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Pharm > Summer 14 Final > Flashcards

Summer 14 Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the lowest potency corticosteroid?

A

hydrocortisone 1% is lowest potency

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2
Q

What is the immune response modifier used for topically for basal cell carcinoma?

A

imiquimod

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3
Q

What is the topical treatment for skin cancer that is a pyrimidine antimetabolite?

A

5-fluorouracil

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4
Q

Which treatment for acne is keratolytic? Which is OTC? What is the level of acne it is used for?

A

benzoyl peroxide
benzoyl peroxide
mild or mod-severe w/ abx

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5
Q

What is used for severe acne? What type of drug is it? What is special about using it?

A

accutane and anti androgens (spironolactone)
retinoid
need to sign ipledge before taking

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6
Q

What type of drug is tazarotene? What is it used for?

A

retinoid

psoriasis and acne

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7
Q

Which abx are used in acne?

A

tetracycline (minocycline)

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8
Q

Which level severity are anti androgens used for in acne? Example of one?

A

severe- spironolactone

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9
Q

What type of drug that is used for psoriasis is a topical VitD3 analog?

A

calcipotriol

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10
Q

What is cyclosporine used for and what type of drug is it?

A

psoriasis

immunomodulator- calciurein inhibitor

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11
Q

What is etanercept used for and what type of drug is it?

A

psoriasis

BMR- TNF inhibitor

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12
Q

Which severity of psoriasis are topical agents used for?

A

mild to moderate

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13
Q

What bacteria do erysipilas and impetigo have in common?

A

strep pyogenes

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14
Q

How do you treat CA MRSA?

A

doxycycline, bactrim, or clindamycin

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15
Q

How can you treat folliculitis?

A

benzyl peroxide

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16
Q

How can you treat erysipelas?

A

erythromycin

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17
Q

What is muprocin used for? What does it cover? What is retapamulin used for? What does it cover?

A

impetigo
gram + and MRSA
only MSSA (staph a and strep pyogenes)

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18
Q

What causes gas gangrene? How do you treat?

A

clostridium spp.

clindamycin or penicillin

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19
Q

How do you treat cellulitis?

A

clindamycin

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20
Q

What is an OTC treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis?

A

clotrimazole

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21
Q

What drug can you use for onychomycosis? Which drug has a narrow spectrum of action and high relapse rate?

A

terbinatine

griseofulvin

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22
Q

Which is the prodrug- valacyclovir or acyclovir?

A

valacyclovir

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23
Q

If the patient has vomiting and a migraine, what drug should you make sure to include?

A

antiemetic (metoclopramide, chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine)

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24
Q

What drug should you also use if you are using ergot for migraine?

A

anti-emetic d/t side effect of nausea—> use antemetic 15 min before ergot

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25
Q

When are ergots contraindicated?

A

MI pts, uncontrolled HTN

w/in 24 hours of triptans

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26
Q

When are triptans contraindicated?

A

ischeimc heart disease, uncontrolled HTN, cerebrovascular disease
with macrolides

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27
Q

Which drugs are used for prophylaxis treatment of migraines?

A

petasites, propanolol, and riboflavin

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28
Q

Which drug is used as prophylaxis for cluster headaches?

A

verapamil

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29
Q

Which drug is used for OD of opioids?

A

naloxone

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30
Q

What is one sx everyone on opioids experiences?

A

constipation

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31
Q

Which drugs that are used for seizures can auto induce?

A

carbamezapine, oxycarbamezapine

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32
Q

What is a common side effect with carbamezapine?

A

hyponatremia

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33
Q

What is a common side effect with lamotrigene?

A

rash

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34
Q

Which drug is for absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

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35
Q

Which drug is used is neonates for seizures?

A

phenobarbitals

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36
Q

Which drugs are ok to use in hepatic failure patients?

A

gabapentin and levetiracetam

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37
Q

Which drug is bad in hepatic failure patients?

A

phenytoin

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38
Q

Which drug is used in acute attacks of MS?

A

methylprednisone

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39
Q

Which is the preferred treatment for MS?

A

interferon B (improve mortality)

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40
Q

What is a side effect of interferon beta?

