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summer D3 Flashcards

1
Q

1.) Appointments required for Diagnostic Exam for pros (Stewart’s 119)

A

2

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2
Q

2.) 5 things accomplished in first appt pros (Stewart’s 119)

A

2.)thorough health history Preliminary oral cavity exam
Dental prophylaxis
Radiographic survey
Accurate max and mand impressions

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3
Q

3.) 4 major patient psychological categories by Dr. MM House (Stewart’s 120)

A

3.) Philosophical Hysterical Exacting Indifferent

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4
Q

4.) Patient’s with Systolic pressure exceeding ____ or diastolic exceeding _____ should be considered to have a potentially serious medical condition indicating a medical consult (Stewart’s 120)

A

4.) 130mmHg 90mmHg

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5
Q

5.) 2 oral conditions seen in uncontrolled diabetes (Stewart’s 121)

A

5.) small oral abscesses Poor tissue tone

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6
Q

6.) Diabetic patients have what oral condition that can make prosthesis wear difficult as well as increase caries risk (Stewart’s 121)

A

6.) reduced salivary output

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7
Q

7.) Paget’s disease can cause enlargements where that can change fit of prosthesis (Stewart’s 121)

A

7.) maxillary tuberosities

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8
Q

8.) Patient with this disease will show enlargement of the mandible which can change fit of prosthesis (Stewart’s 121)

A

8.) Acromegaly

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9
Q

9.) Neurological disease causing rhythmic muscle contractions making prosthesis planning as well as wear difficult (Stewart’s 121)

A

9.) Parkinson’s Disease

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10
Q

10.) Disease with oral bullae showing first then moving onto the skin (Stewart’s 12

A

10.) Pemphigus vulgaris

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11
Q

11.)Consideration for material use when making a RPD for an epileptic patient (Stewart’s 121)

A

11.) all material radiopaque in case swallowed or aspirated during seizure

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12
Q

12.) 2 things usually indicated with increasing age (Stewart’s 123)

A

12.) need for some type of prosthesis
Need for prescription or OTC meds that can affect
dental treatment

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13
Q

13.) Most significant side effect of antihypertensive drugs (Stewart’s 123)

A

13.) Orthostatic hypotension

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14
Q

14.) What usually initiates bruxism (Stewart’s 125)

A

14.) interceptive occlusal cotacts/occlusal permaturities

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15
Q

15.) Physical characteristics to note during interview (Stewart’s 126)

A

15.) Neuromuscular/neuromotor deficits
Length and mobility of lips
Decreased vertical dimension of occlusion (VDO) Speech problems

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16
Q

16.) Most important measure to minimize disease transmission between patients and dental care providers is (Stewart’s 127)

A

16.) routine use of gloves

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17
Q

7.)Must custom trays, record bases, and occlusion rims be disinfected after construction (Stewart’s 129)

A

17.) yes. Stewart’s says 2 min sodium hypochlorite application

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18
Q

18.) Impressions should be loosely wrapped in plastic and set aside for how many minutes after rinsing with water and disinfecting (Stewart’s 129)

A

no less than 2 min

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19
Q

19.) Casts poured no more than _____mins after removal of alginate from mouth (Stewart’s 129)

A

12 minutes

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20
Q

20.) 3 responsibilities of dentist to explain for patient oral hygiene (Stewart’s 130)

A

20.) signs and symptoms of disease

Materials and techniques for proper home care Patient’s responsibility to prevent further dental disease

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21
Q

21.) radiograph essential for determining the crown-to- root ratio (or crown-to-rut ratio if you are Dr. Gunsolley) and the condition of the periodontal tissues
(Stewart’s 130)

A

PA

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22
Q

22.) Radiograph helpful to identify interproximal caries on the remaining teeth (Stewart’s 130)

A

BW

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23
Q

23.) radiograph ideal for screening for pathologic conditions (Stewart’s 130)

A

Pan

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24
Q

26.) Serve as blueprints for placements of restorations, recontouring of teeth, and the preparation of rest seats (Stewart’s 130)

A

26.) surveyed and marked diagnostic casts

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25
Q

27.) Casts are normally mounted and evaluated during which diagnostic appointment, first or second (Stewart’s 130)

