceiling Lights
98
Q

What is on HOT BATT BUS 2

A 
Engine Fire Extinguisher 1B & 2B
Fuel Shutoff Valve 2
Hydraulic Shutoff Valve 2
Engine 2 Oil Level Indication
Refueling Panel
Water & Waste System
CMC
99
Q

Below what voltage would you have to call maintenance?

A

21 volts

100
Q

Below what voltage must the batteries be charged?

A

22.0 volts.

Ref SOP

101
Q

How many batteries are required for APU start? How are they used?

A

2
BATT 2 powers the APU Start Bus
BATT 1 powers the APU FADEC & EICAS for monitoring

102
Q

Is BATT 1 necessary to start the APU?

A

Yes

BATT 1 powers the APU FADEC

103
Q

Why does battery 1 have ON but no AUTO setting?

A

Battery 1 does not require automation during APU start

104
Q

Why does battery 2 have an AUTO setting?

A

To allow it to power the APU START BUS

105
Q

What is the minimum battery temperature for APU start?

A

-20*C on BATT 2

106
Q

For APU start how would you bypass a cold battery ad what temperature is too cold?

A

DC GPU and <20*C

107
Q

What is the purpose of the DC GPU receptacle?

A

For APU start is battery 2 temperature is

108
Q

Can the DC GPU charge the batteries?

A

No

109
Q

When will the RAT deploy?

A

Automatically deploys if AC BUSES are not powered

Manually by Pilot (RAT manual deploy handle)

110
Q

Is there an altitude restriction for operation of the RAT?

A

No

111
Q

Will the RAT supply power immediately after automatic deployment?

A

No, there is an 8 sec delay during which time the batteries supply power

112
Q

If you start an engine at the gate with the GPU, is the electrical system split? Why?

A

Yes

IDG will power one side and GPU will power the other

113
Q

What is available during an electrical emergency (batteries on during power-up)?

A 
DU 2 and 3
Guidance Panel
CCD1
MCDU 2
Clock
IESS
Audio Control Panels
Compass backlight
114
Q

Whenever the electrical load increases beyond the system limit what happens?

A

Load sheds galley and the right windshield heating

115
Q

What happens when the ignition switch is selected to OVRD?

A

Activates both igniters on the ground or in flight

116
Q

Can the igniters be turned off during flight?

A

The switch may be moved to the OFF position but the FADEC disregards the command

117
Q

What controls the engine?

A

FADEC

118
Q

What controls engine starting and provides hung start, hot start, and no light off protection?

A

The FADEC

119
Q

Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?

A

Only on the ground for a hot start, hung start, or no light-off

120
Q

Is there protection for hot starts or hung starts during an in flight start?

A

No

121
Q

How are engine thrust ratings controlled?

A

FADEC

122
Q

What does the cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during approach? When does it appear?

A

Minimum N1 for bleed requirements in incing conditions

Configured for landing when anti-ice is ON

123
Q

How is the N1 limit indicated on the EICAS?

A

Red tickmark on the N1 gauge

124
Q

What sources are available for engine starting?

A

APU
Ground Source (huffer cart or air bottle)
Opposite engine (crossbleed start)
Windmill start

125
Q

Where is external air for an air start connected? Will the crew have an indication when external air is connected?

A

Lower section of the wing fairing area

Duct pressure is shown on the MFD STATUS page

126
Q

What happens after 3 overspeed detection events within 30 sec?

A

FADEC will not relight the engine

127
Q

What does WML mean on the engine indication?

A

Windmilling engine

FADEC has detected a flame-out and the autorelight system is actuating the restart the engine

128
Q

Where can the crew check engine oil quantity?

A

MFD Status page

129
Q

What is ATTCS?

A

Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System

130
Q

What does ATTCS do?

A

Provides max thrust reserve (RSV) according to current rate previously selected via the MCDU on the T/O Dataset page

131
Q

What will trigger an ATTCS event?

A

N1 difference > 15% between engines
Engine failure during takeoff or go-around
Windshear detection

132
Q

How can the Pilot command RSV power?