A

flu like symptoms

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41
Q

What is a side effect of glatiramer?

A

eosinophilia

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42
Q

Which is an oral drug for MS?

A

fingolimod

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43
Q

What is a side effect of leukoencephalopathy?

A

natalizumab

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44
Q

What is a side effect of mitoxatrone?

A

cardiotoxicit

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45
Q

Which is a drug for MS that is a GABA-B analog and is used for mm relaxation?x

A

baclofen

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46
Q

What drug can be used for neuropathic pain in MS?

A

gabapentin

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47
Q

Which drug for Parkinson’s can increase compulsions? What type of drug is it?

A

bromocriptine

ergot (DA agonist)

48
Q

What effect do COX 2 inhibitors have on PGI2? What effect do they have on TXA2?

A

decrease PGI2

no effect on TXA2

49
Q

What effect do COX 2 inhibitors have on GI and inflammation?

A

anti-inflammatory w/ minimal risk to GI

50
Q

Which is cardioprotective- aspirin or ibuprofen?

A

aspirin is

51
Q

What is a complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage? Which drug can prevent this?

A

DCI

nimodipine

52
Q

What is the dosing for t-PA?

A

0.9 mg/kg over 1 hour with a 10% bolus in the first 1 min. (max dose is 90mg)

53
Q

What are the absolute exclusion criteria for giving t-PA?

A

hx of intracerebral hemorrhage

improving symptoms

54
Q

What are the relative exclusion criteria for giving t-PA?

A

age >80 years
taking oral anti-coags
hx of DMT2 and prior ischemic stroke

55
Q

Which drug can you give if there is an aspirin allergy? if they have a-fib but no coumadin?

A

plavix (aggrenox has aspirin in it)

pradexa or rivoaroxaban or apixaban

56
Q

When do you give statins?

A

all the time no matter the LDL level

57
Q

What is the point of permissive HTN?

A

allow transient cerebral brain perfusion

58
Q

When do you give SSRIs?

A

first line in late onset depression

59
Q

What two drugs together can cause serotonin syndrome?

A

zoloft (any SSRI) and mirtazapine (tetracyclic)

but don’t discontinue mirtazapine if starting zoloft unless side effect that is dose dependent

60
Q

Which anti-depressant is for neuropathic pain and sedation?

A

TCA

61
Q

Which drug is good for smoking cessation?

A

wellbutrin

62
Q

Which drug is good for loss of appetite?

A

mitrazapine

63
Q

Which drug causes a HTN crisis if eaten with tyramine rich foods?

A

MAO-I

64
Q

Which drug is good fro agitation and positive psychotic symptoms?

A

quetiapine

65
Q

Which drugs are first generations v second generations AP?

A

first: haloperidol and chlorpromazine
second: olazapine, risperidone, quetiapine, ziprasidone, clonzapine\

66
Q

Which drugs cause hyperprolactinemia?

A

first generations, risperidone, (switch to aripiprazole or ziprasidone)

67
Q

Which drugs cause a new onset DMT2?

A

olanzapine, clozapine, risperidone, quetiapine

68
Q

Which drug causes neutropenia?

A

clonzapine

69
Q

What do you need to keep an eye on with lithium for bipolar?

A

decreased thyroid hormone synthesis

70
Q

What drug could increase lithium levels when combined?

A

NSAIDs

71
Q

Which drugs decrease the risk for metabolic syndrome?

A

risperidone, ziprasidone, aripiprazole

72
Q

What is the benzo MOA? Can they be used in seizure prevention?

A

increase GABA binding

yes

73
Q

What are the safe benzos for liver failure?

A

Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam

74
Q

Which benzos are short acting, intermediate acting, and long acting?

A

short: midazolam, tiazolom
intermediate: alprazolam, clonazepam, LOT
long: chlorodiazepoxide, diazepem, florazepam

75
Q

long: chlorodiazepoxide, diazepem, florazepam

What is the MOA of amphetamines for ADHD?

A

increase catecholamines (DA, epi)

76
Q

Which drug is for ADHD that is not a stimulant?

A

atomoxetine

77
Q

How can you treat PTSD? Which drugs to avoid?