A

27.) second (get facebow record at second app)

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26
Q

28.) Material of choice for diagnostic impressions (Stewart’s 131

A

28.) Irreversible hydrocolloid/alginate

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27
Q

29.) Is the accuracy of irreversible hydrocolloid affected by changes in the water-powder ratio (Stewart’s 132)

A

29.) No, will only change consistency and setting time

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28
Q

30.) type of measurement performed using a scoop. It is inaccurate because the powder can be loose or tightly packed within the scoop (Stewart’s 132)

A

30.) Volumetric measurement

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29
Q

31.) measurement technique that is the preferred method for alginate powder (Stewart’s 13

A

weight measurement

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30
Q

32.) Alginate weight used for most impressions (Stewart’s 132)

A

28 g

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31
Q

33.) amount of water mixed with the 28g of alginate powder (Stewart’s 132)

A

68-72 mL

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32
Q

34.) Manufacturer recommended temperature of water for alginate impressions (Stewart’s 132)

A

34.) 22°C/72°F

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33
Q

35.) What can increase the working time of alginate (Stewart’s 132)

A

35.) refrigerate mixing bowl and water

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34
Q

36.) 2 primary mechanisms of distortion of alginate impressions resulting in inaccurate diagnostic casts (Stewart’s 133)

A

36.) evaporation

Absorption of liquids/imbibitions

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35
Q

38.) results in localized expansion of completed impression (Stewart’s 133)

A

38.) imbibitions

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36
Q

39.) Should alginate impressions ever be wrapped in wet paper towel or immersed in a liquid and why (Stewart’s 133)

A

39.) No, risks imbibitions

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37
Q

40.) 3 factors contributing to alginate sticking to teeth (Stewart’s 134)

A

40.) impression done after thorough polishing Teeth dry

Repeated impressions

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38
Q

41.) Impression trays of choice for RPD impressions (Stewart’s 134)

A

41.) Nonperforated metal trays

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39
Q

42.) Most important factor in determining impression tray size (Stewart’s 134)

A

42.) width of dental arch

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40
Q

43.) Should be clearance of ___mm to ___mm between inner flange of tray and the facial surfaces of the remaining teeth and soft tissue (Stewart’s 134)

A

5-7 mm

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41
Q

44.) 3 techniques to prevent gagging during impression making (Stewart’s 136)

A

44.) pt sits upright
Max tray modified posterior to stop alginate flow down throat
Use astringent mouthwash or cold water rinse immediately prior to making impression

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42
Q

46.) Minimum time to spatulate alginate (Stewart’s 140)

A

45 sec

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43
Q

47.) Most consistent method for alginate spatulation (Stewart’s 140)

A

47.) mechanical under vacuum (20lbs for 15 sec)

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44
Q

48.) Stewart’s suggests making which impression first and why (Stewart’s 140)

A

48.) Mandibular. Less discomfort, increases patient confidence

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45
Q

49.) Gelation of alginate impression material complete within ___ min (Stewart’s 141)

A

49.) 2-3 min

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46
Q

51.) Stewart’s says to leave an alginate impression in the mouth how long after the loss of surface tackiness to allow development of additional strength (Stewart’s 142)

A

2-3 min

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47
Q

58.) All gympsum products (both plaster and stone) require what water-powder ration (Stewart’s 146)

A

58.) 18.61 mL to 100g powder

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48
Q

59.) What is formed when water is added to powder for dental plaster or stone (Stewart’s 146)

A

59.) calcium sulfate dehydrate

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49
Q

63.) Dental stone indicated for diagnostic and master casts (Stewart’s 147)

A

63.) minimal expansion. ADA type III or type IV stone

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50
Q

66.) In 2 stage pour, the initial pour is allowed to go to initial set, which is ____ min (Stewart’s 148)

A

66.) 12-15 min

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51
Q

67.) What is done with the initial pour cast after initial set, before putting on second pour (Stewart’s 148)

A

67.) soak in clear slurry water for 4-5 min

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52
Q

68.) supersaturated solution of calcium sulfate made by placing chips of dental stone in water for 48 hrs (Stewart’s 148)