A

By moving the thrust levers to MAX position whenever the ATTCS is armed

133
Q

When is thrust reverse available?

A

weight-on-wheels (ground use only)

134
Q

Thrust reverser must be stowed below what airspeed?

A

60 KIAS

135
Q

What position must the thrust levers be in to enable the thrust reverser trigger?

A

Idle

136
Q

If the thrust lever is placed in the MAX REV position and then releases, it does what?

A

It is spring loaded back to the MIN REV position

137
Q

What happens if a thrust reverse inadvertently deploys?

A

FADEC limits respective engine thrust to IDLE

138
Q

Can you deploy the thrust reverser on an engine that has failed on the landing roll?

A

Yes, up to 30 sec following the failure, then it is locked out

139
Q

What is a Flexible Thrust Takeoff?

A

Reduced thrust takeoff on assumed temperature

140
Q

What is the maximum flex allowed?

A

25% reduction

141
Q

If you input a flex of 34 that change it to 39, how will it affect your N1 target?

A

It will drop your N1 target

142
Q

Use of reduced takeoff thrust procedures is not allowed on?

A

Runways contaminated with standing water, slush, snow, or ice and are not allowed on wet runways unless suitable performance accountability is made for the increased stopping distance on the wet runway surface

143
Q

Can you FLEX with windshear advisories in effect?

A

No

144
Q

FLEX takeoffs are prohibited when?

A

Runway is contaminated
Windshear advisories are in effect and/or windshear is suspected
Runway performance does not allow for FLEX power

145
Q

If you turn the START/STOP to STOP in flight, will the engine shutdown?

A

Not until the Thrust Lever is at IDLE

146
Q

What happens to the bleed pressure during a crossbleed start?

A

Bleed pressure will drop and does not require the thrust lever to be adjusted to maintain pressure

147
Q

What aircraft systems have fire detection and protection?

A

Engine
APU
Cargo compartments
Lavatories

148
Q

The flight deck fire test tests which systems?

A

Engine fire
APU fire
Cargo smoke detection system
(DOES NOT TEST LAV)

149
Q

What happens if you hold the fire test button for more than 10 sec?

A

APU will shut down

150
Q

Are the flight deck and cabin protected from fire?

A

Yes
Flight deck - 1 hand held fire extinguisher
Cabin - 4 hand held fire extinguishers

151
Q

Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine?

A

Yes

152
Q

What happens when an engine fire handle is pulled?

A

Closes the respective fuel SOV
Closes the respective engine hydraulic SOV
Closes the respective engine bleed SOV
Closes the X-BLEED SOV

153
Q

Does pulling the engine fire handle discharge the bottle?

A

No

154
Q

Will the Fire handle work without power on the aircraft?

A

Yes

Fire Extinguisher, Hydraulic SOV, and Fuel SOV are on the HOT BATT BUS

155
Q

Describe the engine and APU fire detection system.

A

Engine and APU monitored by two detector loops

156
Q

What is an indication of an APU fire?

A

Fire Bell and Master Warning triple chime
Red stripe in the APU EMER STOP button
APU FIRE EICAS message
Master Warning Lights

157
Q

Will the APU automatically shutdown on the ground for a fire? In flight for a fire?

A

On the ground - 10 sec after APU fire detection and the EMER STOP button has not been pressed
In flight - NO

158
Q

What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is pushed after a fire has been detected?

A

APU shuts off immediately without a 1 minute cooldown
APU fuel SOV closes
Red striped bar is replaced by the white striped bar, indicating the APU has shut down
APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates entirely red

159
Q

What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is not pushed after a fire has been dectected?

A

After 1 minute the APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates

160
Q

What does it take for the APU fire extinguisher light to illuminate?

A

APU EMER STOP button has been pushed in when an APU fire has been detected
OR
60 sec after an APU fire has been detected and no PIlot action has occurred

161
Q

When do we get the red bar on the APU EMER STOP button?

A

APU fire is detected

162
Q

Page 9-21

A

question 20 (231 of 338)

B's Republic E170/175 (3 decks)

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