A

SSRI like sertraline or paroxetine

benzos

78
Q

What is an OTC drug for insomnia?

A

melatonin

79
Q

Which type of patients should you avoid using benzos in for sleep disorders? What is the time frame for using benzos?

A

pregnancy, sleep apnea

short term

80
Q

Which is a prodrug for narcolepsy that has a faster onset of action and less chance for side effects?

A

lisdexamfetamine

81
Q

What is a stimulant used for narcolepsy that treats EDS?

A

modafinil

82
Q

What is A1C goal?

A

<7%

83
Q

What is the goal for blood glucose on med floor? ICU? outpatient?

A

140
180
130

84
Q

When would you prefer the use of insulin over oral therapy?

A

when blood glucose is over 500

85
Q

What is the first choice drug for outpatient?

A

metformin

86
Q

What is a side effect of that drug? MOA? When is it contraindicated?

A

GI discomfort
increase sensitivity to insulin
if serum creatinine is greater than 1.4 in females and 1.5 in males

87
Q

What is a second line drug? Side effect? How much does it reduce A1C?

A

sulfonylureas
hypoglycemia, weight gain, hyponatremia
1.5-2%

88
Q

What effect does insulin have on K? What are the side effects of insulin?

A

causes K to go into the cell

hypoglycemia, weight gain, lipodystrophy

89
Q

Which drug worsens gastroparesis?

A

liraglutide

90
Q

Which drugs can be used in type I diabetes?

A

pramlintide and insulin

91
Q

What is the MOA of exenatide? What is its main side effect?

A

GLP-1 agonist—> increases insulin secretion

nausea

92
Q

Which drug interferes with bactrim?

A

repaglinide and nateglinide

93
Q

Which drug causes the retention of fluids (like in CHF you would want to avoid it)?

A

TZDs- pioglitazone and rosipglitazone

94
Q

What is the MOA of TZDs?

A

PPAR gamma receptor

95
Q

How much do TZDs lower A1C by?

A

1.5%

96
Q

Which drug decreases triglycerides?

A

pioglitazone

97
Q

What type of drug is sitagliptin?

A

DP4- Inhibitor

98
Q

Which drug is not used much d/t flatulence?

A

alpha glucosidase inhibitors (acarbose and miglitol)

99
Q

What are the side effects of dapagliflozan?

A

UTI, vulvovaginal mycotic infections, hypovolemia

100
Q

What are the steps for therapy according to the guidelines?

A

first metformin then insulin then other orals if still not working 3-6 months later

101
Q

What should you adjust if a patient notice morning hyperglycemia?

A

bedtime basal dose

102
Q

Which insulin is the closest to physiologic insulin?

A

long acting

103
Q

When is PTU the preferred therapy?

A

first trimester of pregnancy

104
Q

What is different between PTU and MMI?

A

MMU is 10x more potent b.c not bound to protein

105
Q

Which is the preferred therapy for Grave’s disease treatment?

A

radioactive iodine

106
Q

When is RAI contraindicated?

A

pregnancy

107
Q

What is the preferred treatment for hypothyroidism? What interaction do you need to be aware of?

A

levothyroxine (T4)

Ca

108
Q

What is the ratio of prednisone to dexamethasone?

A

prednisone (5 mg) to dexamethasone (0.75 mg)

109
Q

How many days do you have to be taking steroids before you need to taper doses?

A

> 5 days

110
Q

Which drug is an anti-progesterone agent?

A

mifepristone

111
Q

What drug would you use in the ICU (acutely) for decreasing steroids/cortisol?

A

etomidate

112
Q

Which drug causes an increase in androgen? What are the side effects of that?

A

metyrapone

hirsutism and acne

113
Q

Which drug is sedating and causes weight gain?

A

cryoproheptadine

114
Q

Which drug is a GHR antagonist?

A

pegvisomat

115
Q

What do you need to monitor with this drug?

A

LFTs

116
Q

Which drug increases the risk of gallstones via inhibiting the release of CCK?

A

octreotide

117
Q

Which drug is god for prolactinomas and GH?

A

cabergoline

Pharm (8 decks)

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