A

68.)Clear Slurry

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53
Q

69.) Benefit of clear slurry soak of first pour (Stewart’s 148)

A

69.) allows wetting of 1st pour without dissolution of stone

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54
Q

71.) How long after the first pour should the cast and impression be separated (Stewart’s 149)

A

71.) 45-60 min

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55
Q

72.)Maximum time alginate should be allowed to stay in contact with stone cast (Stewart’s 149)

A

72.) 60 min

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56
Q

74.) Base of cast trimmed to what thickness (Stewart’s 150)

A

74.) 10-13 mm thick at the thinnest point with occlusal plane parallel to the deck

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57
Q

75.) Where is a mandibular cast thinnest, and where is a maxillary cast thinnest (Stewart’s 150)

A

75.) Mandibular thinnest in lingual sulcus Maxillary thinnest at center of hard palate

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58
Q

77.) Land area of ___ mm trimmed around entire cast (Stewart’s 150)

A

77.)2-3 mm

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59
Q

81.) Most common cause of surface roughness of dental casts (Stewart’s 152)

A

81.) adherence of alginate to enamel

60
Q

82.) leaving alginate in contact with cast greater than 60 min after initial pour causes (Stewart’s 152)

A

82.) surface etching (soft, chalky surface)

61
Q

83.) 3 phases of mounting a cast (Stewart’s 160)

A

83.) orient maxillary cast to articulator condylar elements via facebow
Orient mandibular cast to maxillary cast via centric relation record
Verification

62
Q

84.) Most facebows rely on what hinge axis: true or arbitrary (Stewart’s 160)

A

arbitrary

63
Q

86.) one of the most commonly used points for the arbitrary hinge axis . It is 13 mm anterior to the margin of the tragus on an imaginary line between the posterior margin of the tragus and the outer canthus of the eye (Stewart’s 161)

A

86.) Beyron’s point

64
Q

87.) Frankfurt horizontal

A

87.) plane established by the infraorbital notch and the external auditory meatus openings is approximately parallel to…(Stewart’s 161)

65
Q

Centric relation is what type of relationship (Stewart’s 166)

A

.) bone-to-bone, and independent of tooth contact

66
Q

91.) most common cause of bruxism, accelerated wear and TMD (Stewart’s 167)

A

91.) interferences between Centric Relation and Maximum Intercuspation

67
Q

102.) When is splinting with a fixed partial denture indicated (Stewart’s 186)

A

102.) First premolar and molars are lost and 2nd premolar is to be used as an abutment

68
Q

Adequate tissue rest time

A

removes prostheses 6-8 hrs/day

69
Q

4 tissue reactions related to prostheses

A

papillary hyperplasia Epulis fissuratum
Denture stomatitis
Soft Tissue displacement

70
Q

3 most common undercut areas

A

maxillary tuberosities Distolingual areas of mandible Recent extraction sites

71
Q

Lingual bar major connector must be minimum___ height

A

5 mm

72
Q

2 disorders where the Lamina dura is completely lost radiographically`

A

Paget’s Disease Hyperparathyroidism

73
Q

More common cause of loss of lamina dura

A

Function

74
Q

Pre-prosthetic surgery to remove a soft tissue maxillary tuberosity should have what healing time

A

112.) 7-10 days

75
Q

Pre-prosthetic surgery to remove a boney maxillary tuberosity should have what healing time

A

2-3 weeks

76
Q

Maximum amount of enamel that can be removed in enamelplasty to try and even an occlusal plane

A

2mm

77
Q

Percent of patients with a noticeable discrepancy between CR and MI(

A

90%

78
Q

2 most common causes of bruxism

A

occlusal interferences b/w CR and MIP Occlusal contacts on Non-working side

79
Q

6 indicators to construct RPD at CR

A

1-coincidence of CR and MIP
2-Absence of posterior tooth contacts
3-All posterior tooth contacts will be restored with fixed prosthodontics
4-Few remaining posterior contacts
5-Existing occlusion can be made acceptable with minor occlusal equilibration
6-Clinical symptoms of occlusal trauma

80
Q

4 broad diagnostic categories for placing a patient in one of the 4 Prosthodontic Diagnostic Index (PDI) classes

A

location and extent of edentulous areas
Condition of abutments
Occlusion
Residual ridge characteristics

81
Q

4 basic parts of every dental surveyor

A

level platform
Vertical column
Horizontal arm
Surveying arm

82
Q

From which point of view is the tilt of the cast described

A

looking at posterior surface

83
Q

What is the unchangeable rule when surveying diagnostic casts

A

retentive undercuts must be present on abutment teeth when cast is at horizontal tilt

84
Q

Dislodging forces of an RPD are always directed in what relation to the occlusal plane

A

perpendicular

85
Q

Each of the proposed abutments should display how much undercut at the most desirable location

A

0.010-inch

86
Q

If wrought-wire clasp planned the retentive undercut should be how much to allow for the greater flexibility of the wrought wire

A

0.0150-inch

87
Q

Where a bony prominences often encountered

A

facial surfaces mandibular canines and premolars

88
Q

Teeth that are exceptions to teeth drifting mesially to fill in edentulous spaces

A

mandibular canines and premolars. Move distally

89
Q

How many paths of insertion will an RPD have it there is one or more missing anterior teeth

A

single

90
Q

Guiding planes contact what part of RPD

A

minor connector

91
Q

Guiding planes are always parallel to ____ and are ____ in height

A

path of insertion 2-4 mm high

92
Q

Guiding planes purpose

A

stabilize prosthesis against lateral forces

93
Q

Which of the four factors for determining tilt of cast is the most easily compromised

A

guiding planes

94
Q

Most influential factor for determining whether prosthesis will have one or more paths of insertion

A

whether or not edentulous spaces are tooth bounded

95
Q

Components of the RPD that govern the path of insertion

A

minor connectors

96
Q

Is RPD a form of treatment or a cure

A

treatment only

97
Q

Class I prosthesis (Bilateral posterior edentulous spaces) require how many clasp assemblies

A

2

98
Q

What clasp material should be used to engage a mesiobuccal undercut in a Class I prosthesis

A

wrought wire

99
Q

Class II prosthesis (Unilateral posterior edentulous space) requires how many clasp assemblies

A

3

100
Q

What should be the placement of the clasps on the dentate portion of a Class II prosthesis

A

one as far posterior and one as far anterior as contours and esthetics permit

101
Q

What is the purpose of indirect retention

A

neutralize unseating forces

102
Q

What is the limit for indirect retainer placement

A

no more anterior than canines

103
Q

Class I prosthesis (bilateral posterior edentulous spaces) should have how many indirect retainers

A

2

104
Q

How many indirect retainers are adequate for a Class II prosthesis (unilateral posterior edentulous

A

One. Located on side opposite distal extension as far from fulcrum line as possible

105
Q

Class III prosthesis (posterior tooth-bounded edentulous space) requires how many clasps

A

4

106
Q

Does a Class III prosthesis (posterior tooth- bounded edentulous space) require indirect retention

A

no

107
Q

How far should a maxillary major connector be positioned from tooth-tissue junctions

A

6 mm

108
Q

3 major advantages of I-bar configuration

A

food accumulation minimized

Clasp terminus disengages when distal extension loaded Minimized lateral forces

109
Q

Common site for maxillary indirect retainer site

A

maxillary canine

110
Q

Common site for mandibular indirect retainer site

A

mesial fossa of mandibular first premolar

111
Q

Of the 6 Phases of RPD treatment, during which phase is the mouth prepared for the RPD (WS1 ppt)

A

Phase 2

112
Q

When planning preparation of the mouth, what is planned first (WS1 ppt)

A

worst first

113
Q

When is an interference allowed in excursive movements with an RPD (WS1 ppt)

A

when C/RPD

114
Q

When do abutment preparations for the RPD come in Phase 2(WS1 ppt)

A

at end of Phase 2 after ODCT

115
Q

Recall schedule Post RPD delivery (Phase 5) (WS1 ppt)

A

24 hr recall, 7-14 days recall, 1 mouth recall

116
Q

3 questions to ask when evaluating dentures of a new patient (WS2 ppt)

A

are the dentures good enough Do I need to fix them

Should new ones be made

117
Q

What is the interocclusal clearance in the premolar region for mandibular rest position (WS 2 ppt)

A

2-4 mm

118
Q

How should the maxillary incisal edges relate to the contour of the lower lip when smiling (WS 2 ppt)

A

follow contour lower lip

119
Q

resistance to denture movement when occlusalward forces are applied (WS2 ppt)

A

retention

120
Q

resistance to denture movement when tissueward forces are applied (WS 2 ppt)

A

stability

121
Q

Chewing instructions for dentures (WS2 ppt)

A

no incising, chew bilaterally simultaneously, vertical chewing strokes

122
Q

the RPD framework must contact at least ___ teeth(WS 2 ppt)

A

3 teeth

123
Q

What is the vertical and horizontal displaceability of natural teeth (WS4 ppt)

A

0.03 mm

124
Q

What is the vertical and horizontal displaceability of artificial teeth (WS4 ppt)

A

vert 0.4mm, horizontal can be up to several mm

125
Q

How are artificially teeth placed posteriorly: more lingually or buccally (WS4 ppt)

A

Lingually

126
Q

type of contacts used to stabilize the dentures during function in the artificial dentition (WS4 ppt)

A

balancing contacts

127
Q

These forces can be adapted to in the natural dentition, but are not adapted to and can produce symptoms in the artificial dentition

A

non-vertical forces

128
Q

) What is not desirable in artificial dentition that will cause destabilizing forces on the maxillary complete denture ( WS4 ppt)

A

mutually protected occlusion

129
Q

What is the envelope of function for artificial dentition (WS4 ppt)

A

up and down versus the teardrop envelope of natural dentition

130
Q

natural vs artificial dentition closing force (WS4 ppt)

A

5-175 lbs for natural vs 22-24 lbs artificial

131
Q

Malocclusion in natural vs artificial dentition (WS4 ppt)

A

natural dentition malocclusion may be uneventful for years while artificial dentition malocclusion will have an immediate response

132
Q

Ideal occlusal plane should be higher where: anterior or posterior (WS4 ppt)

A

higher posterior

133
Q

What is the width determination for a maxillary central incisor (WS5 ppt, pg384)

A

pt’s bizygomatic width divided by 16

134
Q

Complete denture occlusal schemes (WS5 ppt)

A

neutrocentric
Balanced w/ cusped teeth
Lingualized
Balanced with monoplane teeth set to curve

135
Q

Natural dentition occlusal schemes (WS5ppt)

A

anterior guidance
Group function
Progressive disclusion

136
Q

Anterior reference point for establishing plane of occlusion (WS5 ppt)

A

Maxillary central incisal edge

137
Q

Posterior reference point for establishing plane of occlusion (WS5 ppt)

A

1⁄2-2/3 up retromolar pad

138
Q

Key to occlusion with artificial over natural dentition (Stewart’s 393)

A

bilateral occlusal contact of posterior teeth and prosthesis cannot hold opposing natural dentition apart

139
Q

If the RPD is tooth-borne what occlusion is desirable (Stewart’s 394)

A

as close to natural with mutually protected articulation

140
Q

When should group function be used in a tooth- borne RPD occlusal scheme (Stewart’s 394)

A

if group function was present before and did not contribute to tooth loss

141
Q

Occlusion desired for RPD opposing a complete denture (Stewart’s 394)

A

balanced

142
Q

bilateral, simultaneous contact of anterior and posterior teeth in centric and eccentric positions (Stewart’s 394)

A

balanced occlusion

143
Q

There is ongoing controversy about the design re- quirements for free end or extension base removable partial dentures. The debate centers on…

A

The debate centers upon the amount of support that should be derived from the edentulous ridge and that which should be derived from the remaining teeth

144
Q

three approaches to force distribution

A
  1. Stress equalization
  2. Physiologic basing
  3. Broad stress distribution
145
Q

These practitioners believe that equaliza- tion can best be accomplished by recording the anatomy of the edentulous ridge in its functional form and ensuring that the associated denture base accu- rately reflects this anatomy.

A

physiologic basing

146
Q

distributing forces over as many teeth and as much of the soft tissue area as possible

A

broad stress distribution

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